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Lubrication and Maintenance Quiz

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary reason that machinery is replaced is due to:

a)

Erosion

b)

Accidents

c)

Obsolescence

d)

Surface degradation of the metal

e)

Corrosion

2.

Which of the following is not a lubrication regime (mode / type)?

a)

Boundary

b)

Elastohydrodynamic

c)

Boundarydynamic

d)

Hydrodynamic

e)

Mixed film

3.

Which maintenance strategy is based strictly on tasks performed at specific time intervals?

a)

Proactive

b)

Predictive

c)

Preventive

d)

Percussive

e)

Reactive

4.

Condition-based maintenance:

a)

is based on the condition of the equipment and the early detection of faults

b)

is based on regular time-based overhauls

c)

Is based on run to failure

d)

is based on the condition of the oil and other root causes

e)

Answers a and d

5.

The Pareto Principle (80/20 Rule) states:

a)

The largest beneficial effect is obtained from a critical few maintenance tasks

b)

The largest beneficial effect is obtained from the (random) many maintenance tasks

c)

All machines die sometime

d)

All bearings live forever

e)

80 percent of the people do 20 percent of the work

6.

Which of the following is not a function of the lubricant?

a)

Cool surfaces

b)

Separate surfaces

c)

Prevent corrosion

d)

Repair surfaces

e)

Provide some scaling

7.

Which type or form of lubrication is considered to provide a full fluid (oil) film?

a)

Elastohydrodynamic

b)

Solid Film

c)

Boundary

d)

Mixed

8.

Elastohydrodynamic lubrication (EHL) is considered to occur primarily in:

a)

Piston rings and liners

b)

Journal bearings

c)

Rolling bearings, gears and cams

d)

Slow-moving pins and bushings

e)

Worm gears

9.

The oil film thickness (or dynamic operating clearance) in operating bearings:

a)

Cannot be determined

b)

Is about 10 microns for journal bearings (although can vary considerably)

c)

Is about a micron for rolling bearings

d)

Is not measurable

e)

Answers b&c

10.

Which is not a type of base oil (base stock)?

a)

Mineral

b)

Synthetic

c)

Antioxidant

d)

Vegetable

e)

Group III synthetic

11.

Benefits generally associated with the use of synthetics include:

a)

Better oxidation resistance

b)

Better compatibility with clastomers (seals)

c)

Less toxicity

d)

Higher cost

e)

Better paint compatibility

12.

PAO synthetic base oils:

a)

Offer the best additive solubility

b)

Are the prime choice for fire resistance

c)

Have better oxidation stability than mineral oils

d)

Are incompatible with mineral oils

e)

Offer the very best high-temperature stability

13.

Polyglycol (PAG) synthetic oils:

a)

Offer the best additive solubility

b)

Are the prime choice for fire-resistant fluids

c)

Are a copy of the best structure found in mineral oils

d)

Are incompatible with mineral oils

e)

Offer the very best high-temperature stability

14.

Greases have the advantage of functioning well in:

a)

Very high-speed bearings

b)

Frequent start-stop applications

c)

The presence of other types of greases

d)

Applications that require heat transfer and cooling

e)

Very cold-temperature applications

15.

What is the prime advantage to newer "complex" soap thickeners vs. older simple soap thickeners?

a)

Higher cost

b)

More appealing color

c)

Harder grease

d)

Higher dropping point and thus higher operating temperature

e)

Better low-temperature pumping

16.

Compatibility of different greases:

a)

is only a minor issue and often can be ignored

b)

Is a major issue that is dependent on the thickener used

c)

Is independent of the thickeners used

d)

Can be linked to the age of the grease involved

e)

is dependent only on the base oil used

17.

Which is the most common type of grease thickener?

a)

Lithium

b)

Barium

c)

Polyurea

d)

Calcium

e)

Aluminum

18.

Which one of the following is an NLGI grade?

a)

00

b)

30

c)

90

d)

220

e)

460

19.

