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Microbiology & Immunology Quiz

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary function of the bacterial cell wall?

a)

Regulates substance passage

b)

Provides structural support and shape to the cell

c)

Contains lipopolysaccharides

d)

Stores reserve materials

2.

What is the primary composition of pili?

a)

Polysaccharides

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic acids

3.

What antigenic property of flagella is used for typing and diagnosis?

a)

H antigen

b)

A antigen

c)

B antigen

d)

C antigen

4.

What is the primary component of the cell wall in Gram-positive bacteria?

a)

Lipopolysaccharides

b)

Proteins

c)

Peptidoglycan

d)

Phospholipids

5.

What are bacterial spores?

a)

Highly active and rapidly dividing bacteria

b)

Dormant and highly resistant forms of bacteria

c)

Bacteria found in aquatic environments

d)

Bacteria with specialized flagella for motility

6.

What is the primary method of bacterial reproduction?

a)

Lag phase

b)

Stationary phase

c)

Logarithmic phase

d)

Binary fission

7.

What is the primary reason for the decline in population size during the death phase?

a)

Nutrient depletion

b)

Abundant nutrients

c)

Rapid cell division

d)

Favorable conditions

8.

What is the primary adherence factor in Gram-negative bacteria?

a)

Teichoic acid

b)

Pili/fimbriae

c)

Capsule

d)

Flagella

9.

What is the primary component responsible for endotoxin activity?

a)

Lipid A

b)

Protein A

c)

Peptidoglycan

d)

Teichoic acid

10.

What is the function of the oriT region on a plasmid?

a)

Protein synthesis initiation

b)

Antibiotic resistance coding

c)

DNA transfer initiation during conjugation

d)

RNA transcription regulation

11.

Which type of bacteriophage causes bacterial lysis?

a)

Virulent phage

b)

Temperate phage

c)

Prophage

d)

Plasmid

12.

Which of the following is the product of conjugation between Hfr and F- cells?

a)

Both cells change to Hfr

b)

Both cells change to F+ cells

c)

Both cells remain unchanged

d)

One cell remains Hfr while the other changes to F+ cell

13.

Which type of transduction involves the transfer of any bacterial gene due to an assembly error during the lytic cycle?

a)

Specialized transduction

b)

Generalized transduction

c)

Conjugation

d)

Transformation

14.

What is the role of the oriT region in fertility plasmids?

a)

Codes for sex pili formation

b)

Degrades foreign DNA

c)

Integrates phage DNA into the bacterial chromosome

d)

Initiates DNA transfer by creating a single-strand break

15.

Which of the following describes selective toxicity?

a)

The ability of an antibiotic to harm both host and microbe

b)

The ability of an antibiotic to target microbes without harming host cells

c)

The resistance of bacteria to antibiotics

d)

The toxicity of antibiotics to all living cells

16.

Vancomycin is primarily used to treat infections caused by which of the following?

a)

Gram-negative bacteria

b)

Mycoplasma

c)

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

d)

Viruses

17.

Which antibiotic class targets the bacterial cell membrane?

a)

Polymyxins

b)

Cephalosporins

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Rifampin

18.

Which antibiotic is bactericidal among inhibitors of protein synthesis?

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Aminoglycosides

c)

Chloramphenicol

d)

Macrolides

19.

Why are inhibitors of cell wall synthesis inactive against Mycoplasma?

a)

Mycoplasma has no peptidoglycan cell wall

b)

Mycoplasma lacks a nucleus

c)

Mycoplasma is resistant to all antibiotics

d)

Mycoplasma has a thick lipid membrane

20.

Trimethoprim exerts its effect by which of the following mechanisms?

a)

Inhibiting RNA polymerase

b)

Blocking dihydrofolate reductase

c)

Binding to peptidoglycan

d)

Targeting the 30S subunit

21.

Define: Periplasmic space

4 lines
22.

Define: Lophotrichous bacteria

4 lines
23.

Mention two beneficial effects and one harmful effect of normal flora.

4 lines
24.

Define biofilm and mention its role in infectious process.

4 lines
25.

Mention the structure of biofilm.

4 lines
26.

Which of the following viruses has a single-stranded DNA genome?

a)

Poxvirus

b)

Parvovirus

c)

Reovirus

d)

Retrovirus

27.

Which of the following RNA virus is an exception and has a double-stranded genome?

a)

Retrovirus

b)

Reovirus

c)

Picornavirus

d)

Orthomyxovirus

28.

