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public health

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following health interventions isn’t typical of primary prevention?

a)

Food hygiene

b)

Preventative immunisation

c)

Chemoprophylaxis

d)

Community screening

2.

The level of health of a community depends on the following main determinants:

a)

Healthcare, disease prevention and rehabilitation

b)

Socioeconomic conditions, environment and education

c)

Living habits, environment, genetics and healthcare

d)

Intersectoral coordination, healthcare and socioeconomic development

3.

Point out the correct statement:

a)

Preventative medicine aimed at masses is equivalent to promotion

b)

Health protection is aimed at individuals

c)

Specific prevention focuses on the general population

d)

All are correct

4.

Frite Index: S5 indicates:

a)

A population with low life expectancy

b)

A regressive population with a high state of health

c)

Bulb-type pyramid with high juvenile and senile dependency

d)

They are all true

5.

According to the current legal concept, a live birth is considered:

a)

The child who is born alive

b)

The child who dies 5 hours after birth

c)

The child who dies 3 hours after birth

d)

None of the above

6.

Indicate the incorrect answer about censuses:

a)

It’s a responsibility of the municipality

b)

The variables collected are personal data and data about the buildings

c)

Collection is individualised

d)

The next one will be done in 2021

7.

Indicate the correct answer:

a)

The crude birth rate is a good indicator because it allows us to make comparisons between countries with similar social structures

b)

The synthetic fertility index equal to 2 indicates that there are good prospects for the survival of the species in a country

c)

According to the Swaaron index, the closer it is to 100%, the worse the country’s health status is

d)

None is correct

8.

The best indicator of health status is:

a)

Maternal mortality

b)

Life expectancy at birth

c)

Infant mortality

9.

Fetal mortality includes;

a)

From conception to 28 weeks

b)

From birth to the first year of life

c)

From birth to the first week

d)

From conception to birth

10.

Friz index 79.94 and Sundbarg A-30.27 and 8-47.71:

a)

Indicates mature and regressive population respectively

b)

Indicates young and regressive population respectively

c)

Indicates mature and stationary population respectively

d)

Indicates young and progressive population respectively

11.

What situation would you include in the numerator of the maternal mortality formula?

a)

Women who die from receiving treatment

b)

A 35-year-old pregnant woman who smokes, stops her treatment due to non-compliance and dies

c)

Pregnant woman who has an accident

d)

None of these cases

12.

According to the following infant mortality rates for 2010, indicate the correct statement: A 176, B 149, C 52, D 3

a)

Country C has a higher level of health and culture than A

b)

Spain would be similar to the value presented by D

c)

We cannot know the level of development

d)

The denominator of the formula is the total number of children born alive in that year

13.

What indicator gives me the average number of children per woman at the end of her fertile life:

a)

General fertility rate

b)

Synthetic fertility index

c)

Synthetic reproduction index

d)

Gross reproduction rate

14.

Who are the most receptive to health education:

a)

Healthy people

b)

The entire population

c)

People with acute illnesses

d)

Workers exposed to occupational risks

15.

The indirect method of health education:

a)

Is more effective than direct ones

b)

Are very efficient

c)

Is used to transmit complex messages

d)

Is not recommended for use at the beginning of programs

16.

What health education technique cannot be used to transmit complex messages?

a)

Lectures

b)

Counseling

c)

The indirect method

d)

All true

17.

The first international health promotion conference took place in:

a)

Adelaide

b)

Alma-Ata

c)

Ottawa

d)

Bangkok

18.

The health education program with the best cost-effectiveness is:

a)

Health education in the community

b)

Health education at work

c)

Health education at school

d)

Health education for patients with both acute illnesses

19.

Counseling or medical advice:

a)

Requires new skills

b)

Is undirectional

c)

Doesn’t change ingrained negative attitudes

d)

Shouldn’t last more than 30 minutes

20.

With whom will we use persuasive communication?

a)

Healthy children

b)

Sick adults

c)

Healthy adults

d)

Sick elderly

21.

Why was the health promotion movement born?

a)

Faced with a situation of social inequalities in global health

b)

To reform primary care with emphasis on health education

c)

Seek strategies such as citizen participation to improve health

d)

They are all correct

22.