Which one of the following numbers represents the stiffest (hardest) NLGI grade?

a)

00

b)

2

c)

000

d)

3

e)

6

20.

Viscosity is influenced by:

a)

Temperature, water, contaminants, chemical changes (oxidation)

b)

Temperature and atmospheric pressure

c)

Only temperature

d)

Only temperature and contaminants

e)

Only temperature and bearing load

21.

Which two viscosity units are identical: centistokes, centipoise, SUS, mm/sec?

a)

Centistokes and centipoise

b)

Centistokes and SUS

c)

Centistokes and mm^2/sec

d)

Centipoise and mm^2/sec

e)

Centipoise and SUS

22.

Viscosity index is:

a)

An instrument to measure viscosity

b)

A unit of viscosity

c)

An oil's change in viscosity with pressure

d)

Relates to the relative change in viscosity to change in temperature

e)

An oil's change in viscosity with shear

23.

Kinematic viscosity is commonly:

a)

Measured at 40°C

b)

Measured at 100°C

c)

Determined using a glass capillary tube and gravity

d)

Stated in centistokes at 40°C

e)

All of the above

24.

An oil's viscosity is measured to be 180 cSt @ 40°C. Which ISO grade is it?

a)

150

b)

180

c)

220

d)

180 +/- 10%

e)

None of the above

25.

Additives:

a)

Enhance existing base oil properties

b)

Suppress undesirable base oil properties

c)

Add new properties that the base oil cannot provide

d)

Answers a and b only

e)

All is correct

26.

The amount of additive in a finished oil can range from:

a)

0.1 - 30%

b)

O to only 10%

c)

10-50%

d)

I to only 10%

e)

10-30%

27.

Antiwear and extreme pressure additives function by:

a)

Reacting within the bulk oil to form wear protecting chemicals

b)

Are used in the same oil formulations

c)

Reacting with the iron surface due to frictional heat to reduce surface damage

d)

Stopping the wear reaction pathway

e)

Altering the surface tension of the oil

28.

Oxidation inhibitors:

a)

Help to prevent the formation of acids

b)

Help to prevent viscosity increase

c)

Are sacrificial and get used up

d)

Answers a and b

e)

Answers a, b and

29.

Viscosity index improver additives:

a)

Lower the viscosity of the oil

b)

Are large molecular structures that can shear down and become less effective

c)

Help prevent oxidation which leads to viscosity changes

d)

Lower the viscosity index of the oil

30.

Some grease guns can generate up to what pressure?

a)

200 psi

b)

2,000 psi

c)

15,000 psi

d)

50,000 psi

e)

200,000 psi

31.

Some additives are capable of:

a)

Restoring themselves

b)

Providing more than one function or benefit

c)

Repairing metal surfaces

d)

Regenerating/ repairing the base oil

e)

Improving the ISO cleanliness of the oil

32.

Additives can become depleted by:

a)

Oil flow

b)

Decomposition and adsorption onto metal surfaces

c)

Water evaporation

d)

High pressure

e)

They are not depleted

33.

Hydrolysis is the breakdown of additives by:

a)

Hygroscopicity

b)

Helium

c)

Water

d)

Filtration

e)

Hydrogen embitterment

34.

Oil degradation due to contamination can result in:

a)

Viscosity change

b)

Additive depletion

c)

Oxidation

d)

All of the above

e)

Only a and b

35.

Important factors when selecting a grease include:

a)

Thickener viscosity and base oil type

b)

Thickener type and color

c)

Thickener type, the base oil type and base oil viscosity

d)

Only the thickener type, the base oil type and base oil viscosity

e)

Base oil type and color

36.

Which additive is not fully dissolved in the (mineral) oil?

a)

Antioxidant

b)

Antiwear (ZDDP)

c)

Antifoam (silicone)

d)

Antirust

e)

Viscosity index improver

37.