Which of the following is unique regarding retroviruses?

a)

Double-stranded RNA genome

b)

Reverse transcriptase enzyme

c)

Single-stranded DNA genome

d)

Circular RNA genome

29.

Where do DNA viruses generally replicate?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Mitochondria

30.

What is the function of viral neuraminidase?

a)

Attachment to host cells

b)

Viral genome replication

c)

Viral release from host cells

d)

Reverse transcription

31.

What is a characteristic of latent viral infections?

a)

They never cause symptoms

b)

The virus remains dormant in host cells

c)

They always lead to persistent symptoms

d)

They replicate continuously

32.

Which of the following genetic mechanisms causes antigenic shift in influenza viruses?

a)

Point mutation

b)

Segment reassortment

c)

Frame shift mutation

d)

Reverse transcription

33.

Why do RNA viruses mutate more frequently than DNA viruses?

a)

They lack proofreading ability

b)

They have segmented genomes

c)

They replicate in the cytoplasm

d)

They have double-stranded RNA

34.

Which of the following describes the antiviral mechanism of interferons?

a)

Direct viral killing

b)

Blocking viral protein synthesis

c)

Destroying viral DNA

d)

Inhibiting reverse transcriptase

35.

What is the function of haemagglutinin (H) in the viral envelope?

a)

Virus release from infected cells

b)

Adsorption to host cell receptors

c)

Capsid formation

d)

Inhibition of host immunity

36.

Which of the following factors determines viral tropism?

a)

Host immune response

b)

Presence of specific cell receptors

c)

Size of the viral genome

d)

Rate of viral mutation

37.

Which of the following best describes viral recombination?

a)

Mixing of genetic material from different viral strains

b)

Mutations occurring within a single viral genome

c)

The ability of viruses to evade immune response

d)

The process of viral protein synthesis

38.

Which of the following is a characteristic of positive-sense RNA viruses?

a)

Their genome directly serves as mRNA

b)

They require reverse transcriptase for replication

c)

They need a DNA intermediate for replication

d)

They carry an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

39.

Which of the following best describes viral antigenic shift?

a)

Minor changes due to point mutations

b)

Major genetic recombination due to segment reassortment

c)

Gradual change in viral proteins over time

d)

A single mutation leading to increased virulence

40.

Which of the following is the function of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase?

a)

Converts RNA to DNA

b)

Synthesizes RNA from an RNA template

c)

Translates viral mRNA into proteins

d)

Proofreads viral DNA

41.

Which of the following occurs during viral assembly and maturation?

a)

Viral RNA is transcribed

b)

Capsid proteins surround the nucleic acid

c)

The virus attaches to the host cell

d)

The virus integrates into the host genome

42.

Which of the following viruses depend on a helper virus for replication?

a)

Rotavirus

b)

Influenza A virus

c)

Poliovirus

d)

Hepatitis D virus

43.

Which of the following causes slow degenerative diseases of the CNS?

a)

Prions

b)

Viroids

c)

Retroviruses

d)

DNA viruses

44.

Which of the following describes a viroid?

a)

An infectious protein molecule

b)

A virus that infects bacteria

c)

A small circular ssRNA without a protective layer

d)

A retrovirus

45.

Which of the following describes complementation in viral infections?

a)

Two viruses exchange genetic material

b)

One virus provides a missing protein for another virus

c)

A virus undergoes spontaneous mutation

d)

Two viruses fuse to form a hybrid genome

46.

Which of the following is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans

c)

Aspergillus fumigatus

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

47.

Which of the following terms describes the colony of mold fungi?

a)

Hyphae

b)

Pseudohyphae

c)

Mycelium

d)

Arthroconidia

48.

Which of the following antifungal drug classes targets the fungal cell wall?

a)

Polyenes

b)

Echinocandins

c)

Azoles

d)

Terbinafines

49.

Which of the following is asexual fungal spores formed by a 'joint'?

a)

Arthroconidia

b)

Blastoconidia

c)

Spherule

d)

Endospores

50.

Which of the following describes morphology of Aspergillus hyphae?

a)

Non-septate

b)

Septate with wide angle of branching

c)

Septate with narrow angle of branching

d)

Pseudohyphae

51.

Which of the following is the causative agent of tenia versicolor?

a)

Malassezia furfur

b)

Dermatophytes

c)

Actinomyces

d)

Candida albicans

52.

Which of the following describes the mode of transmission of madura foot?

a)

Ingestion

b)

Contact

c)

Trauma

d)

Inhalation

53.

