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Object Oriented Programming

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which Layer 2 attack will result in legitimate users not getting valid IP addresses?

a)

ARP spoofing

b)

DHCP starvation

c)

IP address spoofing

d)

MAC address flooding

2.

What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?

a)

Disable DTP.

b)

Disable STP.

c)

Enable port security.

d)

Place unused ports in an unused VLAN.

3.

Which three Cisco products focus on endpoint security solutions? (Choose three.)

a)

Web Security Appliance

b)

Email Security Appliance

c)

NAC Appliance

d)

IPS Sensor Appliance

e)

SSL/IPsec VPN Appliance

4.

True or False? In the 802.1X standard, the client attempting to access the network is referred to as the supplicant.

a)

true

b)

False

5.

Which authentication method stores usernames and passwords in the router and is ideal for small networks?

a)

local AAA

b)

server-based AAA over TACACS+

c)

server-based AAA

d)

local AAA over TACACS+

e)

local AAA over RADIUS

6.

What represents a best practice concerning discovery protocols such as CDP and LLDP on network devices?

a)

Enable CDP on edge devices, and enable LLDP on interior devices.

b)

Use the open standard LLDP rather than CDP.

c)

Use the default router settings for CDP and LLDP.

d)

Disable both protocols on all interfaces where they are not required.

7.

Which protocol should be used to mitigate the vulnerability of using Telnet to remotely manage network devices?

a)

SNMP

b)

TFTP

c)

SSH

d)

SCP

8.

Which statement describes the behavior of a switch when the MAC address table is full?

a)

It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports on the switch.

b)

It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports across multiple switches.

c)

It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports within the local VLAN.

d)

It treats frames as unknown unicast and floods all incoming frames to all ports within the collision domain.

9.

What device is considered a supplicant during the 802.1X authentication process?

a)

the router that is serving as the default gateway

b)

the authentication server that is performing client authentication

c)

the client that is requesting authentication

d)

the switch that is controlling network access

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals? No one is allowed to disconnect the IP phone or the PC and connect some other wired device. If a different device is connected, port Fa0/2 is shut down. The switch should automatically detect the MAC address of the IP phone and the PC and add those addresses to the running configuration.

a)

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

b)

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security violation restrict

c)

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2

d)

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Port security has been configured on the Fa 0/12 interface of switch S1. What action will occur when PC1 is attached to switch S1 with the applied configuration?

a)

Frames from PC1 will be dropped, and there will be no log of the violation.

b)

Frames from PC1 will be forwarded to its destination, but a log entry will not be created.

c)

Frames from PC1 will cause the interface to shut down immediately, and a log entry will be made.

d)

Frames from PC1 will be forwarded since the switchport port-security violation command is missing.

e)

Frames from PC1 will be forwarded to its destination, and a log entry will be created.

12.

Which type of VLAN-hopping attack may be prevented by designating an unused VLAN as the native VLAN?

a)

DHCP spoofing

b)

DHCP starvation

c)

VLAN double-tagging

d)

DTP spoofing

13.

A network administrator is configuring DAI on a switch with the command ip arp inspection validate src-mac. What is the purpose of this configuration command?

a)

It checks the source MAC address in the Ethernet header against the user-configured ARP ACLs.

b)

It checks the source MAC address in the Ethernet header against the MAC address table.

c)

It checks the source MAC address in the Ethernet header against the sender MAC address in the ARP body.

d)

It checks the source MAC address in the Ethernet header against the target MAC address in the ARP body.

14.

Which two commands can be used to enable BPDU guard on a switch? (Choose two.)

a)

S1(config)# spanning-tree bpduguard default

b)

S1(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast bpduguard

c)

S1(config)# spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

d)

S1(config-if)# enable spanning-tree bpduguard

e)

S1(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard enable

15.

As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

a)

auto secure MAC addresses

b)

dynamic secure MAC addresses

c)

static secure MAC addresses

d)

sticky secure MAC addresses

16.

Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?

a)

authentication

b)

probe request

c)

probe response

d)

Beacon

17.

What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)

a)

delivering a broadcast frame

b)

receiving a broadcast beacon frame

c)

initiating a three-way handshake

d)

sending an ARP request

e)

transmitting a probe request

18.

A technician is configuring the channel on a wireless router to either 1, 6, or 11. What is the purpose of adjusting the channel?

a)

to enable different 802.11 standards

b)

to avoid interference from nearby wireless devices

c)

to disable broadcasting of the SSID

d)

to provide stronger security modes

19.

When a guest speaker attempts to connect to the network, the laptop fails to display any available wireless networks. The access point must be operating in which mode?

a)

mixed

b)

passive

c)

active

d)

Open

20.

To provide data rates up to 1.3 Gb/s and still be backward compatible with older devices, which wireless standard should be implemented?

a)

802.11n

b)

802.11ac

c)

802.11g

d)

802.11b

21.