NDm values:

a)

Are a measure of greasing volume

b)

Use rolling bearing RPM and pitch diameter to approximate bearing speed

c)

Use journal bearing RPM and mean diameter to approximate bearing speed

d)

Use gear RPM and diameter to determine gear velocity (speed)

e)

Are a measure of bearing size sometimes called the pitch diameter

38.

Adhesive wear can be described as:

a)

The adhesion of wear debris to a layer of varnish

b)

The adhesion of a layer of oil to the metal surface

c)

The transfer of silicon particle from one metal surface to another

d)

The transfer of metal from one surface to another through a localized welding process

e)

None of the above

39.

Surface fatigue can be described as:

a)

Adhesion

b)

Pitting caused by surface corrosion

c)

Metal fracturing due to chemical damage

d)

Surface-initiated pit formation caused by cyclic loading

e)

Plastic deformation of the metal's surface

40.

Polyol Ester synthetic lubricant is considered a member of what API Group?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

41.

Oxidation stability is highest for which of the following groups?

a)

Group

b)

Group II

c)

Group III

d)

Group IV

e)

Fuel oil

42.

Which of the following is the single most important property of a lubricant?

a)

Viscosity

b)

Dropping point

c)

Worked separation

d)

Base oil type

e)

Acid number

43.

Which additive is responsible for giving a multigrade lubricant suitable viscosity over wide-ranging temperature?

a)

Viscosity index improver

b)

Over-base detergent

c)

ZDDP

d)

Dispersant

e)

Antioxidant

44.

What percentage by volume of SAE 10W-30 is SAE 30?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

45.

A cone penetrometer is used to measure what?

a)

Dropping point

b)

Remaining useful life

c)

Grease consistency

d)

Oxidation stability of grease

e)

Bleed characteristics

46.

Which of the following represents the highest NLGI consistency?

a)

Block grease

b)

ISO 460

c)

000

d)

18/16/13

e)

8

47.

Which of the following represents the highest NLGI consistency?

a)

Block grease

b)

ISO 460

c)

000

d)

18/16/13

48.

Abrasive wear occurs where?

a)

Pistons/cylinders

b)

Cams

c)

Rolling element bearings

d)

Gears

e)

All of the above

49.

Which wear mechanism involves a collapsing bubble to do damage?

a)

Adhesive wear

b)

Erosive wear

c)

Cavitation wear

d)

Corrosive wear

e)

Delamination wear

50.

The deformation of a rolling element to carry a load is known as what?

a)

Boundary lubrication

b)

Hydrodynamic lubrication

c)

Elastohydrodynamic lubrication

d)

Deformative film lubrication

e)

Mixed film lubrication

51.

High soot loading is managed by what additive?

a)

ZDDP

b)

Dispersant

c)

Over-base detergent

d)

AW/EP

e)

Demulsifier

52.

How much oil does a typical grease contain?

a)

10%

b)

45%

c)

55%

d)

85%

53.

What is the most common type of synthetic oil?

a)

PAO

b)

PAG

c)

Silicon

d)

Diester

54.

If the purpose is to get the oil or machine to last twice as long, what maintenance strategy might you deploy?

a)

Preventive

b)

Predictive

c)

Breakdown

d)

Proactive

55.

Preventive maintenance is preferred as it ensures root causes are determined and rectified?

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Define friction

a)

resistance to motion between two surfaces in contact.

b)

no

c)

Yes

57.

What is the most incompatible grease thickener?

a)

Straight soap

b)

Complex soap

c)

Polyurea

d)

Clay

58.

What does the 'W' stand for in 15W-40 motor oil?

a)

Water

b)

Weight

c)

Wide

d)

Winter

59.

What is the temperature and units of measure for the ISO VG system?

a)

100 C

b)

40 C

c)

25 C

d)

15 C

60.

At what temperature would an SAE 40 and a 5W-40 have the same viscosity?

a)

40 C

b)

15 C

c)

25C

d)

100C

61.