Which of the following best describes Hsitoplasma capsulatum?

a)

Mold fungus, acquired by contact

b)

Dimorphic fungus, acquired by inhalation

c)

Opportunistic fungus

d)

Yeast fungus forming pseudohyphae

54.

Which of the following parts of fungal colony that penetrates the culture media to absorb nutrients?

a)

Pseudohyphae

b)

Areal hyphae

c)

Septate hyphae

d)

Vegetative hyphae

55.

Which of the following fungi that forms spherules and endospores?

a)

Paracoccidiodes

b)

Histoplasma

c)

Blastomyces

d)

Coccidioides

56.

Where does T-cell maturation occur?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Thymus

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

Spleen

57.

Which of the following cell types is derived from the common lymphoid progenitor cell?

a)

Macrophages

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Natural killer cells

d)

Eosinophils

58.

Which of the following describes the function of Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)?

a)

Adaptive immunity only

b)

Innate immunity only

c)

Both innate and adaptive immunity

d)

Neither innate nor adaptive immunity

59.

What is a key characteristic that distinguishes adaptive immunity from innate immunity?

a)

Faster response time

b)

Limited diversity

c)

Recognition of PAMPs

d)

Immunological memory

60.

Which of the following describes the innate immune response?

a)

High diversity and specificity

b)

Enhanced response with re-exposure

c)

Limited specificity

d)

Slow initial response

61.

Which of the following is a characteristic of haptens?

a)

High molecular weight substances

b)

Can induce immune response independently

c)

Chemical complexity

d)

Low molecular weight substances

62.

Which of the following best describes the epitope?

a)

A carrier protein for haptens

b)

The total number of binding sites on an antigen

c)

A small portion of the antigen recognized by the antibody binding site

d)

The strength of attraction between antigen and antibody

63.

What does the valence of an antigen refer to?

a)

The total number of epitopes in the antigen

b)

The strength of binding to antibodies

c)

The ability to induce an immune response

d)

The degree of foreignness of the antigen

64.

Which term describes the strength of attraction between a single epitope and its matching paratope?

a)

Avidity

b)

Affinity

c)

Valence

d)

Foreignness

65.

Why are proteins generally better immunogens than polysaccharides?

a)

Proteins are larger in size

b)

Proteins are more foreign to the body

c)

Proteins have greater chemical complexity

d)

Proteins are more degradable

66.

Which route of antigen administration generally elicits the strongest immune response?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Subcutaneous

c)

Oral

d)

Inhalation

67.

What is the main function of chemotaxis in inflammation?

a)

Destruction of pathogen plasma membranes

b)

Migration and accumulation of phagocytes at the infection site

c)

Release of histamine from mast cells

d)

Tissue repair after infection clearance

68.

Which of the following is characterized as a rapidly recruited but short-lived phagocyte?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Monocyte

c)

Dendritic cell

d)

Neutrophil

69.

Which of the following best describes macrophages?

a)

They provide shorter defense than neutrophils

b)

They are derived from differentiation of blood monocytes in tissues

c)

They have no role in adaptive immune responses

d)

They are only found in the liver and lungs

70.

Which cytokines are secreted by tissue macrophages to enhance inflammatory reactions?

a)

IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

b)

IL-10, TGF-β

c)

IL-2, IL-7

d)

IL-1, IL-6 and TNF-α

71.

Which of the following describes the role that macrophages play in initiating adaptive immune responses?

a)

They produce antibodies

b)

They suppress T cell activation

c)

They present antigens to Th-1 cells and produce IL-12

d)

They directly kill infected cells without T cell involvement

72.

Which of the following is the most potent macrophage-activating cytokine?

a)

TNF-α

b)

IL-12

c)

IFN-γ

d)

IL-10

73.

Which of the following are anti-inflammatory cytokines secreted by macrophages to promote tissue repair?

a)

TNF-α and IL-1

b)

IL-12 and IFN-γ

c)

IL-10 and TGF-β

d)

IL-8 and IL-6

74.

Which of the following is a surface marker for identification of macrophages?

a)

CD4

b)

CD8

c)

CD14

d)

CD19

75.

Which of the following is recognized by Killer Inhibitory Receptors (KIR) on NK cells?

a)

Self MHC-I molecules

b)

Cytokines

c)

PAMPs

d)

Bacterial antigens

76.

Which immunoglobulin is involved in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)?

a)

IgE

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgG

77.

