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Worksheets

Professional Practice - Laws

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
  1. What is the full title of RA 9266?

a)

The Architecture Act of 2004

b)

An Act Providing For A More Responsive And Comprehensive Regulation For The Registration, Licensing And Practice Of Architecture

c)

An Act To Regulate The Practice of Architecture In The Philippines

d)

Standards of Professional Practice

e)

Code of Ethical Conduct for Architects

2.

The architect who is directly and professionally responsible for the total design of the project for the client and who shall assume the civil liability for the plans.

a)

Architect

b)

Architect-of-Record

c)

Architect-in-Charge-of-Construction

d)

Consulting Architect

e)

Consulting Architect

3.

Who nominates persons for each position in the PRBArch?

a)

The IAPOA

b)

The outgoing members of the PRBArch

c)

The President of the Philippines

d)

Any registered and licensed architect may nominate persons for vacant positions in the PRBArch

e)

Any citizen of the Philippines

4.
  1. A certificate bearing a registration number signifying that the individual has successfully passed the licensure examination and is registered to practice his/her profession as architect

a)

Certificate of Examination

b)
  1. Certificate of Registration

c)

Certification of Licensure

d)

Professional Certification

e)

Certificate of Admission

5.

An architect who is professionally and academically qualified and with exceptional or recognized expertise or specialization in any branch of architecture

a)

Architect

b)

Architect-of-Record

c)
  1. Architect-in-Charge-of-Construction

d)

Consulting Architect

e)

Professional Architect

6.

How much of the owners, shareholders, etc. of architectural corporations must be registered and licensed architects?

a)

50% + 1

b)

At least 50%

c)

75% + 1

d)
  1. At least 75%

7.

Does the consulting architect assume any civil liability under the Civil Code?

a)

No. Only the architect-of-record assumes the civil liability in all circumstances.

b)

Yes, but only if the consulting architect contravenes the legal and professional functions of the architect-of-record.

c)
  1. Of course. The consulting architect is a professional and therefore always carries a civil liability.

d)
  1. Yes, but only if the consulting architect renders advice on matters that are outside of his/her area of expertise.  

8.
  1. A document which contains the norms and principles governing the practice of the profession of architecture in the highest standards of ethical conduct.

a)

The Architecture Act

b)
  1. Standards of Professional Practice

c)

Architect’s Credo

d)

UAP Documents

e)

Code of Ethical Conduct

9.
  1. A duly notarized written contract stipulating the scope of services and guaranteeing compensation for such services that the architect will render.

a)
  1. Service Agreement

b)

Preliminary Conditions

c)

Schedule of Fees

d)

Scope of Work

e)

Proposal

10.

The term “architectural company” is synonymous to

a)

Architectural corporation

b)

Architectural partnership

c)

Sole proprietorship

d)

The term “architectural company” may refer to all three: corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.

11.

The following are considered part of the contract documents, except for:

a)

Code of Ethical Conduct

b)

Standards of Professional Practice

c)

UAP Documents

d)

None of these are part of the contract documents

12.
  1. The intellectual property rights retained by an architect over any architectural documents/work that he/she prepares unless there is a written stipulation to the contrary.

a)

Ownership

b)
  1. Copyright

c)

Authorship

d)
  1. Property

13.

Who shall prepare the syllabi for the licensure exams?

a)

PRC

b)

PRBArch

c)

UAP

d)

The School

e)

IAPOA

14.

Who shall develop the CPD program for architects?

a)

PRBArch

b)

IAPOA

c)

PRC

d)

The School

15.

The proprietary rights to an architectural work by a person who commissions the Architect.

a)

Ownership

b)

Copyright

c)

Authorship

d)

Property

16.

How often must the Certificate of Registration be renewed?

a)

Every year

b)

Every three years

c)

Every four years

d)

It never expires

e)

It must be renewed whenever the PRC ID is renewed

17.

All of the following are grounds for the disqualification of any nominee for a PRBArch position except for which one?

a)

The nominee is an officer of the UAP

b)

The nominee is an officer of a professional organization for architects that is not the UAP

c)

The nominee has never taught at a school, university, or review center teaching architecture courses

18.