What type of oil contains an EP additive?

a)

Gear

b)

Hydraulic

c)

Engine

d)

Compressor

62.

What is the term used to define the measure of a fluid's internal resistance to flow and is the most important physical property of a lubricant?

a)

Viscosity

b)

Viscosity Index

c)

Pour Point

d)

Flash Poin

63.

What happens to the viscosity of a fluid as the temperature increase?

a)

increase

b)

Decreases

c)

Bulid Up

d)

Max Poin

64.

What additive is used in engine oil to neutralize acids?

a)

Rust inhibitor

b)

Detergent

c)

Demulsifier

d)

Anti-wear

65.

What is the lubrication regime when the metal surfaces are touching?

a)

Hydrostatic

b)

Hydrodynamic

c)

Full film

d)

Boundary

66.

Which mineral oil has the highest quality base stock?

a)

Group I

b)

Group II

c)

Group III

d)

Group IV

67.

What happens to the viscosity of oil as pressure is applied?

a)

Stays the same

b)

Goes down

c)

Goes up

d)

Heats up

68.

Viscosity Index (VI) is the rate of change in viscosity with respect to change in______________________?

4 lines
69.

What is the maximum temperature you should use mineral oil?

a)

150°F

b)

175°F

c)

200°F

d)

225°F

70.

What is the major disadvantage of a synthetic lubricant?

a)

Thermal stability

b)

Vi Index

c)

Cost & Seal Compatibility

d)

None of the above

71.

Boundary lubrication typically occurs during start up and low speeds?

a)

True

b)

False

72.

A Paraffinic based mineral oil will have a __________ viscosity index (VI) than a Napthenic based mineral oil?

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

73.

What is the most common wear mode?

a)

Abrasive

b)

Adhesive

c)

Corrosion

d)

Cavitation

74.

What type particle cause the most damage?

a)

Big

b)

Critical Clearance

c)

Small

d)

Wet

75.

What is the maximum viscosity oil can have to be called an ISO VG 220?

a)

220

b)

235

c)

242

d)

252

76.

What is a wear mode called where voids implode on metal surfaces?

a)

Rust

b)

Cavitation

c)

Adhesion

d)

Abrasion

77.

Is friction on a surface independent of surface area?

a)

Yes

b)

NO

78.

What is the most common NLGI grease grade?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

79.

What property of grease describes its high temperature properties?

a)

Pour point

b)

Stability point

c)

Flow point

d)

Dropping point

80.

Which of the following is the most common viscosity system for oil?

a)

Kinematic

b)

Engler

c)

Saybolt

d)

Absolute

81.

What property does the aniline point test measure in oil?

a)

Flowability

b)

Oxidation stability

c)

Water content

d)

Solvency

82.

Grease consistency is measured by a____________________ ?

a)

a. Penetrometer

b)

b. Mechanical Stability Test

c)

c. Rheometer

d)

d. Crackle Test

83.

The two common tests for water resistance of grease are:

a)

Water spray-off and entrainment

b)

Water washout and water spray-off

c)

Water washout and pour point

d)

Water washout and flash point

e)

Water spray-off and Karl Fischer titration

84.

A Hydrocracked processed oil is _____________ refined than Solvent processed oil?

a)

More

b)

Less

85.

Most grease thickeners are compatible with each other?

a)

True

b)

False

86.

The amount of additives in a typical crankcase oil will be_________ than the amount of additives in a compressor oil?

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

The same

87.

All else the same, which grease consistency will flow better?

a)

NLGI 00

b)

NLGI 2

c)

ISO VG 100

d)

NLGI 6

88.

Scratching and gouging are characteristic of:

a)

Adhesion

b)

Abrasion

c)

Fatigue

d)

Cavitation

e)

Erosion

89.

What is the main function of antifoam additives?

a)

Increase oil viscosity

b)

Improve film strength

c)

Prevent air bubbles from stabilizing in oil

d)

Enhance thermal conductivity

90.

