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DS 3262 Chapter 43: Pathology of the Uterus

Total questions: 210

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most common cystic lesion of the vagina?

a)

Hydrometra

b)

Gartner’s Duct Cyst

c)

Hematometra

d)

Pyometra

2.

How is a Gartner’s Duct Cyst typically discovered?

a)

Routine pelvic exam

b)

Incidentally during sonographic examination

c)

Blood tests

d)

MRI scan

3.

Which of the following is a result of an imperforate hymen?

a)

Uterine fibroids

b)

Obstruction of the uterus and/or vagina

c)

Ovarian cysts

d)

Ectopic pregnancy

4.

What is hydrometra?

a)

Fluid accumulation in the uterus

b)

Blood accumulation in the uterus

c)

Pus accumulation in the uterus

d)

Infection in the fallopian tubes

5.

Which of the following can cause pyometra?

a)

Imperforate hymen leading to uterine obstruction

b)

Vaginal prolapse

c)

Ovarian cyst rupture

d)

Endometrial hyperplasia

6.

Which of the following best describes pyometra?

a)

Accumulation of pus in the uterus

b)

Fluid build-up due to a blockage in the cervix

c)

A condition related to ovarian cysts

d)

Increased blood flow to the uterus

7.

An imperforate hymen can lead to the accumulation of which of the following substances?

a)

Amniotic fluid

b)

Fluid (hydrometra), blood (hematometra), or pus (pyometra)

c)

Hormones

d)

Urea

8.

What is the primary cause of hematometra?

a)

Infection of the uterus

b)

Obstruction of the menstrual outflow, leading to blood accumulation

c)

Fluid accumulation due to hormonal imbalance

d)

Ectopic pregnancy

9.

What does hematometra refer to?

a)

Accumulation of pus in the uterus

b)

Accumulation of blood in the uterus

c)

Accumulation of fluid in the uterus

d)

Infection in the fallopian tubes

10.

What is the vaginal cuff?

a)

The outer muscular layer of the vaginal wall

b)

A surgical closure at the top of the vagina after hysterectomy

c)

A fold of peritoneum that supports the uterus

d)

The opening of the cervix into the vagina

11.

In post-hysterectomy patients, what is the upper size limit of a normal vaginal cuff on ultrasound?

a)

1.5 cm

b)

2.1 cm

c)

3.0 cm

d)

2.5 cm

12.

Which of the following patients should raise the highest suspicion for malignancy if a vaginal cuff abnormality is seen?

a)

A young woman with no surgical history

b)

A postmenopausal woman with fibroids

c)

A post-hysterectomy patient with a history of cancer

d)

A pregnant woman with vaginal bleeding

13.

The vaginal cuff is typically visualized in which type of patients?

a)

Women with pelvic inflammatory disease

b)

Pregnant patients

c)

Post-hysterectomy patients

d)

Women undergoing fertility treatments

14.

What is another name for the retrouterine recess?

a)

Fornix

b)

Anterior cul-de-sac

c)

Pouch of Douglas

d)

Uterosacral recess

15.

Where is the Pouch of Douglas located?

a)

Between the bladder and uterus

b)

Between the pubic bone and bladder

c)

Between the uterus and rectum

d)

Between the ovaries and fallopian tubes

16.

Which of the following is a normal finding in the Pouch of Douglas in asymptomatic women?

a)

Large amounts of echogenic material

b)

Free fluid

c)

Calcified debris

d)

Hematoma

17.

Fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac may be considered pathological if it is associated with which of the following?(Select the best answer)

a)

Ovulation

b)

Menstrual spotting

c)

Ascites, hemorrhage, or infection

d)

Uterine fibroids

18.

Which of the following can lead to blood in the cul-de-sac?

a)

Nabothian cyst

b)

Hemorrhagic cyst rupture

c)

Ovarian torsion

d)

Simple ovarian cyst

19.

What is the most common sonographic finding in the cervix?

a)

Cervical carcinoma

b)

Nabothian cysts

c)

Endocervical polyp

d)

Cervical ectopic pregnancy

20.

Nabothian cysts are the result of which condition?

a)

Endometriosis

b)

Acute appendicitis

c)

Chronic cervicitis

d)

Vaginal cuff dehiscence

21.

Nabothian cysts are most frequently seen in which group of patients?

a)

Adolescent girls

b)

Pregnant women

c)

Middle-aged women

d)

Elderly men

22.

Which of the following best describes the sonographic appearance of a Nabothian cyst?

a)

Solid and irregular

b)

Multilocular with septations

c)

Simple, round, anechoic lesion in the cervix

d)

Echogenic with posterior shadowing

23.

Where are Nabothian cysts typically located on ultrasound?

a)

In the uterine fundus

b)

Along the cervical canal

c)

In the posterior cul-de-sac

d)

On the ovaries

24.

What is the typical sonographic appearance of a Nabothian cyst?

a)

Hyperechoic with strong shadowing

b)

Solid, vascular, and irregular

c)

Round, fluid-filled, and anechoic

d)

Septated with calcifications

25.

What is the usual size of a Nabothian cyst?

a)

Greater than 4 cm

b)

Less than 2 cm

c)

Exactly 3 cm

d)

Variable but always larger than 5 cm

26.

