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NR341 W6_Compex Intracranial Alterations

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Family members of a patient who has a traumatic brain injury ask the nurse about the purpose of the ventriculostomy system being used for intracranial pressure monitoring. Which statement by the nurse would be the best initial response for this situation?

a)

“This is a complex type of monitoring system, and it is managed by skilled staff.”

b)

“The system measures pressures to determine whether blood flow to the brain is adequate.”

c)

“The ventriculostomy monitoring system helps check for changes in cerebral

perfusion pressure.”

d)

“This monitoring system has many benefits, including the ability to drain

cerebrospinal fluid.”

2.

Admission vital signs for a patient who has a brain injury are blood pressure of 128/68 mm Hg, pulse of 110 beats/min, and of respirations 26 breaths/min. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour later, will be of most concern to the nurse?

a)

Blood pressure 154/68 mm Hg, pulse 56 beats/min, respirations 12 breaths/min

b)

Blood pressure 134/72 mm Hg, pulse 90 beats/min, respirations 32 breaths/min

c)

Blood pressure 148/78 mm Hg, pulse 112 beats/min, respirations 28 breaths/min

d)

Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg, pulse 120 beats/min, respirations 30 breaths/min

3.

When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, how would the nurse report the response?

a)

Flexion withdrawal

b)

Localization of pain

c)

Decorticate posturing

d)

Decerebrate posturing

4.

The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter would the nurse monitor to determine the medication‘s effectiveness?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Oxygen saturation

c)

Intracranial pressure

d)

Hemoglobin and hematocrit

5.

A patient with a head injury opens his eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. How would the nurse record the patient‘s Glasgow Coma Scale score?

a)

9

b)

11

c)

13

d)

15

6.

An unconscious patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a head injury. The patient‘s spouse and teenage children stay at the patient‘s side and ask many questions about the treatment. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

a)

Call the family‘s pastor or spiritual advisor to take them to the chapel.

b)

Ask the family to stay in the waiting room until the assessment is completed.

c)

Allow the family to stay with the patient and briefly explain all procedures to them.

d)

Refer the family members to the hospital counseling service to deal with their anxiety.

7.

A patient who is unconscious after a head injury has cerebral edema. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care?

a)

Encourage coughing and deep breathing.

b)

Position the patient with knees and hips flexed.

c)

Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees.

d)

Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.

8.

A 20-yr-old is admitted with a head injury after a collision while playing sports. After noting that the patient has developed clear nasal drainage, which action would the nurse take?

a)

Have the patient gently blow the nose.

b)

Check the drainage for glucose content.

c)

Teach the patient that rhinorrhea is expected after a head injury.

d)

Obtain a specimen of the fluid to send for culture and sensitivity.

9.

Which action will the emergency department nurse anticipate for a patient diagnosed with a concussion who did not lose consciousness?

a)

Coordinate the transfer of the patient to the operating room.

b)

Provide discharge instructions about monitoring neurologic status.

c)

Arrange to admit the patient to the neurologic unit for observation.

d)

Transport the patient to radiology for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

10.

A patient who has a suspected epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse expect to take?

a)

Administer IV furosemide (Lasix).

b)

Prepare the patient for craniotomy.

c)

Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy.

d)

Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion.

11.

The nurse is admitting a patient with a basal skull fracture. The nurse notes ecchymoses around both eyes and clear drainage from the patient‘s nose. Which admission order would the nurse question?

a)

Keep the head of bed elevated.

b)

Insert nasogastric tube to low suction.

c)

Turn patient side to side every 2 hours.

d)

Apply cold packs intermittently to face.

12.

An athlete is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after a concussion. Which assessment information will the nurse collect to determine whether the patient is developing post-concussion syndrome?

a)

Short-term memory

b)

Muscle coordination

c)

Glasgow Coma Scale

d)

Pupil reaction to light

13.

When assessing a patient who has a right frontal lobe tumor, which finding would the nurse expect?

a)

Expressive aphasia

b)

Impaired judgment

c)

Right-sided weakness

d)

Difficulty swallowing

14.