Can foreigners take the Philippine licensure examination for architects?

a)

Yes. It is the policy of the state to treat both Filipino citizens and foreigners equally and fairly.

b)
  1. No. Only Filipino citizens may take the exam.

c)
  1. Yes, but there are conditions.

d)
  1. Yes, but only if the foreigner will take the exam with a Filipino counterpart.

e)
  1. No. This was disallowed when the Architecture Act of 2004 was enacted.

19.

Foreign nationals need a temporary or special permit to practice architecture in the Philippines. Where can this special permit be obtained?

a)

From the PRBArch

b)

From the local counterpart

c)

From the Bureau of Immigration

d)

From the Department of Foreign Affairs

e)

From the SEC

20.

To pass the licensure exam, what scores must the examinee get?

a)

A minimum weighted general average of 75% with no score lower than 50% in any subject

b)

A minimum weighted general average of 70% with no score lower than 50% in any subject

c)
  1. A minimum weighted general average of 75% with no score lower than 75% in any subject

d)

A minimum weighted general average of 85% with no score lower than 50% in any subject

e)
  1. A minimum weighted general average of 60% with no score lower than 50% in any subject

21.

Construction in a building involving changes in the materials used, partitioning, locations/sizes of openings, structural parts, existing utilities and equipment without increasing the overall area.

a)

Alteration

b)

Renovation

c)

Slum upgrading

d)

Redecoration

22.

The transfer of buildings or portions thereof from an original location to another, either within the same lot or to a different one.

a)

Evacuation

b)

Reassembly

c)

Moving

d)

Disaster displacement

23.

Any physical change made on a building/ structure to increase its value, utility and/ or to improve its aesthetic quality

a)

Slum upgrading

b)

Renovation

c)

Interior design

d)

Architectural interiors

24.

Which of the following is NOT true about the building official, according to Rule II of the IRR of PD 1096?

a)

The building official must either be a duly registered architect or civil engineer

b)

The building official must be of good moral character

c)

The building official must have at least five years of diversified and professional experience in building design and construction

d)

All of the above are true

25.

Which of the following violations is the gravest, according to Rule II of the NBC IRR?

a)

Failure to post Certificate of Occupancy

b)

Use or occupancy of building/structure without appropriate Certificate of Occupancy

c)

Non-compliance with work stoppage order for construction or demolition without permit

d)
  1. Non-compliance with the work stoppage order for the alteration, addition, conversion, or repair without 

    permit

26.

Whose duty is it to declare buildings as ruinous or dangerous?

a)

This is the building official’s duty

b)

This is the secretary’s duty

c)

This is the architect’s duty

d)

This is the PRBOA’s duty

27.

Which of the following does NOT require a building permit?

a)

A small patio,only 25 sqm. in area, resting directly on the ground

b)

A low garden masonry wall that is only 6 meters long and only 1.5 meters high

c)
  1. A greenhouse that measures 2 meters x 3 

meters only

d)

A mini-aviary measuring 3 meters x 4 meters with a maximum height of less than 6 meters measured from the ground to the apex of the roof

28.

What is the minimum distance required between eaves and the rear and side property lines?

a)

500mm

b)

750mm

c)

1000mm

d)

None of the above. Setbacks are measured not to the eaves, but to the exterior faces of the walls.

29.

What is the minimum front setback required for an industrial project when the RROW adjoining the property is 30 meters wide?

a)

9.00 meters

b)

8.00 meters

c)

6.00 meters

d)

5.00 meters

30.

A written authorization granted by the Building Official to an applicant allowing him to proceed with construction after plans, specifications and other pertinent documents have been found to be in conformity with the Code

a)

Building permit

b)

Occupancy permit

c)

FSIC

d)

FSEC

31.

According to Rule II of the NBC IRR, which does not fall under civil/structural documents?

a)

Roof framing plans

b)

Boring and load tests

c)

Seismic analysis

d)

All of the above are included under civil/structural documents

32.