When selecting a lubricant, which parameter is most important for low-temperature performance?

a)

Flash point

b)

Viscosity index

c)

Pour point

d)

TAN

91.

What is the main advantage of condition-based lubrication?

a)

Allows lubrication to match actual machine condition

b)

Reduces need for data collection

c)

Ensures constant lubrication intervals

d)

Eliminates technician inspections

92.

Single-point grease lubricators:

a)

Are able to pump grease to a large number of grease points

b)

Are a reliable set it and forget it grease-dispensing system

c)

Are useful for hard-to-reach lube points

d)

Are capable of producing pressures similar to centralized systems

e)

All of the above

93.

Single-line progressive central lube systems:

a)

Cannot be used to distribute grease products

b)

Re-circulate the lubricants for further use

c)

Can only be used on automotive applications

d)

Have distribution blocks that eject lubricants progressively in a sequence

e)

Have injectors that eject lubricants, all at the same time

94.

Overgreasing is a common problem with higher speed rolling bearings because:

a)

It causes the temperature to rise

b)

It causes the grease to mechanically shear down

c)

It causes the grease to change color

d)

It causes the temperature to decrease

e)

It causes the bearings to elastically deform in shape

95.

Constant level oilers:

a)

Work through capillary action

b)

Cannot be set to the wrong oil level

c)

Prevent water contamination of the oil

d)

Should be set with the oil level halfway up the lower rollers on bearings

e)

Contain a wing-nut level adjuster that can be thrown away

96.

A critical issue when greasing a rolling bearing is to:

a)

Use only the exact calculated regreasing frequency

b)

Use only a pump-action grease gun

c)

Allow the grease to ooze out past the seals

d)

Wipe the excess grease from the zerk fitting when finished

e)

Allow excess grease to get out of the roller path and exit the housing through the drain port

97.

Slinger rings used in wet sump oil applications:

a)

Are a foolproof system of oil supply

b)

Must operate in a defined range of shaft surface speed

c)

Are used to splash oil to all parts of the equipment housing

d)

Are always used in gearboxes

e)

Are firmly attached to the rotating shaft

98.

Which component generally requires the cleanest oil?

a)

High-pressure hydraulics

b)

Gears

c)

Engines

d)

Turbines

e)

Journal bearings

99.

The proper time to drain the oil from a gearbox is:

a)

At the end of the shift

b)

At the end of the day

c)

At the beginning of the following shift

d)

While it is still hot from operation

e)

After it has cooled and the particles and water have settled near the bottom

100.

The lubricant formulation most commonly used for industrial, heavily loaded gear systems is:

a)

R&O gear oil

b)

Zinc-Phosphorous antiwear (AW)

c)

Sulphur-Phosphorous extreme pressure (EP)

d)

000 EP grease

e)

Compounded gear oils

101.

What part of a bearing holds the rolling element?

a)

Cup

b)

Cage

c)

Cone

d)

Ring

102.

In a journal bearing what type of metal is used on the soft inner surface?

a)

Tin

b)

Aluminum

c)

Iron

d)

Chromium

103.

Which bearing can carry the heaviest loads?

a)

Ball

b)

Cylindrical roller

c)

Journal

d)

Tapered roller

104.

What is the lubrication regime for rolling element bearings?

a)

Boundary

b)

Hydrostatic

c)

Hydrodynamic

d)

Elastohydrodynamic

105.

What color will an overheated bearing be?

a)

Silver

b)

Green

c)

Red

d)

Blue or black

106.

Generally which type of rolling element bearing runs the hottest?

a)

Sealed

b)

Open

c)

Shielded

107.

What is the life calculation of a rolling element bearing called?

a)

L50

b)

L10

c)

L90

d)

L5

108.

Where should the oil level be in a splash lubricating gear box? Touching gear tooth — half way up bottom gear tooth The principles of hydraulics are based on what law?

a)

a. Phil's

b)

b. Pascal's

c)

c. Newton's

d)

d. Charles's

109.