Which statement by a patient who is being discharged from the emergency department (ED) after a concussion indicates a need for intervention by the nurse?

a)

“I will return if I feel dizzy or nauseated.”

b)

“I am going to drive home and go right to bed.”

c)

“I do not even remember being in an accident today.”

d)

“I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for my headache.”

15.

After having a craniectomy and left anterior fossae incision, a patient has weakness, impaired physical mobility, and a decreased level of consciousness. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

a)

Cluster nursing activities to allow longer rest periods.

b)

Turn and reposition the patient side to side every 2 hours.

c)

Position the bed flat and log roll to reposition the patient.

d)

Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 4 hours.

16.

A patient who has bacterial meningitis is disoriented and anxious. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?

a)

Encourage family members to remain at the bedside.

b)

Apply soft restraints to protect the patient from injury.

c)

Keep the room well-lighted to improve patient orientation.

d)

Minimize contact with the patient to decrease sensory input.

17.

The public health nurse is planning a program to decrease the incidence of meningitis in teenagers and young adults. Which action is most likely to be effective?

a)

Emphasize the importance of hand washing before meals.

b)

Encourage immunization for adolescents and college freshmen.

c)

Tell adolescents and young adults to avoid crowds in the winter.

d)

Support serving healthy nutritional options in the college cafeteria.

18.

A patient has been admitted with meningococcal meningitis. Which observation by the nurse requires action?

a)

The patient received a regular diet tray.

b)

Staff turned off the lights in the patient‘s room.

c)

The bedrails on both sides of the bed are elevated.

d)

Staff have entered the patient‘s room without a mask.

19.

When assessing an adult who has bacterial meningitis, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention?

a)

The patient exhibits nuchal rigidity.

b)

The patient has a positive Kernig‘s sign.

c)

The patient‘s temperature is 101F (38.3C).

d)

The patient‘s blood pressure is 88/42 mm Hg.

20.

A patient admitted with a diffuse axonal injury has a systemic blood pressure (BP) of 106/52 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 14 mm Hg. Which action would the nurse take first?

a)

Document the BP and ICP in the patient‘s record.

b)

Report the BP and ICP to the health care provider.

c)

Elevate the head of the patient‘s bed to 60 degrees.

d)

Continue to monitor the patient‘s vital signs and ICP.

21.

After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure (ICP) for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action would the nurse take first?

a)

Document the increase in intracranial pressure.

b)

Ensure that the patient‘s neck is in neutral position.

c)

Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure.

d)

Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion.

22.

Which patient is most appropriate for the intensive care unit (ICU) charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the medical unit?

a)

A 45-yr-old patient receiving IV antibiotics for meningococcal meningitis

b)

A 35-yr-old patient with intracranial pressure monitoring after a head injury

c)

A 25-yr-old patient admitted with a skull fracture and craniotomy the previous day

d)

A 55-yr-old patient who is receiving hyperventilation therapy for increased ICP

23.

A patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). The patient is now reporting a headache. Which prescribed intervention would the nurse implement first?

a)

Administer IV hypertonic saline.

b)

Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs).

c)

Send patient for computed tomography (CT).

d)

Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg.

24.

After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients with head injuries, which patient would the nurse assess first?

a)

A 20-yr-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture

b)

A 30-yr-old patient who lost consciousness for 10 seconds after a fa

c)

A 40-yr-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13

d)

A 50-yr-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light

25.

The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted the previous day with a basilar skull fracture after a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment finding indicates a possible complication that should be reported to the health care provider?

a)

Report of severe headache

b)

Large contusion behind left ear

c)

Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis

d)

Temperature of 101.4°F (38.6°C)

26.

After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patient‘s intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse requires urgent communication with the health care provider?

a)

Pulse of 102 beats/min

b)

Temperature of 101.6°F

c)

Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg

d)

Mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg

27.

The charge nurse observes a new staff nurse caring for a patient who has had a craniotomy for resection of a brain tumor. Which action by the new nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene?

a)

The staff nurse assesses neurologic status every hour.

b)

The staff nurse elevates the head of the bed to 30 degrees.

c)

The staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours.

d)

The staff nurse administers an analgesic before turning the patient.