What is the first security measure the technician should apply immediately upon powering up the wireless router?

a)

Enable MAC address filtering on the wireless router.

b)

Configure encryption on the wireless router and the connected wireless devices.

c)

Change the default user-name and password of the wireless router.

d)

Disable the wireless network SSID broadcast.

22.

On a Cisco 3504 WLC dashboard, which option provides access to the full menu of features?

a)

Access Points

b)

Network Summary

c)

Advanced

d)

Rogues

23.

Which step is required before creating a new WLAN on a Cisco 3500 series WLC?

a)

Create a new SSID.

b)

Build or have an SNMP server available.

c)

Build or have a RADIUS server available.

d)

Create a new VLAN interface.

24.

A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might configuring a 5 GHz frequency band SSID improve the wireless network performance for streaming media services?

a)

Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.

b)

The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.

c)

The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-free.

d)

The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.

25.

A network administrator is configuring a RADIUS server connection on a Cisco 3500 series WLC. The configuration requires a shared secret password. What is the purpose for the shared secret password?

a)

It is used by the RADIUS server to authenticate WLAN users.

b)

It is used to authenticate and encrypt user data on the WLAN.

c)

It is used to encrypt the messages between the WLC and the RADIUS server.

d)

It allows users to authenticate and access the WLAN.

26.

Which three parameters would need to be changed if best practices are being implemented for a home wireless AP? (Choose three.)

a)

antenna frequency

b)

wireless network password

c)

wireless client operating system password

d)

AP password

e)

SSID

27.

Which access control component, implementation, or protocol is based upon usernames and passwords?

a)

802.1X

b)

accounting

c)

authentication

d)

authorization

28.

Which type of wireless network is based on the 802.11 standard and a 2.4-GHz or 5-GHz radio frequency?

a)

wireless metropolitan-area network

b)

wireless wide-area network

c)

wireless local-area network

d)

wireless personal-area network

29.

Which two Cisco solutions help prevent DHCP starvation attacks? (Choose two.)

a)

DHCP Snooping

b)

IP Source Guard

c)

Dynamic ARP Inspection

d)

Port Security

e)

Web Security Appliance

30.

What are three techniques for mitigating VLAN attacks? (Choose three.)

a)

Use private VLANs.

b)

Set the native VLAN to an unused VLAN.

c)

Enable trunking manually.

d)

Enable Source Guard.

e)

Disable DTP.

31.

Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding of traffic for which there is no specific route?

a)

next-hop

b)

gateway of last resort

c)

route source

d)

outgoing interface

32.

Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

a)

Configuration of static routes is error-free.

b)

Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.

c)

Static routes scale well as the network grows.

d)

Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.

e)

The path a static route uses to send data is known.

33.

What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

a)

to maintain routing tables

b)

to assure low router overhead

c)

to avoid exposing network information

d)

to discover the network

e)

to choose the path that is specified by the administrator

34.

What is an advantage of using dynamic routing protocols instead of static routing?

a)

easier to implement

b)

more secure in controlling routing updates

c)

fewer router resource overhead requirements

d)

ability to actively search for new routes if the current path becomes unavailable

35.

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into the down state?

a)

The static route is removed from the routing table.

b)

The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

c)

The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.

d)

The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

36.

What is a characteristic of a static route that matches all packets?

a)

It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.

b)

It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.

c)

It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.

d)

It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has.

37.

When would it be more beneficial to use a dynamic routing protocol instead of static routing?

a)

in an organization where routers suffer from performance issues

b)

on a stub network that has a single exit point

c)

in an organization with a smaller network that is not expected to grow in size

d)

on a network where there is a lot of topology changes

38.

Which route would be used to forward a packet with a source IP address of 192.168.10.1 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.1?

a)

C 192.168.10.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1

b)

O 10.1.1.0/24 [110/65] via 192.168.200.2, 00:01:20, Serial0/1/0

c)

S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.1.1

d)

S 10.1.0.0/16 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0

39.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value of the route for router R1 to reach the destination IPv6 address of 2001:DB8:CAFE:4::A?

a)

120

b)

110

c)

1

d)

4

40.

Which value in a routing table represents trustworthiness and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

a)

administrative distance

b)

metric

c)

outgoing interface

d)

routing protocol

41.

Refer to the graphic. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?

a)

A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1

b)

A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0

c)

A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2

d)

A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

e)

A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

42.

On which two routers would a default static route be configured? (Choose two.)

a)

any router where a backup route to dynamic routing is needed for reliability

b)

the router that serves as the gateway of last resort

c)

any router running an IOS prior to 12.0

d)

stub router connection to the rest of the corporate or campus network

e)

edge router connection to the ISP

43.

Refer to the exhibit. This network has two connections to the ISP, one via router C and one via router B. The serial link between router A and router C supports EIGRP and is the primary link to the Internet. If the primary link fails, the administrator needs a floating static route that avoids recursive route lookups and any potential next-hop issues caused by the multiaccess nature of the Ethernet segment with router B. What should the administrator configure?

a)

Create a static route pointing to 10.1.1.1 with an AD of 95.

b)

Create a fully specified static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 1.

c)

Create a fully specified static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 95.

d)

Create a static route pointing to 10.1.1.1 with an AD of 1.

e)

Create a static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 1.