Which of the following may be seen within a Nabothian cyst, suggesting possible hemorrhage or infection?

a)

Peripheral calcifications

b)

Thick septations

c)

Internal debris

d)

Acoustic shadowing

27.

What is the most likely contributing factor in the development of cervical polyps?

a)

Estrogen deficiency

b)

Ovarian cysts

c)

Chronic inflammation

d)

Cervical trauma

28.

Cervical polyps are best described as:

a)

Calcified lesions of the uterine fundus

b)

Hyperplastic protrusions of the endocervix or ectocervix

c)

Simple ovarian cysts

d)

Hyperechoic fibroid tumors

29.

Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with cervical polyps?

a)

Severe pelvic pain

b)

Postmenopausal hot flashes

c)

Irregular bleeding

d)

Urinary retention

30.

Which of the following best describes a pedunculated cervical polyp?

a)

A broad-based fibroid mass in the uterine fundus

b)

A cyst filled with clear fluid and surrounded by septations

c)

A polyp with a stalk projecting out of the cervix

d)

A solid, immobile mass with posterior shadowing

31.

What is the difference between a pedunculated and a broad-based cervical polyp?

a)

Pedunculated polyps are larger

b)

Pedunculated polyps are cystic, broad-based are solid

c)

Pedunculated have a stalk; broad-based attach directly without a stalk

d)

Broad-based polyps only occur during pregnancy

32.

Cervical leiomyomas represent what portion of all uterine leiomyomas?

a)

The majority

b)

A moderate amount

c)

A small percentage

d)

Over 50%

33.

What is the typical symptom presentation of a small cervical leiomyoma?

a)

Heavy menstrual bleeding

b)

Asymptomatic

c)

Severe cramping

d)

Postmenopausal bleeding

34.

What complications can arise from larger cervical leiomyomas?

a)

Ovarian torsion

b)

Vaginal dryness and infertility

c)

Bowel or bladder obstruction

d)

Fallopian tube blockage

35.

Which of the following is true about some cervical leiomyomas?

a)

They always remain inside the uterine cavity

b)

They can be pedunculated and prolapse into the vaginal canal

c)

They are always malignant

d)

They are rarely seen on ultrasound

36.

Which imaging technique enhances the visualization of cervical leiomyomas?

a)

Hysterosalpingography

b)

Abdominal X-ray

c)

Sonohysterography

d)

MRI only

37.

Cervical stenosis refers to:

a)

The abnormal widening of the cervical canal

b)

A congenital malformation of the uterus

c)

An acquired narrowing or obstruction of the cervical canal

d)

An infection that affects the external os only

38.

Which of the following is not a common cause of cervical stenosis?

a)

Radiation therapy

b)

Cone biopsy

c)

Chronic infection

d)

Uterine fibroid degeneration

39.

Cervical stenosis can occur at which locations within the cervical canal?

a)

Only at the internal os

b)

Only at the external os

c)

At either the internal or external os

d)

Only at the cervical-vaginal junction

40.

What ultrasound finding may suggest the presence of cervical stenosis

a)

. Endometrial calcifications

b)

Large ovarian cyst

c)

Intracavitary fluid

d)

Absence of uterine arteries

41.

Postmenopausal cervical atrophy can lead to which condition?

a)

Nabothian cyst formation

b)

Cervical carcinoma

c)

Cervical stenosis

d)

Endometrial hyperplasia

42.

What is the most common type of cervical cancer?

a)

Adenocarcinoma

b)

Transitional cell carcinoma

c)

Squamous cell carcinoma

d)

Small cell carcinoma

43.

What does "carcinoma in situ" mean in the context of cervical cancer?

a)

Cancer that has spread beyond the cervix

b)

A tumor that arises from muscle tissue

c)

Full thickness of epithelium is replaced by neoplastic cells

d)

Benign growth confined to the outer cervix

44.

Cervical carcinoma primarily affects which group of women?

a)

Prepubescent girls

b)

Postmenopausal women only

c)

Women of menstrual age

d)

Pregnant women

45.

What are common clinical findings associated with cervical carcinoma?

a)

Fever and pelvic pressure

b)

Vaginal discharge or bleeding

c)

Severe back pain and constipation

d)

Painful urination and nausea

46.

On ultrasound, which of the following may indicate advanced cervical carcinoma?

a)

Ovarian cyst

b)

Enlarged endometrium

c)

Retrovesical mass

d)

Simple fluid in cul-de-sac

47.

What is the primary screening tool for detecting cervical cancer early?

a)

Endometrial biopsy

b)

Transvaginal ultrasound

c)

CA-125 blood test

d)

Papanicolaou smear (PAP smear)

48.

What sonographic finding is most associated with cervical carcinoma?

a)

Thin, smooth endometrial stripe

b)

Simple ovarian cyst

c)

Solid retrovesical mass

d)

Hyperechoic endometrium with shadowing

49.

What is commonly seen on color Doppler in cases of cervical carcinoma?

a)

No flow

b)

Decreased vascularity

c)

Increased vascularity in the mass

d)

Only venous flow

50.