28.

A patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after being found unconscious on the bathroom floor. Which action will the nurse take first?

a)

Check oxygen saturation.

b)

Palpate the head for injuries.

c)

Assess pupil reaction to light.

d)

Verify Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score.

29.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury. Which finding, when reported to the health care provider, would the nurse expect will result in new prescribed interventions?

a)

Pale yellow urine output of 1200 mL over the past 2 hours.

b)

Ventriculostomy drained 40 mL of fluid in the past 2 hours.

c)

Brain tissue oxygenation catheter shows PbtO of 38 mm Hg.

d)

Intracranial pressure spikes to 16 mm Hg when patient is turned.

30.

While admitting a patient with a possible brain injury to the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider?

a)

The patient reports a severe dull headache.

b)

The patient takes an anticoagulant drug daily.

c)

The patient‘s blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg.

d)

The patient is unable to remember the accident.

31.

A patient being admitted with bacterial meningitis has a temperature of 102.5F (39.2C) and a severe headache. Which prescribed intervention would the nurse implement first?

a)

Administer ceftizoxime (Cefizox) 1 g IV.

b)

Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg PO.

c)

Use a cooling blanket to lower temperature.

d)

Swab the nasopharyngeal mucosa for cultures.

32.

Which question will the nurse ask a patient who has been admitted with a benign occipital lobe tumor to assess for related functional deficits?

a)

“Do you have any difficulty in hearing?”

b)

“Are you experiencing vision problems?”

c)

“Are you having any trouble with your balance?”

d)

“Have you developed any weakness on one side?”

33.

During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns that a patient with a head injury has decorticate posturing to noxious stimulation. Which positioning shown in the accompanying figure will the nurse expect to observe?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

34.

Which is the correct point on the accompanying figure where the nurse will assess for ecchymosis when admitting a patient with a basilar skull fracture?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

35.

The nurse would determine that teaching about migraine headaches has been effective when the patient says which of the following?

a)

“I can take the Topiramate (Topamax) as soon as I get a headaches.”

b)

“I can drink a glass of wine to help me relax and prevent a headache.”

c)

“I will lie down someplace dark and quiet when the headaches begin.”

d)

“I will avoid taking aspirin and sumatriptan (Imitrex) at the same time.”

36.

Which finding would the nurse expect when assessing a patient who is experiencing a cluster headache?

a)

Nuchal rigidity

b)

Unilateral ptosis

c)

Projectile vomitin

d)

Bilateral facial pain

37.

While the nurse is transporting a patient on a stretcher to the radiology department, the patient begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which action would the nurse take?

a)

Insert an oral airway during the seizure to maintain a patent airway.

b)

Restrain the patient‘s arms and legs to prevent injury during the seizure.

c)

Time and observe and record the details of the seizure and postictal state.

d)

Avoid touching the patient to prevent further nervous system stimulation.

38.

A high school teacher who has been diagnosed with epilepsy after having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure tells the nurse, “I cannot teach any more. It will be too upsetting if I have a seizure at work.” How would the nurse respond to specifically address the patient‘s concern?

a)

“You might benefit from some psychologic counseling.”

b)

“Epilepsy usually can be well controlled with medications.”

c)

“You will want to contact the Epilepsy Foundation for assistance.”

d)

“The Department of Vocational Rehabilitation can help with work retraining.”

39.

A patient has been taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for 2 years. Which action would the nurse take when evaluating possible adverse effects of the medication?

a)

Inspect the oral mucosa.

b)

Listen to the lung sounds.

c)

Auscultate the bowel sounds.

d)

Check pupil reaction to light.

40.

Which action would the nurse plan to take for a patient with multiple sclerosis who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?

a)

Teach the patient how to self-catheterize.

b)

Encourage decreased evening fluid intake.

c)

Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs.

d)

Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours.

41.

A patient with Parkinson‘s disease (PD) has bradykinesia. Which action would the nurse include in the plan of care?

a)

Instruct the patient in activities that can be done while lying or sitting.

b)

Suggest that the patient use the arms of the chair to help push up to standing.

c)

Have the patient take small steps in a straight line directly in front of the feet.

d)

Teach the patient to keep the feet in contact with the floor and slide them forward.