44.

What is a characteristic of a floating static route?

a)

When it is configured, it creates a gateway of last resort.

b)

It is used to provide load balancing between static routes.

c)

It is simply a static route with 0.0.0.0/0 as the destination IPv4 address.

d)

It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has.

45.

What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?

a)

FFFF::/128

b)

::1/64

c)

::/128

d)

::/0

46.

Consider the following command:

ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5

What does the 5 at the end of the command signify?

a)

exit interface

b)

maximum number of hops to the 192.168.10.0/24 network

c)

metric

d)

administrative distance

47.

Refer to the exhibit. The routing table for R2 is as follows:

Gateway of last resort is not set

10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 2 subnets
C 10.0.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
C 10.0.0.4 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
192.168.10.0/26 is subnetted, 3 subnets
S 192.168.10.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
C 192.168.10.64 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
S 192.168.10.128 [1/0] via 10.0.0.6

What will router R2 do with a packet destined for 192.168.10.129?

a)

send the packet out interface FastEthernet0/0

b)

send the packet out interface Serial0/0/1

c)

drop the packet

d)

send the packet out interface Serial0/0/0

48.

An administrator issues the ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1::/32 gigabitethernet0/0 2001:db8:acad:6::1 100 command on a router. What administrative distance is assigned to this route?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

32

d)

100

49.

Refer to the exhibit. Which default static route command would allow R1 to potentially reach all unknown networks on the Internet?

a)

R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/0

b)

R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/0 fe80::2

c)

R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/1 fe80::2

d)

R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/1 fe80::2

50.

Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?

a)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0

b)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10

c)

ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10

d)

ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252

51.

What command to use to check if your switch is acting as a root bridge?

a)

show stp

b)

show spanning-tree

c)

show stp summary

d)

show spanning-tree bridge

52.

What type of WLAN configuration is commonly referred as ad hoc mode?

a)

Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)

b)

Extended Service Set (ESS)

c)

Mesh mode

d)

Infrastructure mode

53.

While observing networking traffic, you see several DHCP Discover messages. What destination address for these messages?

a)

00-00-00-00-00-00

b)

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

c)

0F-1B-3C-2F-3C-2A

d)

192.168.4.5

54.

Which of the following accurately describes how routers and switches operate?

a)

Routers drop packets with unknown destination

b)

Routers flood packets with unknown destination

c)

Switch drop frames with unknown destination

d)

Switch flood frames with unknown destination

55.

In a wireless network infrastructure mode, what device coordinates client communciation?

a)

Switch

b)

Router

c)

Bridge

d)

Access Point

56.

Which type of memory is used by Cisco routers to store the routing table?

a)

Flash

b)

NVRAM

c)

ROM

d)

RAM

57.

Which DHCP message can be delivered using unicast communication?

a)

DHCP request

b)

DHCP offer

c)

DHCP discover

d)

DHCP ACK

58.

Which access control method or protocol relies on usernames and passwords for authentication?

a)

authorization

b)

802.1X

c)

accounting

d)

authentication

59.

WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM THEORETICAL DATA RATE SUPPORTED BY 802.11AC?

a)

54 Mbps

b)

300 Mbps

c)

7 Gbps

d)

1.3 Gbps

60.

How can IT admins ensure that wireless devices are assigned IP addresses automatically?

a)

VPN Server

b)

FTP Server

c)

DNS Server

d)

DHCP Server

61.

WHAT PROTOCOL PROVIDES SECURE AUTHETICATION AND ENCRYPTION FOR ENTERPRISE WIRELESS NETWORKS?

a)

SMTP

b)

SNMP

c)

HTTP

d)

RADIUS

62.

Which type of WLAN frame is responsible for handling associations and authentications?

a)

Control frames

b)

Data frames

c)

Beacon frames

d)

Management frames

63.

What IEEE standard is responsible for defining WLAN technology?

a)

IEEE 802.3

b)

IEEE 802.16

c)

IEEE 802.15

d)

IEEE 802.11

64.

In the AAA framework, which component decides the level of access a user is granted?

a)

Authorization

b)

Authentication

c)

Accounting

d)

Administration

65.

An office network is secured with WPA2-personal, but there are some concerns about potential unauthorized access -- what might be the issue?

a)

Switch to WPA2-enterprise with RADIUS server

b)

Disable SSID broadcasting

c)

Use WEP encryption

d)

Use open network without a password

66.

What channel width is typically used by the 802.11ac standard in the 5GHz band?

a)

160 MHz

b)

20 MHz

c)

40 MHz

d)

80 MHz

67.

What frequency band is commonly used by both 802.11b and 802.11g standards?

a)

3.6 GHz

b)

2.4 GHz

c)

900 MHz

d)

5 GHz