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Mo CAKE

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mr. Zur is taking Spectracef for the treatment of his acute bacterial exacerbation of chronic bronchitis; Which of the following is he ingesting?

a)

Cefmenoxime

b)

Cefpodoxime

c)

Cefditoren

d)

Cefdinir

e)

Cefsulodin

2.

Hyperkalemia may result from the concurrent ingestion of Penicillin VK and all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Tekturna

b)

Inspire

c)

Invokana

d)

Zestril

e)

Oretic

3.

Which of the following bacteria is BEST classified as a gram-negative, aerobic, non-enteric bacillus?

a)

Neisseria meningitidis

b)

Morganella Morganii

c)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

d)

Burkholderia cepacia

e)

Bacteroides fragilis

4.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a)

Nafcillin and Coumadin may result in a decrease in International Normalized Ratio

b)

Ticarcillin and Lasix may result in additive hypokalemia

c)

Penicillin G and Benemid may result in a decrease in the renal tubular secretion of Penicillin G

d)

Ampicillin and Beyaz may resulu in contraceptive failure

e)

Penicillin G and an Aminoglycoside, in vivo, may result in the inactivation of the Aminoglycoside

5.

Which of the following is a Major Penicillin Determinant that is employed in the skin test to determine allergy to Penicillin?

a)

Carboxypenicillin

b)

Benzylpenicilloyl-N-propylamine

c)

Benzylpenicilloate

d)

Penicilloyl polylyine

e)

Procaine Penicillin G

6.

An individual who is severely allergic to Tazobactam only should NOT be given which of the following? SATA

a)

Timentin

b)

Augmentin

c)

Unasyn

d)

Zosyn

e)

Zerbaxa

7.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to result from therapy with Ceftriaxone?

a)

Biliary stasis

b)

Elevation of conjugated bilirubin plasma levels

c)

Kernicterus

d)

Pseudolithiasis

e)

Biliary sludging

8.

Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Fetroja?

a)

200 mg PO Q8H

b)

500 g IV infusion Q3H

c)

1g IV infusion Q12H

d)

2 g IV infusion over 30 min Q6H

e)

2 g IV infusion over 3 hrs Q8H

9.

Which of the following will grow on a MacConkey agar?

a)

Staphylococcus saprophytic

b)

Streptobacillus moniliformis

c)

Clostridium difficile

d)

Bacillus anthracis

e)

Peptostreptococcus anaerobic

10.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 4th generation Cephalosporin? SATA

a)

Ceftaroline

b)

Cefpirome

c)

Cefozopram

d)

Cefixime

e)

Cefmenoxime

11.

A biological specimen from an infectious disease patient revealed the presence of bacteria growing like a molar tooth. Which of the following was responsible for the patient's infection?

a)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

b)

Yersinia pestitis

c)

Actinomyces Israeli

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

e)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

12.

Which of the following statements about Televancin is FALSE?

a)

It produces a concentration-dependent bactericidal effect

b)

It is effective in the treatment of Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus-induced endocarditis

c)

It is administered intravenously on a QD basis

d)

It can produce hemorrhagic episodes

e)

It can cause the redman syndrome

13.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Daptomycin?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Eosinophilic pneumonia

c)

Myopathy

d)

Hyperkalemia

e)

Hypophosphatemia

14.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce the Disulfiram-like effect when administered concomitantly with Alcohol?

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Cefotetan

c)

Cefoperazone

d)

Cefmetazole

e)

Moxalactam

15.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be nephrotoxic?

a)

Cefazolin

b)

Cefoxitin

c)

Cefepime

d)

Cephalexin

e)

Ceftriaxone

16.

Which of the following statements about Teflaro is INCORRECT?

a)

It has a half-life of 2.6 hours

b)

It is administered intravenously

c)

About 88% of the administered dose is excreted through the urine

d)

It is rapidly converted to its active moiety by cytochrome P4503A4

e)

It is about 20% plasma. protein bound

17.

Which of the following inhibits the cross-linking of peptidoglycans after binding to Penicillin-binding protein 2a?

a)

Aztreonam

b)

Imipenem

c)

Ceftobiprole

d)

Bacitracin

e)

Cefixime

18.

Which of the following statements about Azactam is FALSE?

a)

Its half-life is shorter in elderly patients

b)

It binds to PBP-3

c)

It is administered IV and IM

d)

It is excreted through the feces and the urine

e)

It can be given by inhalation

19.