Identify the correct statement:

a)

In the free market model, health is a good protected by the state with basic regulation

b)

The general health law establishes 3 levels of care that coincide with the levels or prevention: primary, secondary and tertiary

c)

In the Spanish health system, health services are under the responsibility of the autonomous communities

d)

To achieve maximum operability and effectiveness of health services, the basic health zones will be divided into health areas

23.

Which health system has greater equity and cost control?

a)

Any health system

b)

National health system

c)

Free market model

d)

Social insurance model

24.

The moderator ticket:

a)

Is completely free

b)

Avoid over saturation

c)

Is a type of improvement to be attended correctly

d)

None are true

25.

The health system in France corresponds to the model:

a)

Beveridge

b)

Bismarck

c)

Fielderwich

d)

Free market

26.

In a population classified as progressive, where the average age is above 50, the senile dependency rate:

a)

Should be high

b)

Is probably low

c)

Is greater than what a regressive population would have

d)

A and C are correct

27.

According to the United States health model:

a)

Universality is a basic principle in this model

b)

It has great advances in research and technology

c)

It has frequent accessibility problems

d)

Health is a good protected by the government

28.

Specialised healthcare:

a)

Is only offered in hospitals

b)

Offers total coverage

c)

Two most common and mild pathologies of the disease are treated

d)

Is the lowest cost level of health care

29.

The aging of the population in Spain produces (incorrect):

a)

Impact on economic growth

b)

Increase in the cost of pensions

c)

Increase in health spending

d)

All are correct

30.

In the phases of health education:

a)

Needs continuous evaluation in all phases

b)

Isn’t necessary to evaluate before carrying out the educational campaign

c)

Provide audio-visual support whenever possible

d)

They are all true

31.

Instruments that increase population participation in order to improve their health (incorrect)

a)

Self-care

b)

Self-medication

c)

Mutual support groups

d)

Evaluation of health status

32.

Point out the incorrect statement

a)

Reducing social inequalities improves health and reduces premature death

b)

The health promotion movement was an urgent action promoted by the workers

c)

The single objective for all in the head 2000 was not achieved

d)

The European health promotion agency was one of the consequences of development of the health

33.

Positive externality means:

a)

It’s an indirect benefit received by a population group that isn’t directly protected

b)

Gave priority to the most serious operations and ill esses

c)

It’s a concept that affects people who are insured

d)

It’s a type of improvement that means that they don’t receive treatments completely free

34.

Point out the principle of a perfect health system that wasn’t guaranteed before 2011 in Spain:

a)

Universality

b)

Financing through taxes

c)

Cost control

d)

Integrated system

35.

Country with low birth rate, low mortality and high life expectancy

a)

United states

b)

Afghanistan

c)

Spain

d)

Morocco

36.

According to the following table of crude mortality rates for the year 2010, select the correct answer: country 1: 17.49/ country 2: 15.72/ country 3: 9/ country 4: 8.5

a)

Country 3 has a higher infant mortality rate than country 4

b)

Spain would resemble the value given by country 2

c)

Country 3 and 4 have similar demographic structures

d)

Crude mortality rates cannot be compared directly between countries without knowing their demographic structures

37.

Gas gangrene is a disease that causes:

a)

Titular necrosis, due exclusively to the growth of Clostridium perfringens

b)

Titular necrosis, due exclusively to the growth of Clostridium botulinum

c)

Titular necrosis, due to the neurotic toxin of Clostridium botulinum

d)

Titular necrosis, due to the growth of Clostridium perfringens and the action of its neurotic toxin

38.

The most serious burn infections are:

a)

Those produced by Staphylococcus Aureus

b)

Those produced by Myobacterium tuberculosis, since they can lead to disseminated tuberculosis

c)

Those produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, due to its great resistance to antibiotics

d)

Those produced by Clostridium, since they can pass into the blood and cause anthrax

39.

Herpes zoster is a disease:

a)

With skin manifestation in the form of ulcers

b)

Very serious and fatal in most cases

c)

Requiring a long antibiotic treatment

d)

Result of the reactivation of the chickenpox virus

40.

The disease know as ringworm are cause by:

a)

dermatophyte fungi

b)

Bacteria from the skins normal biota

c)

Candida albians

d)

Fungi that are capable of metabolising chitin

41.

The causative agent of tetanus:

a)

Penetrates through skin wounds and secretes a neurotoxin that produces muscle rigidity

b)

It penetrates through the ingestion of contaminated food and secretes an enterotoxin that produces muscle rigidity

c)

It penetrates through the skin and secretes a neurotoxin that produces flaccid paralysis

d)

Is a microorganism incapable of producing spore

42.

