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3. (Mo) Antiviral Practice Q's:

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is effective in the treatment of Shingles because it inhibits viral DNA repair by inhibiting the enzyme APEX nuclease-1?

a)

Emtricitabine (Emtriva)

b)

Fiactabine

c)

Cytarabine (Cytosar-U)

d)

Zidovudine (Retrovir)

e)

Brivudine (Zostrex)

2.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be classified as a Pyrimidine Nucleoside?

a)

ara-A

b)

Idoxuridine

c)

Trifluridine

d)

Bromovinyldeoxyuridine

e)

Fluroiodoaracytidine

3.

Which of the following is the recommended dosage of Acyclovir when it is used to treat Herpes Simplex Encephalitis?

a)

200 mg PO Q4H x 10 days

b)

20 mg/kg PO QID x 5 days

c)

10 mg/kg IV Q8H x 21 days

d)

800 mg IV QID x 21 days

e)

40 mg/kg IV Q8H x 10 days

4.

Which of the following is a Dihydroxypropxymethyl guanine preparation that is employed in the management of CMV Infections? SATA

a)

Cymeval

b)

Cymevene

c)

Cytovene

d)

Contravene

e)

Vitrasert

5.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be used to treat CMV-induced retinitis?

a)

Lobucavir

b)

Letermovir (Prevymis)

c)

Boceprevir (Victrelis)

d)

Ganciclovir (Cymevene/Vitrasert)

e)

Cidofovir (Vistide)

6.

Genvoya is used to treat AIDS; Which of the following is NOT a content of that product?

a)

A pharmacokinetic booster

b)

Emtricitabine

c)

Tenofovir Disoproxil Fumarate

d)

Elvitegravir

e)

Cobicistat

7.

The mechanisms of action of Interferons involve which of the following? SATA

a)

Stimulation of Natural Killer Cells

b)

Increased Antibody Production

c)

Decreased Antibody Production

d)

Decreased Production of Biological Response Markers

e)

Stimulation of 2'-5'-Oligoisoadenylate sythetase

8.

All of the following are NNRTIs EXCEPT:

a)

Delavirdine

b)

Doravirine

c)

Nevirapine

d)

Atevirdine

e)

Taribavirin

9.

Which of the following produces its pharmacological effect by binding to Gp120 and thus preventing HIV connection to CD4 on host cells?

a)

Pleconaril

b)

Fostemsavir (Rukobia)

c)

Fosamprenavir (Lexiva)

d)

Peramivir (Rapivab)

e)

Atevirdine

10.

Which of the following is NOT transmitted by Aedes Egypt mosquito? ____ Virus.

a)

St. Louis Encephalitis

b)

Chikungunya

c)

Yellow Fever

d)

Dengue

e)

Zika

11.

Aedes Aegypti is the vector for all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

West Nile Encephalitis Virus

b)

Yellow Fever Virus

c)

Zika Virus

d)

Chikungumya Virus

e)

Dengue Virus

12.

Which of the following is an immunization product that provides protection against a Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) infection in a 60-year-old individual? SATA

a)

Arexvy

b)

Comirnaty

c)

Abrysvo

d)

Beyfortus

e)

Novavax

13.

All of the following drugs have been shown to possess an antiviral activity against RSV EXCEPT:

a)

Palivizumab (Synagis)

b)

Doravirine (Pifeltro)

c)

Ribavirin (Copegus, Rebetol, Virazole)

d)

Remdesvir (Veklury)

e)

Interferon-alpha

14.

A Medical Team wants to use a combination of Lamivudine, Tenofovir, and Efavirenz to treat Mr. Zog's HIV infections. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE product for a Pharmacist to recommend?

a)

Sustiva

b)

Delstrigo

c)

Epzicom

d)

Trizivir

e)

Symfi

15.

Which of the following is the causative agent of German Measles?

a)

Rotavirus

b)

Rabies Virus

c)

Rubella Virus

d)

Rhinovirus

e)

Enterovirus

16.

The causative agent of Kaposi Sarcoma belongs to which of the following virus groups?

a)

Adenovirus

b)

Arenavirus

c)

Picornavirus

d)

Herpes Virus

e)

Reovirus

17.