The principles of hydraulics are based on what law?

a)

Phil's

b)

Pascal's

c)

Newton's

d)

Charles's

110.

What is the load which can be supported when 1000 psi oil is acting on 20 square inch cylinder?

a)

1,000lbs

b)

50lbs

c)

20,000lbs

d)

100,000lbs

111.

Most hydraulic oils contain what type of additive?

a)

Extreme Pressure

b)

Antiwear

c)

Demulsifier

d)

Friction modifier

112.

What is the most common ISO viscosity grade for hydraulic oil?

a)

100

b)

46

c)

150

d)

220

113.

What is the most common ISO viscosity grade for centrifugal pumps?

a)

150

b)

32

c)

100

d)

220

114.

________ is dispersion of an oil aerosol by airflow to machine surfaces to be lubricated.

a)

Oil bath

b)

Oil mist

c)

Drip feed oiler

d)

Circulation

115.

Where should the oil level be in lubricating a ball bearing with a bottle oiler?

a)

Half way up bearing

b)

Bottom of bearing race

c)

Middle of lowest ball

d)

Flood the housing

116.

When greasing an electric motor, you should add grease until it comes out of plug.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

It does not matter if a constant level oiler is mounted on the left or right side of the pump as long as it is straight?

a)

True

b)

False

118.

What is the correct oil level with a slinger ring?

a)

Upto shaft

b)

Half way up ring

c)

1/4inch above the bottom inside ring

d)

One inch above bottom inside ring

119.

Shielded bearings cannot be greased?

a)

True

b)

False

120.

Which answer best describes typical lubricant quality?

a)

New oil is usually not clean, and contamination normally doubles each time an oil is transferred

b)

New oil is usually clean, but contamination normally doubles each time an oil is transferred

c)

New oil is usually at least as clean as equipment requirements and contamination levels normally stays about the same each time an oil is transferred.

d)

New oil is warranted to be clean and transferring fluid tends to leave deposits behind, so this helps to clean the oil.

121.

A motor should never be re-greased while it is running?

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Single-point grease lubricators:

a)

Are able to pump grease to a large number of grease points

b)

Are a reliable set it and forget it grease-dispensing system

c)

Are useful for hard-to-reach lube points

d)

Are capable of producing pressures similar to centralized systems

e)

All of the above

123.

Single-line progressive central lube systems:

a)

Cannot be used to distribute grease products

b)

Re-circulate the lubricants for further use

c)

Can only be used on automotive applications

d)

Have distribution blocks that eject lubricants progressively in a sequence

e)

Have injectors that eject lubricants, all at the same time

124.

Overgreasing is a common problem with higher speed rolling bearings because:

a)

It causes the temperature to rise

b)

It causes the grease to mechanically shear down

c)

It causes the grease to change color

d)

It causes the temperature to decrease

e)

It causes the bearings to elastically deform in shape

125.

Constant level oilers:

a)

Work through capillary action

b)

Cannot be set to the wrong oil level

c)

Prevent water contamination of the oil

d)

Should be set with the oil level halfway up the lower rollers on bearings

e)

Contain a wing-nut level adjuster that can be thrown away

126.

A critical issue when greasing a rolling bearing is to:

a)

Use only the exact calculated regreasing frequency

b)

Use only a pump-action grease gun

c)

Allow the grease to ooze out past the seals

d)

Wipe the excess grease from the zerk fitting when finished

e)

Allow excess grease to get out of the roller path and exit the housing through the drain port

127.

Slinger rings used in wet sump oil applications:

a)

Are a foolproof system of oil supply

b)

Must operate in a defined range of shaft surface speed

c)

Are used to splash oil to all parts of the equipment housing

d)

Are always used in gearboxes

e)

Are firmly attached to the rotating shaft

128.