On transvaginal ultrasound, how does the cervical area typically appear when affected by carcinoma?

a)

Enlarged and hypoechoic

b)

Reduced in size and hyperechoic

c)

Fluid-filled with septations

d)

Not visible

51.

Which ultrasound techniques may be used to evaluate cervical carcinoma and its spread to nearby structures?

a)

Only abdominal ultrasound

b)

EV, translabial, and transrectal ultrasound

c)

Hysterosonography only

d)

MRI is the only method

52.

What adjacent organs might be evaluated for invasion by cervical carcinoma during ultrasound?

a)

Kidneys and spleen

b)

Ovaries and fallopian tubes

c)

Bladder, ureters, vagina, and rectum

d)

Liver and pancreas

53.

Leiomyomas are also referred to as:

a)

Adenomas

b)

Cysts

c)

Myomas or fibroids

d)

Polyps

54.

What are uterine leiomyomas composed of?

a)

Glandular epithelial cells

b)

Skeletal muscle and adipose tissue

c)

Spindle-shaped smooth muscle cells and fibrous connective tissue

d)

Cartilage and nerve fibers

55.

What percentage of women over the age of 30 are affected by uterine leiomyomas?

a)

5–10%

b)

10–15%

c)

20–30%

d)

Over 50%

56.

What is the most common gynecologic tumor?

a)

Endometrial carcinoma

b)

Ovarian cyst

c)

Leiomyoma

d)

Nabothian cyst

57.

Leiomyomas are typically:

a)

Single and poorly defined

b)

Encapsulated and usually multiple

c)

Always calcified

d)

Fluid-filled and irregular

58.

What is a pseudocapsule in relation to a leiomyoma?

a)

A fluid layer surrounding a cyst

b)

A hard calcified wall around a tumor

c)

A thin capsule formed by compressed myometrium around the fibroid

d)

A membrane formed by the endometrium

59.

What percentage of leiomyomas contain calcification?

a)

25%

b)

5%

c)

10%

d)

50%

60.

Which of the following is a possible content within leiomyomas?

a)

Serous fluid

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Follicular cells

d)

Pus

61.

Which of the following is not a common clinical finding associated with leiomyomas?

a)

enlarged uterus

b)

irregular heavy bleeding

c)

pelvic pressure and pain

d)

fever and chills

62.

The term "menometrorrhagia" refers to:

a)

Irregular ovulation

b)

Absence of menstruation

c)

Irregular heavy menstrual bleeding

d)

Light spotting between periods

63.

Leiomyomas are considered:

a)

Testosterone-dependent

b)

Estrogen-independent

c)

Estrogen-dependent

d)

Progesterone-resistant

64.

What typically happens to leiomyomas during pregnancy?

a)

They always shrink

b)

They rupture

c)

They may increase in size

d)

They calcify immediately

65.

Leiomyomas are associated with which pregnancy risk?

a)

Gestational diabetes

b)

Ectopic implantation

c)

Elevated risk of pregnancy loss

d)

High blood pressure only

66.

In postmenopausal women, leiomyomas typically:

a)

Continue growing rapidly

b)

Rarely develop and often shrink

c)

Turn into malignant tumors

d)

Cause menometrorrhagia

67.

Which medication may cause growth in leiomyomas?

a)

Progesterone-only pills

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Tamoxifen

d)

Metformin

68.

What effect does hormone replacement therapy (HRT) have on leiomyomas?

a)

Causes immediate calcification

b)

Prevents their development

c)

May increase their size

d)

Has no impact

69.

Which type of leiomyoma is the most common?

a)

Subserosal

b)

Submucosal

c)

Intramural

d)

Pedunculated

70.

Submucosal leiomyomas are known for:

a)

Compressing the bladder

b)

Causing cervical stenosis

c)

Displacing or distorting the endometrial cavity with irregular or heavy bleeding

d)

Only developing in postmenopausal women

71.

Intramural leiomyomas are:

a)

Found on the outer uterine wall

b)

Confined to the myometrium

c)

Protruding into the endometrial cavity

d)

Attached to the ovary

72.

Subserosal leiomyomas project from which surface of the uterus?

a)

Endometrial

b)

Cervical

c)

Peritoneal

d)

Vaginal

73.

What is a possible appearance of a subserosal leiomyoma if it becomes pedunculated?

a)

Appears as a fluid-filled ovarian cyst

b)

Appears as an intrauterine adhesion

c)

Appears as an extrauterine mass

d)

Cannot be detected sonographically

74.

Which of the following is a primary clinical problem associated with leiomyomas?

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Menometrorrhagia or menorrhagia

c)

Vaginal itching

d)

Nausea and vomiting

75.

Uterine leiomyomas can cause which of the following symptoms?

a)

Uterine shrinking and tenderness

b)

Pelvic pain and irregular uterine shape

c)

Increased vaginal discharge only

d)

Constipation and nausea

76.

How might leiomyomas contribute to infertility?

a)

By blocking cervical mucus

b)

By causing hormone imbalance

c)

By distorting the fallopian tube or endometrial cavity

d)

By suppressing ovulation

77.

Which urinary symptom is commonly associated with leiomyomas?

a)

Urinary retention

b)

Dysuria

c)

Urinary frequency

d)

Blood in urine

78.