Which of the following is a causative agent of Kaposi Sarcoma?

a)

Human Herpes Virus 8

b)

Human Herpes Virus 6

c)

Varicella Zoster Virus

d)

Herpes Zoster Virus

e)

Human Papilloma Virus

18.

Which of the following is a nucleotide preparation that is used to treat Hepatitis B infections?

a)

Adefovir

b)

Lamivudine

c)

Telbivudine

d)

Entecavir

e)

Famciclovir

19.

Which of the following statements about Rilpivirine (Edurant) is FALSE?

a)

It is administered orally and biotransformed by CYP3A4

b)

It is about 99.7% Albumin-bound

c)

It has a half-life of 5 hours

d)

It is primarily excreted through the feces

e)

It does not exhibit auto-induction

20.

Which of the following statements about Rilpivirine is FALSE?

a)

It is highly bound to Albumin

b)

Its half-life is about 50 hr

c)

It is mostly excreted through the feces

d)

It should not be taken concurrently with Omeprazole

e)

It exhibits auto induction

21.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Tenofovir Viread?

a)

Exacerbation of Hepatitis B Virus Infection

b)

Increased Bone Mineral Density

c)

Flatulence and Bloating

d)

Fanconi Syndrome

e)

Osteomalacia

22.

Which of the following, if administered concomitantly with Rilpivirine (Edurant), will decrease the GI absorption of Edurant? SATA

a)

Omeprazole (Prilosec)

b)

Famotidine (Pepcid)

c)

Maalox (Aluminum Hydroxide + Magnesium Hydroxide)

d)

Phenobarbital

e)

Phenytoin

23.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Foscavir (Foscarnet)?

a)

Paresthesias

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hallucination

d)

Seizures

e)

Renal Impairment

24.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Foscarnet? SATA

a)

Genital Ucleration

b)

Tetanus

c)

First Degree AV Block

d)

Circumoral Paresthesias

e)

Asthenia

25.

Scleral Icterus may result from therapy with Atazanavir (Reyataz) because the drug produces which of the following?

a)

Hyperbilirubinemia

b)

Nephrolithiasis

c)

Cholethiasis

d)

Abdominal Pain

e)

Insomnia

26.

Which of the following is classified as a Hepatitis C Virus Polymerase Inhibitor?

a)

Voxilaprevir

b)

Ombitasvir

c)

Dasabuvir (Exviera)

d)

Daclatasvir

e)

Simeprevir (Olysio)

27.

All of the following are HIV Protease Inhibitors EXCEPT:

a)

Saquinavir (Invirase)

b)

Foscavir (Foscarnet)

c)

Nelfnavir

d)

Ritonavir (Novir)

e)

Lopinavir

28.

Which of the following produces its antiviral effect by binding to the first heptad repeat in the gp41 subunit of the envelope glycoprotein and thus impairing the fusion of a virus to the host cell?

a)

Maraviroc

b)

Zanamivir

c)

Penciclovir

d)

Mogamulizumab

e)

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

29.

The mechanism of action of Ibalizumab involves the inhibition of the binding of HIV to which of the following Chemokine receptors? SATA

a)

CCR4

b)

CCR5

c)

CX3CR

d)

CXCR4

e)

XCR5

30.

Which of the following is the appropriate prophylactic dose of Tamiflu in an individual who weighs 44 lbs (20 kg)?

a)

30 mg PO BID

b)

45 mg PO BID

c)

60 mg QD

d)

45 mg PO QD

e)

75 mg PO QD

31.

The primary mechanism of action of Remdesivir (Veklury) is the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

b)

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

c)

RNA-dependent RNA-polymerase

d)

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

e)

DNA ligase

32.

Which of the following is involved in the mechanism of action of Paxlovid? Inhibition of ______ SATA

a)

Cytochrome P450 3A4

b)

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

c)

Reverse Transcriptase

d)

PLpro

e)

Mpro

33.