42.

Which recommendation would the nurse provide to a patient with myasthenia gravis (MG)?

a)

Anticipate the need for weekly plasmapheresis treatments.

b)

Complete physically demanding activities early in the day.

c)

Protect the extremities from injury due to poor sensory perception.

d)

Perform frequent weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy.

43.

Which medication taken at home by a patient with restless legs syndrome would the nurse discuss with the patient?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Multivitamin

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Diphenhydramine

44.

A patient who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which action would the nurse include in the plan of care?

a)

Observe for agitation and paranoia.

b)

Assist with active range of motion (ROM).

c)

Give muscle relaxants as needed to reduce spasms.

d)

Use simple words and phrases to explain procedures.

45.

A 40-yr-old patient is diagnosed with early Huntington‘s disease (HD). What information would the nurse provide when teaching the patient, spouse, and adult children about this disorder?

a)

Improved nutrition and exercise can delay disease progression.

b)

Levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) will help reduce HD symptoms.

c)

Prophylactic antibiotics decrease the risk for aspiration pneumonia.

d)

Genetic testing is an option for the children to determine their HD risk.

46.

A 22-yr-old patient seen at the health clinic with a severe migraine headache tells the nurse about having similar headaches recently. Which initial action would the nurse take?

a)

Teach about the use of triptan drugs.

b)

Refer the patient for stress counseling.

c)

Ask the patient to keep a headache diary.

d)

Suggest the use of muscle-relaxation techniques.

47.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client diagnosed with cirrhosis and varices. Which information would the nurse include in the teaching session? Select all that apply.

a)

Adhering to a low-carb diet

b)

Avoiding aspirin and aspirin-containing products

c)

Limiting alcohol consumption to two drinks weekly

d)

Avoiding acetaminophen and products containing acetaminophen

e)

Avoiding coughing, sneezing, and straining to have a bowel movement

48.

The nurse is caring for a client that is scheduled to have a percutaneous liver biopsy. Which assessment findings warrant the postponement of the procedure? Select all that apply. a) b) c)

a)

hemosiderosis

b)

marked ascites

c)

hepatic cirrhosis

d)

hemoglobin of less that 9 g/dL (90mmol/L)

e)

platelet count of 150,000mm3 (150x10^9/L)

49.

The nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy and ascites. Which elements are important to include in the client's diet? Select all that apply.

a)

high fat

b)

low sodium

c)

high vitamins

d)

moderate protein

e)

low carbohydrates

50.

The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse anticipates a prescription for neomycin enemas based on which abnormal laboratory test?

a)

ammonia level

b)

culture and sensitivity

c)

white blood cell count

d)

alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level

51.

A client with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled to have a paracentesis. Which intervention would the nurse do to prepare the client for the procedure?

a)

instruct the client to void

b)

tell the client not to eat for 4 hours

c)

give the client an analgesic

d)

have the client turn to the lateral position

52.

A nurse is explaining the pathophysiology of septic shock to a new graduate nurse. Which statements accurately describe the underlying mechanisms? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Caused by systemic inflammation leading to widespread vasodilation.

b)

Leads to increased vascular permeability

c)

Sepsis causes microthrombi formation, leading to impaired tissue perfusion.

d)

Hypotension is resistant to fluid resuscitation.

e)

Primarily results from an excessive immune response to an infection.

53.

A patient received a kidney transplant last month. Because of the effects of immunosuppressive drugs and CKD, what complication of transplantation should the nurse be assessing the patient for to decrease the risk of mortality?

a)

Infection

b)

Rejection

c)

Malignancy

d)

Cardiovascular disease

54.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) is being evaluated as a candidate for continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). Which of the following are the most common indications for CRRT? (Select all that apply)

a)

Fluid volume overload unresponsive to diuretics

b)

Hyperkalemia with cardiac dysrhythmias

c)

Uremic encephalopathy

d)

Severe hypotension preventing intermittent hemodialysis

e)

Elevated hematocrit and hemoglobin

55.