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of uterine leiomyomas?

a)

Back pain

b)

Sensation of pelvic pressure

c)

Sudden weight loss

d)

Irregular bleeding

79.

What is a common sonographic appearance of the uterus with leiomyomas?

a)

Thin, uniform endometrium

b)

Uterine enlargement or irregular contour

c)

Simple cyst within the endometrium

d)

Normal uterus with no changes

80.

Myomas typically appear sonographically as:

a)

Hyperechoic only

b)

Isoechoic with clear borders

c)

Hypoechoic but may be hyperechoic

d)

Anechoic with posterior enhancement

81.

What sonographic texture pattern is commonly seen in the myometrium with leiomyomas?

a)

Homogeneous

b)

Heterogeneous

c)

Cystic

d)

Anechoic

82.

What effect might extensive calcification of leiomyomas have on ultrasound imaging?

a)

Improves image clarity

b)

Allows easy identification of ovaries

c)

Makes the uterus and adnexa difficult to image due to shadowing

d)

Causes the uterus to become hyperechoic with posterior enhancement

83.

When evaluating leiomyomas, which anatomical interface should you pay special attention to for contour distortion?

a)

Endometrium and cervix

b)

Fallopian tubes and ovaries

c)

Uterus and bladder

d)

Ovary and adnexa

84.

What is the best imaging method for evaluating small fibroids less than 0.5 cm?

a)

Transabdominal ultrasound

b)

MRI

c)

Transvaginal (EV) ultrasound

d)

CT scan

85.

Larger myomas usually appear on ultrasound as:

a)

Homogeneous, round structures

b)

Hyperechoic cysts

c)

Causing heterogeneous uterine enlargement

d)

Isoechoic with the bladder wall

86.

Why is transabdominal sonography preferred for larger myomas?

a)

It is more comfortable for the patient

b)

It avoids radiation

c)

It outlines the uterus better

d)

It can assess ovarian follicles

87.

What does cystic degeneration of a fibroid look like on ultrasound?

a)

Solid echogenic mass

b)

Anechoic ring with posterior enhancement

c)

Areas of lucency within the myoma

d)

Bright shadowing without mass

88.

Why should individual fibroids be measured if they are discrete?

a)

To determine if they are malignant

b)

For accurate documentation and follow-up

c)

To assess endometrial thickness

d)

To distinguish from ovarian masses

89.

What is the role of Doppler in evaluating fibroids?

a)

To rule out calcification

b)

To check for intracystic hemorrhage

c)

To evaluate vascularity of the myomas

d)

To confirm postmenopausal status

90.

What is the most common cause of uterine calcifications?

a)

Endometrial carcinoma

b)

Ovarian cysts

c)

Uterine fibroids

d)

Cervical polyps

91.

Which of the following is a less common cause of uterine calcification?

a)

Cervical stenosis

b)

Submucosal fibroid

c)

Arcuate artery calcification

d)

Endometriosis

92.

Arcuate artery calcification is usually found:

a)

In the endometrial cavity

b)

Inside ovarian follicles

c)

Along the peripheral uterus

d)

In the fallopian tubes

93.

Arcuate artery calcification may be associated with which of the following conditions?

a)

Hypothyroidism and asthma

b)

Hypertension, diabetes, and chronic renal failure

c)

Obesity and anemia

d)

Cushing's syndrome and PCOS

94.

What is adenomyosis?

a)

Cancer of the endometrium

b)

Ectopic endometrial tissue within the cervix

c)

Ectopic endometrial tissue within the myometrium

d)

Infection of the uterine lining

95.

Adenomyosis is considered a:

a)

Malignant condition

b)

Benign condition

c)

Pre-cancerous condition

d)

Rare genetic disorder

96.

Which uterine wall is most commonly affected by adenomyosis?

a)

Lateral wall

b)

Posterior wall

c)

Fundal wall

d)

Cervical wall

97.

What is focal adenomyosis also called?

a)

Endometrioma

b)

Fibroid

c)

Adenomyoma

d)

Subserosal nodule

98.

Adenomyosis is more common in women who are:

a)

Postmenopausal

b)

Nulliparous and in their teens

c)

Multiparous and older than those with endometriosis

d)

Pregnant with twins

99.

What percentage of women with adenomyosis present with heavy abnormal menses?

a)

25%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

75%

100.

Which of the following is a less common symptom of adenomyosis, affecting approximately 25% of patients?

a)

Vaginal discharge

b)

Pelvic pain during menstruation

c)

Irregular ovulation

d)

Bloating

101.

How large can the uterus become in patients with adenomyosis?

a)

Half its normal size

b)

Up to 3 times its normal size

c)

Always remains normal

d)

Twice the size of the cervix

102.

On physical exam, how is the uterus typically described in a patient with adenomyosis?

a)

Small, firm, and non-tender

b)

Globular, boggy, and somewhat tender

c)

Rigid, shrunken, and tender

d)

Enlarged, lumpy, and hard

103.

What is the most common sonographic finding in adenomyosis?

a)

Endometrial calcification

b)

Diffuse uterine enlargement

c)

Endometrial stripe thickening

d)

Hyperechoic ovarian cyst

104.

Which uterine wall is often thickened in adenomyosis on ultrasound?

a)

Anterior

b)

Fundal

c)

Lateral

d)

Posterior

105.