Which of the following statements about Paxlovid is FALSE?

a)

Recurrence of COVID-19 symptoms may be observed after therapy with the drug

b)

It shouldn't be administered to individuals who are at least 12 years old

c)

It should be avoided in patients who have a GFR of 70 mL/min

d)

It should be adminstered at a dosage of 3 tablets PO BID x 5 days in patients who do not have renal dysfunction

e)

The patient who is on Paxlovid should be advised to complete the full 5-day treatment even if hospitalization is required

34.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of AZT (Zidovudine)? SATA

a)

Lactic Acidosis

b)

Hepatomegaly with Steatosis

c)

Myopathy

d)

Hyperlipidemia

e)

Lipodystrophy

35.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of AZT?

a)

Granulocytopenia

b)

Microcytic Anemia

c)

Wenicke's Encephalopathy

d)

Skin and Nail Hyperpigmentation

e)

Seizures

36.

SELECT THE CORRECT STATEMENT: A concurrent administration of Raltegravir and ___ may result in the exacerbation of the skin-related adverse effect of Raltegravir/

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Atorvastati

c)

Isoniazid

d)

Tylenol

e)

Darunavir/Ritonavir

37.

Which of the following combination products that are employed in the treatment of Hepatitis C Virus Infection contains Paritaprevir, Ritonavir, Dasabuvir, and Ombitasvir?

a)

Epclusa

b)

Vosevi

c)

Mavyret

d)

Technivie

e)

Viekira

38.

Paxlovid can interfere with the biotransformation of which of the following? SATA

a)

Flecainide

b)

Propafenone

c)

Simvastatin

d)

Amlodipine

e)

Midazolam

39.

Which of the following products that are used in managing AIDS is NOT matched with its correct contents?

a)

ODEFSEY: Rilpivirine + Emtricitabine + Tenofovir Disoproxil Fumarate

b)

DOVATO: Dolutegravir + Lamivudine

c)

JULUCA: Doletegravir + Rilpivirine

d)

CABENUVA: Rilpivirine + Cabotegravir

e)

SYMTUZA: Emtricitabine + Tenofovir Alafenamide + Cobicistat + Darunavir

40.

A patient who is receiving Acyclovir (Zovirax) 400 mg PO BID most likely has which of the following conditions?

a)

Genital Herpes

b)

Infectious Mononucleosis

c)

Shingles

d)

Chicken Pox

e)

Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

41.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Neuraminidase Inhibitor? SATA

a)

Pleconaril

b)

Xofluza (Baloxacir Marboxil)

c)

Tamiflu (Oseltamivir)

d)

Peramivir (Rapivab)

e)

Rukobia (Fostemsavir)

42.

Which of the following is used to manage cold sores?

a)

Abreva (Docosanol)

b)

Valtrex (Valcyclovir)

c)

Baraclude (Entecavir)

d)

Zovirax (Acyclovir)

e)

Interferon a2A (Roferon-A)

43.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of Hepatitis?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Dark Colored Urine

c)

Elevation of Bilirubin Levels

d)

Elevation of AST

e)

Elevation of ALT

44.

Which of the following statements about Sofosbuvir (Sovaldi) is correct? SATA

a)

It has a terminal half-life of 27 hours

b)

About 2.5% of the administered dose will be excreted through expiration

c)

It is a pro-drug

d)

It is given orally

e)

It has a PPB of about 61-65%

45.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Tenofovir (Viread)? SATA

a)

Flatulence

b)

Nausea and Vomiting

c)

Fanconi Syndrome

d)

Osteomalacia

e)

Decreased Bone Density

46.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Atazanavir (Reyataz)?

a)

Hypotriglyceridemia

b)

Hyperbilirubinemia

c)

Nausea and Diarrhea

d)

Kidney Stones

e)

Bile Stones

47.

If a patient is severely allergic to Sofosbuvir which of the following agents would be avoided in that patient? SATA

a)

Hepcinat Plus

b)

Mavyrent

c)

Vosevi

d)

Harvoni

e)

Epclusa

48.

An individual who is severely allergic to Dolutegravir should NOT be treated with all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Juluca

b)

Symtuza

c)

Triumeq

d)

Dovato

e)

Tivicay

49.

Which of the following is best classified as an Antisense Oligonucleotide that is used in the treatment of Genital Warts (Condyloma Acuminatum)?

a)

Afovirsen

b)

Fomivirsen

c)

Nusinersen

d)

Bepirovirsen

e)

Mipomersen

50.