Firewalls are not allowed for R1 developments. However, an abutment of up to 3.20m in height is allowed, provided that above ____, the abutment shall be made of perforated concrete blocks.

a)

1.00m

b)

1.20m

c)

1.50m

d)

1.70m

33.

Does the law permit the owner to proceed with ground preparation and excavation works before the issuance of the building permit?

a)

No. The owner must wait for the building permit to be issued before he can proceed with excavation works.

b)

Yes, as long as the Building Official issues the Ground Preparation and Excavation Permit and as long as the owner follows the corresponding rules/requirements.

c)

The NBC is silent on this matter.

34.

Does the law permit the owner to occupy completed portions of the building even though other parts are still being constructed?

a)

No. The entire building must be completed first and the Certificate of Occupancy for the entire building must be issued before anyone can occupy any portion of the building.

b)

No, this is extremely dangerous. There must be no ongoing works within the building before anyone may be allowed to occupy it.

c)

Yes, if the Building Official grants a Partial Certificate of Occupancy to the owner.

35.

For a sloping lot with a 2.00m difference between the highest and lowest points of the lot, where will the established grade line be for building height determination?

a)

The lowest point of the lot

b)
  1. The highest point of the lot

c)

The average between the two points

d)

None of the above

36.

What is the minimum area for habitable rooms, 

  1. according to the National Building Code?

a)

1.20 sqm

b)

3.00 sqm

c)

6.00 sqm

d)

12.00 sqm

37.

What is the minimum ceiling height required for the seventh floor of a naturally-ventilated building?

a)

1.80m

b)

2.10m

c)

2.40m

d)

2.70m

38.

For agricultural areas, the NBC requires at least _____ of easement for each side of the waterway.

a)

3.00m

b)

10.00m

c)

20.00m

d)

40.00m

39.

Townhouses characterize which zoning classification?

a)

R-2

b)

R-4

c)

R-5

d)

C-1

40.

According to Article 1723 of the Civil Code, who shall be held liable if a building collapses more than 10 years after completion due to the use of inferior materials?

a)

The architect or the engineer who drew up the plans

b)

The contractor and the construction supervisor

c)

The building official who reviewed and approved the plans

41.

What are the minimum dimensions of a toilet stall for 

PWDs?

a)

1.50 x 1.50 m

b)

1.60 x 1.60 m

c)

1.70 x 1.70 m

d)

1.80 x 1.80 m

42.

What are the minimum dimensions required for elevators?

a)

Car inside dimensions of 1.20 x 1.40m

b)

Car inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.40m

c)

Car inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.70m

d)

Hoistway inside dimensions of 1.10m x 1.40m

43.

What is the minimum clear width for doors according to BP 344?

a)

800 mm

b)

850 mm

c)

900 mm

d)

950 mm

e)

1000 mm

44.

A type of standpipe system in which the pipes are normally not filled with water. Water is introduced into the system thru fire service connections when needed.

a)

Wet standpipe

b)

Dry standpipe

c)

Combination standpipe

d)

None of these

45.

What is the maximum allowable riser height for stairs in BP 220?

a)

150 mm

b)

175 mm

c)

200 mm

d)

250 mm

46.

What is the minimum tread width for stairs in BP 220?

a)

200 mm

b)

225 mm

c)

250 mm

d)

300 mm

47.

Fires involving ordinary combustible materials such as wood, cloth, rubber and plastics

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class K

d)

Class D

48.

Which of the following is prohibited by BP 220 and PD 957?

a)

A rowhouse cluster of 10 units

b)

A rowhouse cluster of 20 units

c)

A rowhouse cluster 100 m. long

d)

A block 500.00m long with a 2.00m-wide alley approximately at the center

49.

Any visual or audible signal produced by a device or system to warn the occupants of the building or fire fighting elements of the presence or danger of fire

a)

Annunciator panel

b)

Fire signal

c)

Fire alerting system

d)

Fire alarm

50.

What is the prescribed ratio for saleable and nonsaleable lots in PD 957?

a)

30% min saleable, 70% max non-saleable

b)

70% max saleable, 30% min non-saleable

c)

60% max saleable, 40% min non-saleable

d)

None of the above