A key ultrasound feature of adenomyosis is an indistinct border between:

a)

Uterus and bladder

b)

Endometrium and myometrium

c)

Cervix and fundus

d)

Ovary and adnexa

106.

What do small hypoechoic myometrial cysts with posterior acoustic enhancement most likely represent in adenomyosis?

a)

Normal follicles

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Calcifications

d)

Nabothian cysts

107.

What is an arteriovenous malformation (AVM)?

a)

A type of uterine fibroid

b)

Vascular plexus of arteries and veins without capillaries

c)

A benign cyst in the cervix

d)

A calcified uterine artery

108.

AVMs most commonly involve which part of the uterus?

a)

Endometrium

b)

Cervix

c)

Myometrium

d)

Fallopian tubes

109.

AVMs are considered:

a)

Common and usually malignant

b)

Rare and often benign

c)

Rare and associated only with pregnancy

d)

Common in postmenopausal women

110.

Which of the following best describes the cause of uterine AVMs?

a)

Always congenital

b)

Only caused by trauma

c)

Can be congenital or acquired (e.g., trauma, surgery, GTN)

d)

Exclusively postmenopausal

111.

In women of childbearing age, AVMs may clinically present as:

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Heavy ovulation bleeding

c)

Metrorrhagia with blood loss and anemia

d)

Vaginal discharge

112.

On gray-scale ultrasound, AVMs most often appear as:

a)

Round hyperechoic solid masses

b)

Serpiginous, anechoic structures

c)

Well-defined cysts

d)

Calcified fibroids

113.

What sonographic appearance may AVMs have in the myometrium?

a)

Simple cysts

b)

Inhomogeneous echotexture with tubular spaces

c)

Thin endometrial stripe

d)

Homogeneous, well-circumscribed lesion

114.

AVMs may appear in all the following uterine areas EXCEPT:

a)

Intramural

b)

Endometrial

c)

Cervical

d)

Ovarian

115.

What does color Doppler demonstrate in AVM lesions?

a)

Absence of flow

b)

Shadowing artifact

c)

Blood flow within anechoic spaces

d)

Peripheral ring flow

116.

Spectral Doppler of an AVM typically shows:

a)

Low velocity, high resistance arterial flow

b)

High velocity, low resistance arterial flow

c)

Triphasic venous flow

d)

No detectable flow

117.

How should the endometrium be measured on ultrasound?

a)

Along the transverse axis of the uterus

b)

Including the cervix

c)

Perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus

d)

Obliquely across the fundus

118.

What structure should NOT be included when measuring the endometrium?

a)

Endometrial stripe

b)

Hypoechoic halo

c)

Myometrium

d)

Uterine cavity

119.

When measuring endometrial thickness, any fluid present should be:

a)

Measured separately and added to the total

b)

Included in the endometrial thickness

c)

Ignored completely

d)

Not included in the endometrial measurement

120.

What is the main purpose of sonohysterography?

a)

To measure ovarian follicles

b)

To examine fibroids only

c)

To evaluate a thickened endometrium

d)

To scan the cervix for stenosis

121.

Sonohysterography helps distinguish between:

a)

Endometrial and myometrial layers

b)

Hormonal and non-hormonal bleeding

c)

Focal and diffuse endometrial abnormalities

d)

Uterine and ovarian cysts

122.

What type of catheter is used in sonohysterography?

a)

Foley catheter

b)

Central venous catheter

c)

Hysterosalpingography catheter

d)

PICC line

123.

How is the catheter tip identified during sonohysterography?

a)

With contrast dye

b)

By the saline-filled balloon at the tip

c)

By color Doppler imaging

d)

By echogenic particles

124.

What is injected through the catheter during sonohysterography?

a)

Iodine

b)

Glucose

c)

Saline

d)

Barium

125.

When is sonohysterography ideally performed in premenopausal women?

a)

During menstruation

b)

Immediately after ovulation

c)

Midmenstrual cycle (days 6–10)

d)

During the luteal phase

126.

In postmenopausal women, when can sonohysterography be performed?

a)

Only during ovulation

b)

Any time or after monthly bleeding if on hormone therapy

c)

Only after menopause is confirmed by blood tests

d)

During menstruation

127.

Which of the following is a contraindication for performing sonohysterography?

a)

History of fibroids

b)

Recent miscarriage

c)

Acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

d)

Endometrial atrophy

128.

What is endometrial hyperplasia?

a)

Thinning of the endometrial lining

b)

Infection of the uterus

c)

Abnormal thickening of the endometrium

d)

Calcification of the uterine wall

129.

What typically causes endometrial hyperplasia?

a)

Low progesterone levels

b)

Repeated infections

c)

Prolonged estrogen stimulation

d)

Trauma to the cervix

130.

Endometrial hyperplasia is considered:

a)

A benign condition with no long-term effects

b)

A precursor to uterine prolapse

c)

A potential precursor to endometrial cancer

d)

A symptom of menopause

131.

What is the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in both premenopausal and postmenopausal women?

a)

Cervical polyps

b)

Uterine fibroids

c)

Endometrial hyperplasia

d)

Ovarian cysts

132.