Which of the following is BEST classified as an Antisense oligonucleotide that is used to treat Hepatitis B virus Infection?

a)

Afovirsen

b)

Fomivirsen

c)

Bepirovirsen

d)

Mipomersen

e)

Nusinersen

51.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Foscavir (Foscarnet Sodium)? SATA

a)

Tetanus

b)

Asthenia

c)

Roseola Infantum

d)

1st Degree AV Block

e)

Perioral Paresthesia

52.

Which of the following is an RNA-containing Virus? SATA

a)

Coxsackie Virus

b)

Influenza Virus Type A

c)

Hepatitis C Virus

d)

RSV

e)

Rubella Virus

53.

Given with Zidovudine, ____ will increase the hematologic toxicity of Zidovudine (Retrovir) SATA

a)

Aspirin

b)

Probenecid

c)

Rubavirin

d)

Thymidine

e)

Tylenol

54.

Which of the following statements about Ganciclovir is INCORRECT? SATA

a)

When given orally it is mostly excreted Renally

b)

Administered intravenously as Cymevne or Cytovene

c)

When it is implanted opthalmically, the formulation is Vitrasert

d)

Its rate of absorption is higher in blacks than in caucasians

e)

It is available as Zircon for ophthalmic administration

55.

The mechanism of action of Letermovir involves which of the following?

a)

Protease

b)

Helciase

c)

APEX nuclease

d)

DNA Terminase Complex

e)

Reverse Transcriptase

56.

Amantadine is effective in the management of which of the following? SATA

a)

Restless Leg Syndrome

b)

Mild cases of Parkinson's Disease

c)

Dyskinesia

d)

Influenza Type A

e)

Roseola Infantum

57.

Which of the following is the vector of Eastern Equine Encephalitis?

a)

Ixodes Ticks

b)

Anopheles Mosquito

c)

Culex Univittatus

d)

Aedes Egypti

e)

Culiseta Melanura

58.

The Protease Inhibitor, Atazanavir, is a component of which of the following products?

a)

Genvoya

b)

Symfi

c)

Evotaz

d)

Prexcobix

e)

Triumeq

59.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as a sign or symptom of Hepatitis A virus-induced hepatitis?

a)

Light yellowish coloration of the urine

b)

Yellowish coloration of the eyes

c)

Jaundice

d)

Hyperbilirubinemia

e)

Elevation of AST and ALT

60.

All of the following are RNA-containing viruses EXCEPT:

a)

Respiratory Syncytial Virus

b)

Rubella Virus

c)

Influenza Virus Type A

d)

Hepatitis B Virus

e)

Coxsackie Virus

61.

Which of the following statements about Xofluza is INCORRECT?

a)

It is a prodrug

b)

Its dosing is weight-based

c)

It has low plasma protein-binding capability

d)

Its half-life is about 79.1 hours

e)

It is metabolized by UDP-Glucuronyl transferase

62.

Which of the following is an Antisense oligonucleotide that is MOST LIEKLY used to treat Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

a)

Eteplirsen

b)

Bepirovirsen

c)

Nusinersen

d)

Mipomersen

e)

Afovirsen

63.

Which of the following is an indication of Zovirax? SATA

a)

Herpes Labialis

b)

Condylomata Acuminiata

c)

Herpes Simplex Genitalis

d)

Chicken Pox

e)

Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

64.

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is caused by which of the following?

a)

Simian Vacuolating 40 Virus

b)

John Cunningham Virus

c)

Vaccinia Virus

d)

Rotavirus

e)

Epstein-Barr Virus

65.

A Medical Team wants to use a combination of Sofosbuvir, Velpatasvir and Voxilaprevir only to treat Mr. Sul’s Hepatitis C virus infection. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE product for the Pharmacist to suggest?

a)

Technivie

b)

Viekira

c)

Epclusa

d)

Vosevi

e)

Mavyret

66.

Which of the following products that are used to treat Hepatitis C contains two Protease inhibitors, a Polymerase inhibitor and an NS 5A inhibitor?

a)

Viekiera

b)

Vosevi

c)

Harboni

d)

Technivie

e)

Epclusa

67.

Which of the following can be used to treat Hepatitis C virus infection in a patient who is severely allergic to Sofosbuvir?

a)

Hepcinat Plus

b)

Harvoni

c)

Mavyret

d)

Epclusa

e)

Vosevi

68.