Fever is a disease that can appear:

a)

How to complicate gonorrhea

b)

As a consequence of Staphylococcal pharyngitis

c)

As a sequel to pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

As a sequel to pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae

43.

Indicate the correct answer about osteomyelitis:

a)

Osteomyelitis is always of endogenous origin and is caused by bacilli

b)

Osteomyelitis is only caused as surgical complications

c)

Osteomyelitis is a disease of autoimmune origin

d)

Osteomyelitis can have an endogenous origin through the blood or surgical origin

44.

The so-called “molluscum contagiosum ” has as its causal agent:

a)

A yeast

b)

A filamentous fungus

c)

A bacteria

d)

A virus

45.

Inactivated virus vaccines are used :

a)

Viruses that have lost their infective capacity due to the action of heat or products

b)

Pathogenic viruses adapted to grow on non-human cells

c)

Viral capsid proteins

d)

Virus envelope glycoproteins

46.

Of the diseases indicated below, indicate which one you believe isn’t mandatory in Spain:

a)

Legionellosis

b)

Poliomyelitis

c)

Common gastroenteritis

d)

Rubella

47.

Infectious diseases:

a)

Are always contagious

b)

Some are contagious

c)

Are never contagious

d)

Are always produced by bacteria

48.

The measles virus:

a)

It only produces skin manifestations

b)

I localised disease of the skin of the trunk

c)

It can produce catarrhal manifestations and skin rashes

d)

It can manifest itself several times in a person during his or her life

49.

The pathogenic mechanisms of gastroenteric diseases:

a)

They are always enterotoxinogenic

b)

They are always invasive

c)

They can be enterotoxigenic and/or invasive

d)

They are neurotic

50.

Escherichia coli:

a)

Has strains that always cause diseases

b)

It’s strains are not pathogenic

c)

It pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains

d)

Its strains are all enterotoxigenic

51.

Apart from sexual transmission by which of the following ways can HIV be transmitted?

a)

By fomites

b)

Through parental channels

c)

By respiratory route

d)

By fecal-oral route

52.

Cholera is a disease that is acquired:

a)

By absorption of the causal Agent present in respiratory secretions

b)

Due to the passage of the causal agent through the placenta

c)

Due to the entry of the causal agent into the bloodstream after the bite

d)

Due to the ingestion of the causal agent present in contaminated water

53.

Cholera toxin can be classified within the group of:

a)

Neurotoxins

b)

Endotoxins

c)

Enterotoxins

d)

Cytotoxins

54.

Nonbacterial gastroenteritis :

a)

Is produced by yeast

b)

Produces bronchopulmonary clinical symptoms

c)

Is caused by viruses and present mild gastrointestinal symptoms

d)

Is caused by viruses and is always fatal

55.

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated water or food?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

Diphtheria

56.

The symptoms of scalded skin syndrome, a skin disease, are due to:

a)

The action of an exfoliative toxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

The growth of Streptococcus pyogenes on the epidermis and the consequent legions

c)

The destruction of the deep layers of the skin by Streptococcus Aureus

d)

The action of a foliative toxin produced by Streptococcus aureus

57.

Typhoid fever is a disease:

a)

Caused by Shigella gonorrhea and transmitted by ingestion of contaminated food or water

b)

Caused by Salmonella typhi and some of whose symptoms are constipation and splenomegaly

c)

Caused by Salmonella typhi and transmitted by the absorption of respiratory secretions

d)

Caused by Salmonella typhi and transmitted by ingestion of contaminated food or water

58.

Oncogenic viruses:

a)

The cortex of the endospores has an identical composition to the bacterial cell wall

b)

Endospores are forms of resistance of some bacteria

c)

Some bacterial endospores are formed by budding

d)

All bacteria can form endospores in the absence of nutrients

59.

Indicate among the structures mentioned below which ones are considered bacterial virulence factors

a)

Plasmids

b)

70s ribosomes

c)

Hypersensitivity

d)

a,b and c

60.

Elongated bacteria that group together to form chains are called:

a)

Staphylococcus

b)

Streptobacilli

c)

Streptococcus

d)

Staphylobacilli

61.