In premenopausal women, what endometrial thickness suggests hyperplasia?

a)

More than 8 mm

b)

More than 14 mm

c)

More than 5 mm

d)

More than 20 mm

133.

What is the upper limit of normal endometrial thickness in asymptomatic postmenopausal women?

a)

5mm

b)

10mm

c)

8mm

d)

12mm

134.

What is the normal endometrial thickness in postmenopausal women?

a)

Less than 5 mm

b)

Less than 8 mm

c)

Less than 10 mm

d)

Less than 12 mm

135.

Women on sequential estrogen and progesterone replacement therapy may have endometrial thickness up to:

a)

8 mm during the progesterone phase

b)

12 mm during the estrogen phase

c)

15 mm during the estrogen phase

d)

5 mm during the entire cycle

136.

When should the endometrium be studied in women on hormone replacement therapy?

a)

Only during menstruation

b)

At the beginning or end of the hormone cycle

c)

Only during the estrogen phase

d)

Any time during the cycle

137.

How does the endometrium typically appear sonographically in cases of endometrial hyperplasia?

a)

Thin and hypoechoic

b)

Diffusely thick and echogenic with well-defined margins

c)

Irregular and hypoechoic with poor margins

d)

Calcified with strong posterior shadowing

138.

In endometrial hyperplasia, which of the following may also be seen?

a)

Multiple calcifications

b)

Intramural masses

c)

Small cysts within the endometrium

d)

Cervical canal narrowing

139.

Endometrial hyperplasia may present with which of the following patterns?

a)

Only symmetrical thickening

b)

Focal or asymmetrical thickening

c)

Endometrial atrophy

d)

Fluid-filled uterine cavity

140.

What are endometrial polyps?

a)

Cysts filled with blood in the uterine cavity

b)

Overgrowths of endometrial tissue

c)

Calcified uterine fibroids

d)

Infections of the endometrium

141.

Which of the following statements is true about endometrial polyps?

a)

They are always singular

b)

They always cause severe pain

c)

20% of them are multiple

d)

They are rarely found in postmenopausal women

142.

Endometrial polyps are most frequently seen in:

a)

Teenagers

b)

Pregnant women

c)

Perimenopausal and postmenopausal women

d)

Women with polycystic ovary syndrome

143.

What shape can endometrial polyps have?

a)

Always round with thick walls

b)

Only flat and broad

c)

Pedunculated, broad based, or thin stalk

d)

Irregular and calcified

144.

In menstruating women, endometrial polyps may be associated with:

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Menometrorrhagia or infertility

c)

Ovarian torsion

d)

Menopause

145.

How do endometrial polyps typically appear on ultrasound?

a)

As hyperechoic regions within the hypoechoic endometrium

b)

As hypoechoic regions within the hyperechoic endometrium

c)

As fluid-filled structures in the cervix

d)

As calcified round masses near the ovary

146.

What shape might an endometrial polyp appear as within the endometrial cavity?

a)

Linear shadow

b)

Irregular mass

c)

Round echogenic mass

d)

Large cystic lesion in the myometrium

147.

Which of the following may be seen within an endometrial polyp?

a)

Multiple calcifications

b)

Fluid-filled ovarian follicles

c)

Cystic areas

d)

Thickened fallopian tubes

148.

What vascular finding may help identify an endometrial polyp?

a)

Enlarged uterine artery

b)

Absent flow

c)

Feeding artery in the stalk

d)

High-resistance flow in the cervix

149.

What improves the visualization of an endometrial polyp?

a)

Transrectal scanning

b)

The presence of intracavitary fluid

c)

Patient fasting for 12 hours

d)

Saline injection into the bladder

150.

What is endometritis?

a)

Inflammation of the cervix

b)

Infection within the endometrium

c)

Fibroid formation in the myometrium

d)

Cyst formation in the ovaries

151.

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with endometritis?

a)

Menopause

b)

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

c)

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

d)

Uterine prolapse

152.

What sonographic finding may suggest endometritis?

a)

Enlarged ovaries

b)

Absence of endometrial stripe

c)

Thickening or fluid within the endometrium

d)

Uterine calcifications

153.

In what clinical situations is endometritis commonly seen?

a)

Pregnancy and ovulation

b)

Postpartum state and following instrumentation

c)

Endometriosis and uterine fibroids

d)

Menopause and hormone therapy

154.

What is a common clinical symptom of endometritis?

a)

Irregular bleeding

b)

Amenorrhea

c)

Intense pelvic pain

d)

Urinary urgency

155.

What is a typical sonographic appearance of the endometrium in endometritis?

a)

Thin and smooth

b)

Hyperechoic and uniform

c)

Prominent and irregular

d)

Completely calcified

156.

A small amount of which of the following may be seen within the endometrium in endometritis?

a)

Gas

b)

Blood

c)

Fluid

d)

Calcium

157.

What ovarian finding may be associated with endometritis?

a)

Shrinkage of ovarian size

b)

Enlarged ovaries with multiple cysts

c)

Thick calcified walls

d)

Loss of vascular flow

158.

What is suggested by a fluid-filled tubular structure seen on ultrasound in the setting of endometritis?

a)

Urethral blockage

b)

Normal fallopian tube

c)

Dilated fallopian tube

d)

Absent ovary

159.