Which of the following primarily inhibits the initiation of the packaging of a new virion?

a)

Maribavir

b)

Letermovir

c)

Fanciclovir

d)

Cidovir

e)

Bictegravir

69.

Which of the following is an Antisense oligonucleotide? SATA

a)

Aforvirsen

b)

Fomivirsen

c)

Mipomersen

d)

Eteplirsen

e)

Nusinersen

70.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? SATA: Both Intelence and Edurant:

a)

Have a long half-life

b)

Are primarily excreted through the feces

c)

Are auto-inducers

d)

Are highly bound to albumin

e)

Can be administered enterally

71.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? SATA: Both Intelence and Edurant:

a)

Have a long half-life

b)

Are primarily excreted through the feces

c)

Are auto-inducers

d)

Are highly bound to albumin

e)

Can be administered enterally

72.

As a part of his AIDS treatment, Mr. Zit is receiving Sustiva. Which of the following is Mr. Zit LEAST LIKELY to experience during therapy with that drug?

a)

Elevation of liver enzymes

b)

Hypercholesterolemia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Insomnia and Somnolence

e)

Depression and Suicidal Ideation

73.

Since Ms. Kur is severely allergic to Sulfonamides, which of the following should be avoided when treating her HIV infection?

a)

Saquinavir

b)

Indinavir

c)

Nelfinavir

d)

Darunavir

e)

Ritonavir

74.

Which of the following should be avoided in a patient whose Creatine Clearance is 40 mL/min? SATA

a)

Genvoya

b)

Stribild

c)

Symtuza

d)

Prezcobix

e)

Evotaz

75.

A concomitant administration of Raltegravir and ____ will result in an elevation of AST:

a)

Atorvastatin

b)

Fenofibrate

c)

Tylenol

d)

Darunavir/Ritonavir

e)

Aspirin

76.

Mr. Jam is receiving Acyclovir 10 mg/kg IV every 8 hours for 21 days. Considering that treatment regimen, which of the following does Mr. Jam MOST LIKELY have?

a)

EBV-induced infectious mononucleosis

b)

Genital Herpes

c)

Shingles

d)

Chicken Pox

e)

Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

77.

Which of the following is a post-attachment inhibitor that blocks HIV from binding to CCR5 and CXCR4?

a)

Mogamulizumab

b)

Cetuximab

c)

Bevacizumab

d)

Ibalizumab

e)

Adalimumab

78.

Mr. Zam is a 77-lb young man who presents with signs and symptoms that are consistent with a diagnosis of an Influenza Type-A Infection. Mr. Zam's physician wants to use Tamiflu to treat the patient's infection. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE dosage for treating Mr. Zam?

a)

30 mg PO QD

b)

45 mg PO QD

c)

50 mg PO BID

d)

60 mg PO BID

e)

75 mg PO BID

79.

Mr. Zam is a 77-lb young man who presents with signs and symptoms that are consistent with a diagnosis of an Influenza Type-A infection. Mr. Zam's physician wants to use Tamiflu to treat the patient's infection. The causative agent of Mr. Zam's infection is BEST classified as a/an _____.

a)

Papovavirus

b)

Piconavirus

c)

Paramyxovirus

d)

Orthomyxovirus

e)

Oncornavirus

80.

Ms. Tear, who recently returned from a trip to West Africa, presents with facial edema, proteinuria, and diarrhea. She was placed on Ribavirin and the infection resolved in 7 days. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY the correct diagnosis of Ms. Tear's Infection?

a)

Lassa fever

b)

Dengue Fever

c)

Ebola Fever

d)

Yellow Fever

e)

Zika Disease

81.

Ms. Tear, who recently returned from a trip to West Africa, presents with facial edema, proteinuria, and diarrhea. She was placed on Ribavirin and the infection resolved in 7 days. The causative agent of Ms. Tear's infection is BEST CLASSIFIED as a/an:

a)

Adenavirus

b)

Arenavirus

c)

Poxvirus

d)

Reovirus

e)

Coronavirus

82.

Which of the following is an indication of Amantadine? SATA

a)

Parkinson's Disease

b)

Influenza Type A Prophylaxis

c)

Influenza Type A Treatment

d)

Influenza Type B Treatment

e)

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

83.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to result from therapy with Foscavir?

a)

Hyperphosphatemia

b)

Hypermagnesemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypocalcemia

e)

Hypophopsphatemia

84.