Fungi that can grow in filamentous form or as yeast, depending on the environment in which they are found, are called:

a)

Diploid fungi

b)

Dimorphic fungi

c)

Yeast fungi

d)

Staphylobacilli

62.

Filamentous fungi have a cellular structure, which as a whole is called:

a)

Hyphelius

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Glycocalyx

d)

Mycelium

63.

The peptidoglycan (murein) layer of bacterial cell wall:

a)

It’s found in Gram + and Gram - bacteria

b)

Is in the microplasms

c)

It’s only in Gram bacteria -

d)

It’s only in Gram + bacteria

64.

Of the viral diseases listed below, which would produce a persistent infection:

a)

Chickenpox

b)

AIDS

c)

Polio

d)

Cold sores

65.

The capsomeros are:

a)

Long molecules composed of multiple copies of the viral genome

b)

The nucleic acid molecules synthesised by the virus after infection of a cell

c)

Each of the protein subunits that make up the capsid

d)

Viruses that have lost their capsid

66.

Indicate in which situation listed below, would it be easier for a person to acquire a nosocomial infection?

a)

Extreme age, that is, the elderly or small children

b)

Healthy people aged 20-30 years without any type of disease

c)

People undergoing surgery

d)

A and C

67.

The membrane that surrounds enveloped viruses is :

a)

Part the cell wall that the virus acquires when it leaves the infected cell

b)

Part of the cell plasma membrane that the virus acquires when leaving the infected cell

c)

Part of the virus patina

d)

Part of the peptidoglycan of the virus

68.

Strict aerobic microorganisms:

a)

They grow only in the presence of nitrogen

b)

They grow only in the presence of carbon dioxide

c)

They grow only in the presence of oxygen

d)

They grow only in the presence of oxygen, but can tolerate it’s absence

69.

In relation to temperature, what are the microorganisms that cause disease diseases in humans called?

a)

Mesophiles

b)

Thermophiles

c)

Psychrophiles

d)

Barophiles

70.

Of the sterilising radiation is indicated below, which one is not ionised and could be used, although with precautions, in a physiotherapy room?

a)

UV rays

b)

X-rays

c)

Cathode rays

d)

Gamma rays

71.

Chlorine:

a)

It’s only used as a sterilant

b)

It’s only used as an antiseptic

c)

It’s only used as a disinfectant

d)

It has the same applications as iodine

72.

Chemical products used to eliminate pathogenic microorganisms and that can be used on living tissues or called:

a)

Bacterioslistacticos

b)

Sterilizers

c)

Antiseptics

d)

Aseptic

73.

From the point of view of the level of sanitary disinfection, they are considered critical level equipment

a)

Those that penetrate directly into the bloodstream or into sterile tissues

b)

Those that come into contact with the intact mucosa

c)

Those that come into contact with the skin

d)

Those who come into contact with fomites

74.

The process of destruction of both the vegetative and the endorsing forms of all the organisms present in a material is called:

a)

Disinfection

b)

Sterilisation

c)

Sanitation

d)

Degermination

75.

What method would be used to sterilise a solid material that is very sensitive to heat?

a)

Filtration

b)

Pressure in autoclave

c)

Ethylene oxide

d)

Tindalization

76.

An autoclave is a device that is used for :

a)

Disinfection

b)

Hygiene

c)

Antisepsis

d)

Sterilisation

77.

Glutaraldehyde:

a)

Is only used as a disinfectant

b)

Is only used as an antiseptic

c)

It’s only used as a sterilant

d)

Is used as a sterilant or disinfectant depending on its concentration

78.

What are the healthy carriers in contagious foci?

a)

Individuals who present signs and/or symptoms of illness

b)

Infected individuals without signs or symptoms of disease

c)

They are individuals who are incubating the disease

d)

They are individuals recovered from the disease or with subclinical symptoms

79.

Lysosome present in saliva, tears… is a defense mechanism:

a)

External

b)

Internal

c)

Acquired

d)

It’s a type of antibody

80.

Interferon are:

a)

Cells of the immune system that destroy cells infected by viruses

b)

Soluble molecules of the immune system that react specifically with antigens bacterial

c)

Soluble molecules that are part of the external defence mechanisms

d)

Molecules of the immune system that prevent the multiplication of viruses and cells infected

81.