Claforan is LEAST LIKELY to be effective in the treatment of an infection caused by which of the following?

a)

Bacteroides fragilis

b)

Pasteurella maltocida

c)

Shigella flexneri

d)

Borrelia burgdoferi

e)

Haemophilus influenzae

20.

Which of the following is NOT a parameter or factor that is common to Penicillins?

a)

Binding to PBP-1 and PBP-3

b)

Cross-allergenicity

c)

Time-dependent bactericidal effect

d)

6-beta-Aminopenicillinaic acid nucleus

e)

Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis at the third stage

21.

Which of the following is the usual dosage of Pivmecillian when it is employed in the treatment of uncomplicated UTI?

a)

200 mg PO QID

b)

200 mg IV stat, then 400 mg PO Q8H

c)

400 mg IV stat, then 200 mg PO Q*H

d)

80 mg PO stat, then 400 mg IV Q8H

e)

400 mg PO Q8H

22.

Which of the following statements about Pivya is FALSE?

a)

It is highly effective against ESBL-producing bacteria

b)

It is highly plasma protein-bound

c)

It has a half-life of 1-1.5 hours

d)

It is a pivalloyloxymethyl ester of Amdinocilin

e)

It is excreted through the urine and bile

23.

Which of the following statements about Teichoplanin is FALSE?

a)

It is shorter-acting than Vancomycin

b)

It has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Vancomycin

c)

Like Vancomycin, it undergoes urinary excretion

d)

Like Vancomycin, it is effective against Clostridium difficile

e)

Un like Vancomycin, it does not produce the redman syndrome

24.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Seromycin?

a)

Peripheral neuropathy

b)

Fever

c)

Hypermagnesenia

d)

Elevation of blood pressure

e)

Fatigue

25.

Which of the following is a manifestation of cycloserine-induced neurotoxicity? SATA

a)

Restlessness

b)

Anxiety

c)

Seizures

d)

Irritability

e)

Twitches

26.

Which of the following statements about the mechanism(s) of action of Teixobactin is TRUE?

a)

It binds to Lipid II

b)

It binds to Lipid III

c)

It prevents the binding of NAG to NAM

d)

It prevents the transportation of Peptidoglycans to the outer surface of the bacterial cell membrane

e)

It inhibits dephosphorylation of Bactoprenol

27.

Which of the following is LIKELY to produce a toxic type of food poisoning? SATA

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Salmonella enteritiditis

c)

Clostridium botullinum

d)

Campylobacter jejuni

e)

Shigella sonnei

28.

Thioglycolate broth plus Neutral Red is used to identify which of the following bacteria?

a)

Urea-splitting

b)

Indole-positive

c)

Coagulase-positive

d)

Lactose fermenters

e)

Catalase-negative

29.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its correct causative agent?

a)

Scarlet fever: Streptococcus progenies

b)

Toxic shock syndrome: Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Lockjaw: Actinomyces Israeli

d)

Acute Necrotizing Fascitis: Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

e)

Plague: Yersinia pestiris

30.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a clinical indication of Recarbrio?

a)

Complicated intra-abdominal infection

b)

Complicated UTI

c)

Healthcare-associated bacterial pneumonia

d)

Ventilator-assocaited bacterial pneumonia

e)

Chronic otitis media

31.

Which of the following is effective against Carbapenem-resistant Enterococcus? SATA

a)

Polymycin B

b)

Teixobactin

c)

Tigecycline

d)

Temocillin

e)

Tebipenem

32.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Cefiderocol?

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Status epilepticus

c)

Hypermagnesemia

d)

Asterisxis

e)

Hypersensitivity reaction

33.

Which of the following is a mechanism of action of Fosfomycin? SATA

a)

Inhibition of the translation of RANTES

b)

Inhibition of interleukins-1beta, 2, and 8

c)

Increasing the phagocytic activity of neutrophils

d)

Inhibition of perusal transferase

e)

Prevention of the incidence of cystic fibrosis

34.

Which of the following is the usual dosage of Monaural in the management of complicated UTI?

a)

3 gm of granules mixed with 3-4 oz of cold water and taken orally once

b)

500 mg PO BID

c)

1 gm PO BID

d)

4 g IV Q6H

e)

8 g IM Q12H

35.

Cefazolin is employed prophylactically for which of the following procedures? SATA

a)

Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)

b)

Hysterectomy

c)

Joint Replacement

d)

Dental Surgery

e)

Colorectal Surgery

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