A thickened tubal wall measuring 5 mm or more is indicative of what?

a)

Chronic endometritis

b)

Menopause

c)

Acute disease

d)

Endometrial cancer

160.

As pelvic infection worsens, what may form and fuse the inflamed fallopian tube and ovary?

a)

Endometrial polyps

b)

Periovarian adhesions

c)

Cervical fibroids

d)

Ovarian cysts

161.

What condition occurs when the inflamed tube and ovary become fused due to infection?

a)

Ovarian torsion

b)

Tubal carcinoma

c)

Tubo-ovarian abscess

d)

Endometrioma

162.

Which of the following is a sonographic appearance of a tubo-ovarian abscess?

a)

Homogeneous echogenic mass

b)

Simple round anechoic cyst

c)

Complex multiloculated mass with septations and internal echoes

d)

Solid hyperechoic nodule

163.

Which of the following may be seen within a tubo-ovarian abscess on ultrasound?

a)

Calcified fibroids

b)

Gas bubbles

c)

Dermoid plug

d)

Ovarian follicles

164.

What sonographic artifact might be seen behind a tubo-ovarian abscess due to fluid content?

a)

Reverberation

b)

Posterior acoustic shadowing

c)

Posterior acoustic enhancement

d)

Mirror image artifact

165.

What is another name for endometrial adhesions?

a)

Endometritis

b)

Endometriosis

c)

Synechiae

d)

Leiomyomas

166.

Synechiae are most commonly associated with which of the following histories?

a)

Menopause

b)

Postmenstrual syndrome

c)

Posttraumatic or postsurgical

d)

Hormone therapy

167.

Which of the following can synechiae potentially cause?

a)

Polycystic ovaries

b)

Irregular bleeding only

c)

Infertility or recurrent pregnancy loss

d)

Endometrial cancer

168.

On sonographic examination, how do synechiae typically appear?

a)

Hypoechoic rim around the uterus

b)

Bright echoes within the endometrial cavity

c)

Anechoic cysts in the cervix

d)

Solid mass in the ovary

169.

Why is synechiae difficult to diagnose with ultrasound?

a)

The uterus is always enlarged

b)

There is too much calcification

c)

Diagnosis is difficult unless fluid distends the endometrial cavity

d)

It always appears as a simple cyst

170.

What is the most common gynecologic malignancy in North America?

a)

Ovarian carcinoma

b)

Cervical cancer

c)

Endometrial carcinoma

d)

Vulvar cancer

171.

What type of cancer are most endometrial carcinomas?

a)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Adenocarcinoma

c)

Sarcoma

d)

Transitional cell carcinoma

172.

Endometrial carcinoma most commonly occurs in which group of patients?

a)

Adolescent females

b)

Premenopausal women

c)

Postmenopausal women

d)

Pregnant women

173.

What is the most common clinical presentation of endometrial carcinoma?

a)

Abdominal pain

b)

Vaginal discharge

c)

Uterine bleeding

d)

Pelvic mass

174.

Which of the following is strongly associated with endometrial carcinoma?

a)

Progesterone therapy

b)

Replacement estrogen therapy

c)

Birth control pills

d)

Smoking

175.

In premenopausal women, what are two risk factors for developing endometrial carcinoma?

a)

Smoking and alcohol

b)

High calcium intake and stress

c)

Anovulatory cycles and obesity

d)

Fibroids and endometriosis

176.

What is the earliest sonographic change seen in endometrial carcinoma?

a)

Calcified fibroid

b)

Endometrial thinning

c)

Thickened endometrium

d)

Uterine enlargement

177.

Endometrial carcinoma can also be associated with which of the following conditions? (Select all that apply)

a)

Endometrial hypertrophy

b)

Endometrial polyp

c)

Ovarian torsion

d)

Cervical stenosis

178.

In postmenopausal women, what endometrial thickness raises suspicion for endometrial carcinoma?

a)

Greater than 2 mm

b)

Greater than 3 mm

c)

Greater than 4–5 mm

d)

Greater than 6–7 mm

179.

What should be suspected if a postmenopausal woman has an endometrial thickness >4–5 mm?

a)

Normal hormonal variation

b)

Endometrial carcinoma

c)

Uterine atrophy

d)

Ovarian cyst

180.

What sonographic feature indicates myometrial invasion in endometrial carcinoma?

a)

Smooth, uniform endometrium

b)

Hypoechoic ovarian mass

c)

Thickening and irregularity of the central endometrium with hyperdense structures in the myometrium

d)

Thin endometrium with fluid

181.

What imaging modality is typically used to evaluate endometrial carcinoma and myometrial invasion?

a)

Abdominal radiograph

b)

Hysterosalpingography

c)

Endovaginal (EV) sonography

d)

CT scan of the pelvis

182.

What complication can occur if endometrial carcinoma obstructs the endometrial canal?

a)

Hydrosalpinx

b)

Hematometra

c)

Ovarian torsion

d)

Pyometra

183.

What is Tamoxifen primarily used for?

a)

Treatment of uterine fibroids

b)

Hormone replacement therapy

c)

Adjuvant therapy in breast cancer

d)

Birth control

184.