Which of the following is the central molecule in all complement activation pathways?

a)

C5

b)

C1

c)

C9

d)

C3b

78.

Which of the following is a site where mature lymphocytes are exposed to antigens to initiate adaptive immune response?

a)

Thymus

b)

Blood

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

Bone marrow

79.

Which of the following chemoattractant mediate migration of circulating neutrophils and monocytes (phagocytes) to the site of inflammation?

a)

C5a & IL-8

b)

C3b & IL-8

c)

C3b & IL-1

d)

C5a & IL-2

80.

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of natural killer (KN) cells?

a)

Express antigen-specific CD3 receptors.

b)

Need antigen presentation by MHC (i.e. MHC restricted)

c)

Do not mature in the thymus

d)

Generate immunologic memory

81.

Which of the following mechanisms allow NK cells to kill specific target cells?

a)

Opsonization

b)

Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)

c)

Fas-fasL pathway

d)

Perforin-granzyme pathway

82.

Which of the following complement pathways is considered as a part of adaptive immunity?

a)

Alternative pathway

b)

Lectin pathway

c)

Classic pathway

d)

Perforin-granzyme pathway

83.

Which of the following occurs on encountering appropriate pMHC-I on infected cell?

a)

B cell receptors become cross-linked and signaling ensues.

b)

CD8+ T cells destroy the infected cell.

c)

CD4+ T cells release cytokines.

d)

Naïve Th cells secrete cytokines.

84.

Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for presentation of fragments of cytoplasmic pathogen to T cells?

a)

Direct engagement of cell surface receptor.

b)

MHC-I molecule to CD8+ T cells.

c)

Phagocytosis and presentation to CD4+ T cells.

d)

Placement into endocytic vesicle and complexing to MHC-II.

85.

Which of the following is responsible for presentation of extracellular pathogens to T cells?

a)

Direct engagement of cell surface receptor.

b)

MHC-I molecule to CD8+ T cells.

c)

Phagocytosis and presentation to CD4+ T cells.

d)

Placement into endocytic vesicle and complexing to MHC-I.

86.

Which immunoglobulins are parts of the B cell receptor on mature B cells?

a)

IgG and IgA

b)

IgE and IgA

c)

IgG and IgE

d)

IgM and IgD

87.

What is the function of Ig-alpha and Ig-beta chains in the BCR complex?

a)

Binding complement

b)

Antigen recognition

c)

Signal transduction

d)

Activating T helper cells

88.

Ig-alpha and Ig-beta chains in the BCR complex?

a)

Binding complement

b)

Antigen recognition

c)

Signal transduction

d)

Activating T helper cells

89.

Which molecules form the B cell co-receptor complex?

a)

CD21, CD19, CD81

b)

CD3, CD4, CD8

c)

CD20, CD14, CD40

d)

CD28, B7, CD86

90.

Which of the following complement components binds to CD21 on the surface of B lymphocytes?

a)

C1q

b)

C5b

c)

C3b

d)

C9

91.

What does CD19 on the surface of B lymphocytes primarily function as?

a)

Fc receptor

b)

Complement receptor

c)

B cell marker involved in activation

d)

Cytokine receptor

92.

Which of the following processes contributes to BCR diversity during maturation?

a)

DNA recombination of V, D, J segments

b)

mRNA splicing

c)

Antigen switching

d)

Protein folding

93.

What triggers the first signal for B cell activation by T-dependent antigens?

a)

CD40 binding

b)

Binding of antigen to BCR

c)

Cytokine release

d)

MHC-I expression

94.

Which interaction delivers the second signal for B cell activation by T cells?

a)

CD21-C3b

b)

CD28-B7

c)

CD40-CD40L

d)

CD8-MHC I

95.

What is somatic hypermutation responsible for?

a)

Increased BCR affinity

b)

Deletion of self-reactive cells

c)

Isotype switching

d)

Cytokine release

96.

What does affinity maturation result in?

a)

Decreased antigen specificity

b)

Increased B cell apoptosis

c)

Stronger antibody-antigen interactions

d)

Reduced immune memory

97.

Which part of the antibody is responsible for antigen recognition?

a)

Fc fragment

b)

Fab fragment

c)

Light chain

d)

Heavy chain

98.

Which class of immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta?

a)

IgM

b)

IgE

c)

IgG

d)

IgA

99.

Which of the following is the primary site of dimeric IgA?

a)

Mucosal secretions

b)

Serum

c)

Lymphatic fluid

d)

Bone marrow

100.