What is the major failure mode for electric motors?

a)

Over greasing

b)

Dirt

c)

Water

d)

Under greasing

129.

What viscosity grade oil in grease is typically used in electric motors?

a)

50

b)

100

c)

220

d)

460

130.

When storing lubricant drums outside, it is best to:

a)

Store vertically (with the top surface flat) in the open sunlight

b)

Store at an angle with the openings at the high and low positions

c)

Store horizontally and covered

d)

Cover them with a sheet of plywood

e)

Store them upside down directly on the ground

131.

Lubricant shelf life limits:

a)

Are rigorously controlled by the manufacturer

b)

Get longer over time

c)

Are about 10 years

d)

Vary according to the type of lube and type of storage condition

e)

Can be stored indefinitely

132.

Best practices for top-up oil containers could include:

a)

Closeable galvanized containers

b)

Dedicated and scalable containers, by oil type

c)

Any available container will be satisfactory

d)

Lubricants should be stored at the machinery location, regardless of the cleanliness

e)

Use a funnel which contains a screen in the bottom to catch contaminants

133.

Lubricant refilling best practices should include which of the following:

a)

Use a filter cart to charge (fill) the system with oil, if possible

b)

Refill the equipment while it is operating and hot

c)

A funnel

d)

A funnel if it has been capped (or scaled)

e)

A sealed container with a tube for siphoning

134.

A filter's differential pressure slowly increases over time. What's wrong?

a)

The filter has burst

b)

The filter bypass valve is open

c)

ISO particle counts should be taken

d)

Filter differential pressure does not increase

e)

Nothing, it's removing dirt

135.

The benefit that is achieved with the use of a hard-piped sampling valve (mini-mess) is:

a)

Dead volume is minimized

b)

Flushing is easy to do

c)

Sampling is clean due to the threaded dust cap

d)

There is low risk of leakage

e)

All of the above

136.

Which of the following contributes to poor quality and unreliable oil analysis data?

a)

Sampling from drain ports

b)

Sampling from cold systems

c)

Sampling after an oil change

d)

Sampling after a major top-up volume of oil has been added

e)

All of the above

137.

Sampling a wet sump gearbox with a small oil circulation system should be done where?

a)

Downstream of the pump, upstream of the main pressure-line filter

b)

Downstream of the sump, upstream of the pump (before the pump)

c)

Downstream of the main pressure-line filter

d)

From the sump

e)

From the gearbox drain plug

138.

Sampling for wear metals in a large multi-component circulating system with a reservoir should be done where?

a)

Downstream of the pump, upstream of the main pressure-line filter

b)

Downstream of the reservoir, upstream of the pump (before the pump)

c)

Downstream of the main pressure-line filter

d)

From the return line, downstream of the working parts

e)

From the reservoir

139.

Oil samples from an off-line (kidney-loop) filtration circuit should be taken:

a)

Downstream of the pump, upstream of the filter

b)

Downstream of the reservoir, upstream of the pump (before the pump)

c)

Downstream of the filter

d)

From the sump

e)

From the drain plug

140.

Sampling crankcase oil from an engine should be done:

a)

Through the dipstick hole with a drop-tube

b)

From a valve mounted after the pump and after the filter with the engine running

c)

From a valve mounted after the pump, before the filter with the engine running

d)

From a valve mounted after the pump, before the filter with the engine shut off

e)

From the drain plug

141.

The concentration of wear debris:

a)

Always increases throughout the oil circulating system

b)

Varies throughout the oil circulating system

c)

Always decreases throughout the oil circulating system

d)

Is constant throughout the oil system

e)

Varies with the pressure in the oil system

142.

Live-zone sampling a circulating oil system means:

a)

Always use a live sample pump to take the sample

b)

Take a sample from a static (non-flowing) straight piece of pipe in laminar flow

c)

Take a representative sample from a flow line that contains flowing oil

d)

Take a sample hot

e)

Take a sample from a zone in the system

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