Which client is at the highest risk for developing acute renal failure (ARF)?

a)

A 25-year-old client with asthma using albuterol inhaler

b)

A 50-year-old client with heart failure.

c)

A 32-year-old client recovering from an uncomplicated appendectomy

d)

A 70-year-old client with pneumonia.

56.

A client with acute renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which action should be assigned to the first-year student nurse?

a)

Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

b)

Assess the cardiac rhythm

c)

Administer oral potassium.

d)

Administer calcium gluconate intravenously and bone disorder.

57.

A 68-year-old man with a history of heart failure resulting from hypertension has AKI as a result of the effects ofnephrotoxic diuretics. Currently his serum potassium is 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L) with cardiac changes, his BUNis 108 mg/dL (38.6 mmol/L), his serum creatinine is 4.1 mg/dL (362 mmol/L), and his serum HCO3− is 14 mEq/L(14 mmol/L). He is somnolent and disoriented. Which treatment should the nurse expect to be used for him?

a)

Loop diuretics

b)

Renal replacement therapy

c)

Insulin and sodium bicarbonate

d)

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

58.

An 83-year-old female patient was found lying on the bathroom floor. She said she fell 2 days ago and has not been able to take her heart medicine or eat or drink anything since then. What conditions could be causing prerenal AKI in this patient (select all that apply)?

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Renal calculi

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Nephrotoxic drugs

e)

Decreased cardiac output

59.

What are intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) (select all that apply)?

a)

Renal stones

b)

Bladder cancer

c)

Nephrotoxic drugs

d)

Acute glomerulonephritis

e)

Tubular obstruction by myoglobin

60.

Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate for a client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure?

a)

High-protein, low-carbohydrate diet

b)

High-carbohydrate, low-protein diet

c)

High-protein, high-sodium diet

d)

Low-carbohydrate, high-fat diet

61.

Which of the following medications should the nurse question in a client with acute renal failure?

a)

Metformin

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Furosemide

d)

Calcium carbonate

62.

A patient with sepsis is receiving aggressive fluid resuscitation with normal saline. Which finding would indicate that the treatment is effective?

a)

Increased urine output to 35 mL/hr

b)

Systolic blood pressure of 85 mmHg

c)

Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min

d)

Lactate level rising from 2.5 to 4.0 mmol/L

63.

When admitting an acutely confused patient with a head injury, which action would the nurse take?

a)

Ask family members about the patient‘s health history.

b)

Ask leading questions to assist in obtaining health data.

c)

Wait until the patient is better oriented to ask questions

d)

Obtain only the physiologic neurologic assessment data.

64.

Which item would the nurse include in a focused assessment of a patient‘s left posterior temporal lobe functions?

a)

Sensation on the left side of the body

b)

Reasoning and problem-solving ability

c)

Ability to understand written and oral language

d)

Voluntary movements on the right side of the body

65.

How would the nurse assess the patient‘s trigeminal and facial nerve function (CNs V and VII)?

a)

Check for unilateral eyelid droop.

b)

Shine a light into the patient‘s pupil.

c)

Touch a cotton wisp strand to the cornea.

d)

Have the patient read a magazine or book.

66.

Which action would the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with impaired function of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and vagus nerve (CN X)?

a)

Assist to stand and ambulate.

b)

Withhold oral fluids and food.

c)

Insert an oropharyngeal airway.

d)

Apply artificial tears every hour.

67.

To prevent autonomic dysreflexia, which nursing action would the home health nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has paraplegia at the T4 level?

a)

Support selection of a high-protein diet.

b)

Discuss options for sexuality and fertility.

c)

Assist to plan a prescribed bowel program.

d)

Use quad coughing to strengthen cough efforts.

68.

A patient with a history of T3 spinal cord injury is admitted with dermal ulcers. The patient tells the nurse, “I have a pounding headache and I feel sick to my stomach.” Which action would the nurse take first?

a)

Check for a fecal impaction.

b)

Give the prescribed antiemetic.

c)

Assess the blood pressure (BP).

d)

Notify the health care provider.