Which of the following immunoglobulins is primarily produced during the primary immune response?

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgE

d)

IgM

101.

Which of the following is the main characteristic of monoclonal antibodies?

a)

Produced in large quantities by B cells

b)

Highly specific to a single epitope

c)

Produced by multiple cell types

d)

Involved in opsonization

102.

Which of the following structures can function as opsonin?

a)

C3b and IgG

b)

C5a and IgM

c)

IgM and IgG

d)

C3a and C5a

103.

What cytokine does Th-1 secrete to cause classical activation of macrophages?

a)

TGF-β

b)

IL-4

c)

IL-5

d)

IFN-γ

104.

Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by IL-4 stimulation?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

105.

What is the role of IL-5 secreted by Th-2 cells?

a)

T cell activation

b)

Eosinophil activation

c)

B cell activation

d)

Macrophage activation

106.

Which of the following surface markers are used to identify Regulatory T cells (Treg)?

a)

CD4+, CD25+, Foxp3+

b)

CD8+, CD28+, Foxp3+

c)

CD25+, CD56+, TGF-β

d)

CD4+, CD45+, CD14+

107.

Which of the following is the primary function of Th-1 cells?

a)

Regulatory function

b)

Humoral immunity

c)

Eosinophil activation

d)

Cell mediated immunity

108.

What type of immune response does Th-2 primarily mediate?

a)

Adaptive immune response

b)

Innate immune response

c)

Humoral immune response

d)

Cell mediated response

109.

Which of the following is the first signal required for T helper cell activation?

a)

Binding of B7 to CD28

b)

IL-2 secretion

c)

MHC II/antigen peptides with TCR/CD3

d)

Binding to Toll-like receptors

110.

Which of the following describes the superantigens?

a)

They inhibit antigen presentation

b)

They bind specifically within the TCR cleft

c)

They cause polyclonal T cell activation

d)

They block cytokine production

111.

Which of the following molecules on antigen-presenting cells binds to CD28 on T cells for co-stimulation?

a)

MHC I

b)

MHC II

c)

CD3

d)

B7

112.

What is the definition of immunologic tolerance?

a)

The ability of the immune system to attack foreign antigens

b)

The unresponsiveness of lymphocytes to self-antigens

c)

The activation of lymphocytes against autoantigens

d)

The removal of foreign pathogens by phagocytosis

113.

Which process allows immature B cells to change their receptor specificity?

a)

Clonal expansion

b)

Anergy induction

c)

Antigen sequestration

d)

Receptor editing

114.

What happens if receptor editing in B cells fails?

a)

The cells become memory B cells

b)

The cells undergo apoptosis

c)

The cells migrate to lymph nodes

d)

The cells become plasma cells

115.

Which of the following contributes to peripheral B cell tolerance?

a)

Receptor editing

b)

Antigen presentation

c)

Anergy due to lack of T cell help

d)

Positive selection

116.

What is a mechanism of peripheral T cell tolerance?

a)

Suppression by T regulatory cells

b)

Receptor editing

c)

Antigen mimicry

d)

Somatic hypermutation

117.

Which of the following best describes antigen sequestration?

a)

The binding of antigens by antibodies

b)

The anatomical isolation of certain self-antigens

c)

The process of opsonization

d)

The presentation of antigen by APCs

118.

Which of the following describes molecular mimicry?

a)

Immune evasion by antigenic shift

b)

Tolerance induced by sequestered antigens

c)

Pathogen epitopes resembling host molecules

d)

Cross-linking of B cell receptors

119.

Which of the following organisms is implicated in molecular mimicry leading to rheumatic fever?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Escherichia coli

120.

Which of the following best describes epitope spreading?

a)

Development of memory cells

b)

Induction of central tolerance

c)

Inhibition of B cell responses

d)

Progressive exposure of new self-antigens

121.

Which of the following is an example of an autoimmune disease?

a)

Asthma

b)

Type-I diabetes mellitus

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Cystic fibrosis

122.

Which of the following best characterizes Type I hypersensitivity?

a)

IgE-mediated and rapid onset

b)

Involves cytotoxic T cells

c)

Mediated by immune complexes

d)

Delayed reaction over several days

123.

Which of the following describes anaphylactic shock?

a)

A local reaction of Type I hypersensitivity

b)

A systemic form of Type I hypersensitivity

c)

A reaction of Type II hypersensitivity

d)

A delayed hypersensitivity reaction

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