Pityriasis versicolor:

a)

It’s a bacterial disease that affects the respiratory system

b)

It’s a mycosis that produces hypo or hyperpigmentation

c)

It’s a vicious disease that produces hypo or hyperpigmentation

d)

It’s a subcutaneous mycosis

82.

The so-called primary syphylis:

a)

It’s the phase of the disease that affects the respiratory system

b)

It’s manifested by lesions in the genital organs

c)

It can affect the nervous system

d)

It only occurs in a female

83.

Legionnaires disease, is a disease:

a)

Produced by Legionella pneumophila and spread directly from person to person

b)

Produced by Legionella pneumophila and is not spread directly from person to person

c)

That fundamentally affects the digestive system is older people

d)

That can be avoided by cooking food

84.

Onychomycosis:

a)

They are produced by Staphylococcus Aureus

b)

They are produced only by yeasts with candida

c)

They are produced only by dermatophyte fungi

d)

b and c

85.

List the infectious diseases that can cause septic arthritis

a)

Measles

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Onymycosis

d)

Chickenpox

86.

Anthrax is :

a)

A disease who’s causal agent (Bacillus anthracis) penetrates through wounds in the skin but affects only the nervous system

b)

A disease who’s causative agent (Clostridium botulinum) destroys muscle fascia

c)

A skin disease whose causal agent (Bacillus anthracis) penetrates through wounds in the skin, from sick animals

d)

A disease caused by the ingestion of a toxin secreted by its causative agent (Clostridium botulinum)

87.

What type of method would you use to completely eliminate microorganisms from the surgical instrument?

a)

sterilisation in 2% hydrogen peroxide

b)

Pressure sterilisation in autoclave

c)

Sterilisation with ethanol

d)

Sterilisation with sodium hypochlorite

88.

Microorganisms invoked in nosocomial infections:

a)

Are acquired after the person enters the hospital center

b)

They only affect people undergoing surgery

c)

It doesn’t usually present great resistance to antibiotic treatment

d)

It always comes from the patients normal biota

89.

An antimicrobial substance that acts on bacteria and fungi is considered:

a)

Altered spectrum

b)

Restricted spectrum

c)

Broad spectrum

d)

Selective spectrum

90.

Diseases caused by pathogenic microorganisms are due to:

a)

Exclusively to the action of the toxins produced by them

b)

Exclusively to the growth of microorganisms on tissues

c)

To action of toxins and/or growth, depending on the disease

d)

An in body temperature that always occurs

91.

The infective dose is called:

a)

The degree of pathogenicity of a microorganism

b)

The establishment of microorganisms on a host independent of the humour of microorganisms that are

c)

The number of microorganisms necessary for the disease to occur

d)

The ability of microorganisms to produce the disease

92.

The transmission of microorganisms from the infected mother to the child through the placenta is called:

a)

Horizontal transmission

b)

Postnatal transmission

c)

Congenital transmission

d)

Perinatal transmission

93.

The host’s external mechanical defense mechanisms:

a)

They are the pH of the stomach

b)

They are part of the acquired or specific immune system

c)

They are the barrier of the skin and mucous membranes

d)

They destroy tumour cells infected by viruses

94.

Why was the health promotion movement born?

a)

Faced with a situation of social inequalities in global health

b)

To reform primary care with emphasis on health education

c)

Seek strategies such as citizen participation to improve health

d)

They are all true

95.

Identify the correct statement:

a)

I free market model, health is a good protected by the state with basic regulation

b)

The general health law establishes three levels of care that coincide with prevention levels: primary, secondary, and tertiary

c)

In the Spanish health system health services remain under the responsibility of the autonomous communities

d)

To achieve maximum operability and effectiveness of health services. The areas basic health areas will be divided

96.

Which health system has greater equity and cost control?

a)

Any health system

b)

National health system

c)

Free market model

d)

Social insurance model

97.

The moderator ticket:

a)

Is completely free

b)

Avoid over saturation

c)

Is a type of improvement to be attended directly

d)

None is true

98.

The health system in France corresponds to the model:

a)

Beveridge

b)

Bismarck

c)

Fieldewich

d)

Free market

99.

In a population classified as progressive, where the average age is above 50 years, the senile dependency rate :

a)

Should be high

b)

Is probably low

c)

It’s greater than what a regressive population would have

d)

A and C are correct

100.

What are the so-called systemic diseases?

a)

Those produced exclusively by bacteria

b)

Those produced exclusively by viruses

c)

Those that affect multiple organs or tissues

d)

Those that are located in a single organ or tissue

101.