Which of the following statements about Ganciclovir is FALSE?

a)

When given IV, it is mostly excreted through renal filtration and secretion

b)

Its usual maintenance dose is 1 gm PO TID AC

c)

Its plasma concentration is lower in African-Americans than in Caucasians

d)

When given per os, it is mostly excreted in the feces

e)

It can be infused intravenously for the treatment of CMV-retinitis in immunocompromised patients

85.

Ms. Jen's Epstein-Barr Virus Infection is being treated with Phosphonoformic acid; Which of the following will she experience as a result of an adverse effect of the drug? SATA

a)

Tetany

b)

Numbness

c)

Anemia

d)

Perioral Paresthesias

e)

Seizures

86.

Dihydroxypropxymethy guanine is the active ingredient in which of the following antiviral products? SATA

a)

Cymevene

b)

Cymeval

c)

Cytovene

d)

Zirgan

e)

Vitrasert

87.

All of the following are adverse effects of Zidovudine EXCEPT:

a)

Nystagmus, Ataxia, and Confusion

b)

Hyperlipidemia, Lipodystrophy, and Hypoglycemia

c)

Lactic Acidosis and Hepatomegaly with Steatosis

d)

Inflammation and Degradation of Muscle

e)

Macrocytic Anemia and Granulocytopenia

88.

Which of the following combination products that are used to treat AIDS is NOT matched with its correct contents?

a)

Genvoya: Emtricitabine, Tenofovir Disoproxil, Cobicistat, Elvitegravir

b)

Prezcobix: Darunavir, Tybost

c)

Triumeq: Dolutegravir, Abacavir, Lamivudine

d)

Biktarvy: Bictegravir, Tenofovir Alafenamide, Emtricitabine

e)

Dovato: Dolutegravir, Lamivudine

89.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following statements about Maraviroc is correct?

a)

Maraviroc is a protease inhibitor

b)

Maraviroc is a CCR5 antagonist

c)

Maraviroc is a HIV integrate inhibitor

d)

Maraviroc is a nucleoside analogue

e)

Maraviroc is a neuramidase inhibitor

90.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following statements about Didanosine is CORRECT?

a)

Didanosine is a protease inhibitor

b)

Didanosine is a CCR5 antagonists

c)

Didanosine is a HIV integrase inhibitor

d)

Didanosine has low oral bioavailability (25%)

e)

Didansonine has high oral bioavailability (92%)

91.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Enfuvirtide binds to the ___ rich region of the gp41 protein.

a)

Alanine

b)

Proline

c)

Glutamic Acid

d)

Aspartic Acid

e)

Tryptophan

92.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Stavudine is a ______.

a)

Purine analog

b)

Sulfonamide analog

c)

Peptide analog

d)

Thymidine analog

e)

Non-nucleoside analog

93.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following statements about Oseltamivir is correct?

a)

Oseltamivir has seven chiral centers

b)

Oseltamivir is a deoxyguanosine analog

c)

Oseltamivir is a M2 Proton Channel Inhibitor

d)

Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor

e)

Oseltamivir is a deoxyadenine analog

94.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following statements about Valacyclovir is CORRECT?

a)

Valacyclovir is a prodrug of acyclovir. Acyclovir has the high oral bioavailability than Valacyclovir

b)

Valacyclovir is a prodrug of acyclovir. Valcyclovir has the high oral bioavailability than Acyclovir

c)

Acyclovir is a prodrug of Valacyclovir. Acyclovir has the high oral bioavailability than Valacyclovir

d)

Valacyclovir is NOT a prodrug

e)

Valacyclovir is a M2 Proton Channel Inhibitor

95.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following statements about Famciclovir is correct?

a)

Penciclovir is a pro-drug of Famciclovir

b)

Famciclovir is a viral cell wall biosynthesis inhibitor

c)

Famciclovir is a M2 Proton Channel Inhibitor

d)

Famciclovir is a neuraminidase inhibitor

e)

Famciclovir is a pro-drug of Penciclovir

96.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Rimantadine is a

a)

Nucleoside Analog

b)

Sulfonamide Analog

c)

M2 Proton Channel Inhibitor

d)

Neuraminidase Inhibitor

e)

Carbohydrate Analog

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