What is Tamoxifen primarily used for?

a)

Treatment of uterine fibroids

b)

Hormone replacement therapy

c)

Adjuvant therapy in breast cancer

d)

Birth control

185.

Tamoxifen acts as what type of compound?

a)

Estrogen agonist

b)

Progestin

c)

Antiestrogen compound

d)

Aromatase inhibitor

186.

Tamoxifen use is associated with an increased risk of which gynecologic malignancy?

a)

Ovarian cancer

b)

Cervical cancer

c)

Endometrial carcinoma

d)

Vaginal cancer

187.

In endometrial carcinoma staging, what do stages I and II indicate?

a)

Cancer has spread to distant organs

b)

Cancer is limited to the ovaries

c)

Cancer is confined to the uterus

d)

Cancer is outside the pelvis

188.

Which stages of endometrial carcinoma indicate extrauterine spread?

a)

Stage 0

b)

Stage I and II

c)

Stage III and IV

d)

Stage II only

189.

Which of the following is NOT a condition commonly associated with small endometrial fluid collections?

a)

Endometritis

b)

Ectopic pregnancy

c)

Recent abortion

d)

Ovarian torsion

190.

Small fluid collections within the endometrial cavity may be seen in all of the following except:

a)

Degenerating myomas

b)

Endometritis

c)

Recent abortion

d)

Normal ovulation

191.

Degenerating myomas may lead to which of the following findings on ultrasound?

a)

Adnexal masses

b)

Small endometrial fluid collections

c)

Ovarian cyst rupture

d)

Cervical stenosis

192.

What is the primary cause of large endometrial fluid collections?

a)

Hormonal imbalance

b)

Obstruction of the cervical os

c)

Endometrial cancer

d)

Ovarian cysts

193.

What is the term for a fluid collection before menstruation due to cervical obstruction?

a)

Hematometra

b)

Pyometra

c)

Hydrometrocolpus

d)

Hematometrocolpos

194.

What is the term for a fluid collection after menstruation due to cervical obstruction?

a)

Hematometrocolpos

b)

Endometrioma

c)

Serometra

d)

Hydrosalpinx

195.

A patient with a large endometrial fluid collection may present with:

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Vaginal itching

c)

Abdominal pain and an enlarged abdominal mass

d)

Irregular heartbeat

196.

On ultrasound, a large endometrial fluid collection may appear:

a)

As a solid mass with shadowing

b)

As a small, anechoic cyst

c)

As a distended endometrial cavity, possibly with echogenic material

d)

As a thickened myometrium with calcifications

197.

What does the presence of echogenic material in a fluid collection suggest?

a)

It’s a benign ovarian cyst

b)

The patient has endometriosis

c)

There may be pus or blood in the collection

d)

It indicates a normal menstrual cycle

198.

What uterine change is often associated with large endometrial fluid collections?

a)

Small, fibrotic uterus

b)

Moderately enlarged uterus

c)

Prolapsed uterus

d)

Thickened cervix

199.

Hematometra refers to:

a)

Infection in the uterus

b)

Blood in the fallopian tubes

c)

Distention of the endometrial cavity with blood

d)

Fluid in the ovarian follicles

200.

What is the most common cause of hematometra?

a)

Uterine fibroids

b)

Endometrial cancer

c)

Cervical stenosis

d)

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

201.

When is an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) typically placed?

a)

After ovulation

b)

During menopause

c)

During menstruation

d)

After childbirth only

202.

How can a patient check for proper IUCD placement at home?

a)

Abdominal ultrasound

b)

Checking for the string via digital palpation of the cervix

c)

Pelvic MRI

d)

Urine test

203.

Which imaging modality is used if the IUCD is not seen on sonography?

a)

CT scan

b)

MRI

c)

Radiograph (X-ray)

d)

PET scan

204.

Sonography can detect which of the following IUCD-related complications?

a)

String detachment only

b)

Hormonal side effects

c)

Malposition, perforation, or incomplete removal

d)

Irregular ovulation

205.

Which complications are patients with IUCDs at increased risk for?

a)

Uterine fibroids and PCOS

b)

Ectopic pregnancy and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

c)

Cervical cancer and endometriosis

d)

Endometrial hyperplasia and adenomyosis

206.

A tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA) in IUCD users may present as:

a)

A bilateral ovarian cyst

b)

An endometrial polyp

c)

A unilateral mass

d)

A uterine fibroid

207.

On ultrasound, an IUCD typically appears as:

a)

Anechoic cystic structure

b)

Highly echogenic linear structures in the endometrial cavity

c)

Hypoechoic mass in the ovary

d)

Thickened endometrium

208.

The shafts of the IUCD appear on ultrasound as:

a)

Single hypoechoic line

b)

Double line

c)

Cluster of dots

d)

No visible structure

209.

Which ultrasound artifact commonly occurs behind an IUCD?

a)

Acoustic enhancement

b)

Posterior shadowing

c)

Ring-down artifact

d)

Mirror image artifact

210.

Uterine perforation caused by IUCD may be difficult to suspect until:

a)

Routine checkup

b)

An abscess or painful bowel involvement occurs

c)

The patient experiences spotting

d)

The IUCD string is visible

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