What are onychomycosis?

a)

They are bacterial diseases that affect the skin

b)

They are fungal diseases that affect the skin

c)

They are fungal diseases that affect the nails

d)

They are bacterial diseases that affect nail fever

102.

Indicate the correct statement related to tuberculosis:

a)

Tuberculosis is caused by myobacterium tuberculosis which is not an intercellular pathogen

b)

Tuberculosis is caused by myobacterium tumefaciens, which causes tubercles in a lung

c)

Tuberculosis is caused by myobacterium tuberculosis, which is an intracellular pathogen

d)

Tuberculosis is caused by myobacterium leprae, which is an intracellular pathogen

103.

How is Vibrio Cholerae acquired?

a)

By absorption of the causal agent present kn respiratory secretions

b)

Due to the passage of the causal agent through the placenta

c)

Due to the entry of the causal agent into the bloodstream after an insect bite

d)

Due to ingestion of the causal agent present in contaminated water

104.

In accordance with the new current Spanish health regulations:

a)

The assets pay in full for the medication

b)

Contribution of assets in the payment of the medication is 40%

c)

The contribution of retirees in paying for the medication is 0%

d)

A unemployed employee without any remuneration contributes to the payment of the medication is 0%

105.

What are immunosera?

a)

They are sera that contain antibodies against infectious agents

b)

They are sera that contain antigens against infectious agents

c)

They are antigenic preparations that are administered to man and animals for the purpose to provoke the production of antibodies that serve to prevent infections diseases or to cure them

d)

They are preparations identical to vaccines

106.

Indicate what is called innate or nonspecific immunity:

a)

Those that occur after exposure to an infectious agent, that is specific and measured by antibodies or lymphoid cells

b)

It’s the one possessed at birth

c)

It’s what is acquired after vaccinations

d)

It’s the one acquired after an illness such as the flu

107.

Botulinum toxin can be classified within the group of:

a)

Neurotoxins

b)

Endotoxins

c)

Enterotoxins

d)

Cytotoxins

108.

What is used in inactivated virus vaccines?

a)

Viruses that have lost their infective capacity due to the action of heat or chemical products

b)

Pathogenic viruses adapted to grow on non-human cells

c)

Viral capsid proteins

d)

Virus envelope glycoproteins

109.

Dermatophytic fungi that cause skin mycoses:

a)

They are keratinophiles

b)

They are chitinophiles

c)

They are necrotic

d)

They are neurotoxic

110.

Oncogenic viruses:

a)

They always produce malignant tumours

b)

They always destroy the cell plasma membrane

c)

They always give rise to metastasis

d)

They always alter the mechanism that regulates cell multiplication

111.

Of the microorganisms listed below, indicate which one produces different types of diseases depending on the route of transmission:

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Bacillus cereus

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Clostridium tetanil

112.

A mesophilic microorganism:

a)

Grows at temperatures above 50°C

b)

Grows at room temperatures

c)

Grows at body temperatures, around 37°C

d)

Grows at temperatures below 5°C

113.

In a hospital environment, indicate what type of micro organisms need to be more careful when applying a method to control the transmission of infectious diseases

a)

Of bacterial vegetative forms

b)

Of fungal vegetative forms

c)

In any case, the resistance that microorganisms can produce

d)

Of non-enveloped viruses

114.

Indicate the correct phase:

a)

In indirect horizontal transmission of infectious diseases, mechanical vectors only transport the pathogen

b)

Horizontal transmission can be vertical and mechanical

c)

Vertical transmission is transmitted through biological vectors

d)

In indirect horizontal transmission of infectious diseases, biological vectors only transport the pathogen

115.

The causative agent of tetanus (Clostridium tetanii):

a)

It penetrates through skin wounds and secretes a neurotoxin that produces muscle rigidity

b)

It penetrates through the ingestion of contaminated foods and secretes an enterotoxin that produces muscle rigidity

c)

It penetrates through skin wounds and secretes a neurotoxin that produces flaccid paralysis

d)

It’s a microorganism incapable of producing spores

116.

What is a fomite?

a)

Common inanimate objects found around the patient

b)

Transmission vectors mechanisms such as insects

c)

A pathogenic microorganism that is usually found in sick carriers

d)

Food that patients eat in hospitals