wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Unit 2 Revision

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is the first lifespan stage?

a)

Childhood

b)

Infancy

c)

Prenatal

d)

Fertilisation

2.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the prenatal stage of development?

a)

Speech begins

b)

Unborn baby goes from a single cell to over 200 billion cells

c)

Rapid growth

d)

Significant increase in weight (3.5kgs on average)

3.

How long does the prenatal stage usually last for?

a)

42 weeks

b)

40 weeks

c)

1 year

d)

6 years

4.

What is the age range is infancy characterised by?

a)

1 - 4 years

b)

Birth - 6 years

c)

2 - 6 years

d)

Birth - 2 years

5.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of early childhood?

a)

Become toilet trained

b)

Begin making friends

c)

Start of puberty

d)

Slow and steady growth

6.

Ages 6 to 12 fall into which lifespan stage?

a)

Early Childhood

b)

Late Childhood

c)

Youth

d)

Middle Childhood

7.

Which lifespan stage does puberty occur in?

a)

Young adulthood

b)

Middle adulthood

c)

Late childhood

d)

Youth

8.

What age does adulthood begin?

a)

21

b)

18

c)

40

d)

30

9.

Development of motor skills (crawling, walking), identifying familiar faces, and expressing emotions (tantrums) develop during which lifespan stage?

a)

Prenatal

b)

Toddlerhood

c)

Early childhood

d)

Infancy

10.

Development of motor skills and social skills are characteristics of which lifespan stage?

a)

Late childhood

b)

Infancy

c)

Early childhood

d)

Adulthood

11.

Refining of reading and writing skills, development of long-term memory and refining motor skills are characteristics of which stage of development

a)

Youth

b)

Early childhood

c)

Infancy

d)

Late childhood

12.

Significant period of growth, increased independence and physical changes associated with puberty are characteristics of which lifespan stage?

a)

Early adulthood

b)

Late childhood

c)

Youth

d)

Prenatal

13.

Reach physical peak, period of maintenance and repair and building of a career are characteristics of which lifespan stage?

a)

Early adulthood

b)

Youth

c)

Middle adulthood

d)

Late childhood

14.

Stability in work and relationships, further development of identity and financial security are characteristics of which lifespan stage?

a)

Late adulthood

b)

Youth

c)

Middle adulthood

d)

Early childhood

15.

Greater participation in leisure activities, experiencing grief due to death of friends or spouse and period of reflection are characteristics of which lifespan stage?

a)

Old age

b)

Final adulthood

c)

Late adulthood

d)

Middle adulthood

16.

Ages 18 to 40 fall into which lifespan stage?

a)

Early Adulthood

b)

Middle Adulthood

c)

Late Adulthood

d)

Youth

17.

Ages 40 to 65 fall into which lifespan stage?

a)

Early Adulthood

b)

Middle Adulthood

c)

Late Adulthood

d)

Youth

18.

Ages 65 to death mark out which lifespan stage?

a)

Early Adulthood

b)

Middle Adulthood

c)

Late Adulthood

d)

Youth

19.

When does the human lifespan begin?

a)

2nd Birthday

b)

1st Birthday

c)

Birth

d)

Fertilisation

20.

When does the human lifespan end?

a)

Retirement

b)

Death

c)

100 years old

d)

85 years old

21.

At what stage of life do people normally retire?

a)

Early adulthood

b)

Late adulthood

c)

Middle adulthood

d)

Youth

22.

In what stage does a person go through puberty?

a)

Youth

b)

Adulthood

c)

Early Adulthood

d)

Late childhood

23.

Middle adulthood begins at ..... and ends at .....

a)

40, 60

b)

18, 40

c)

40, 65

d)

18, 45

24.

Which of the following Human Lifespan is not at the correct age?

a)

Prenatal (From fertilisation to birth)

b)

Infancy (Birth to 2 years old)

c)

Early Childhood (2- 8 years old)

d)

Late Childhood (6 -13 years old)

25.

What lifespan stage is shown in the picture above?

a)

Infancy

b)

Youth

c)

Tadpole

d)

Prenatal

26.

What lifespan stage is shown in the picture above?

a)

Youth

b)

Middle adulthood

c)

Late adulthood

d)

Early adulthood

27.

What age does infancy end?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

28.

Which lifespan stage may experience 'empty nest syndrome'?

a)

Youth

b)

Late adulthood

c)

Early childhood

d)

Middle adulthood

29.

At what age does late childhood begin?

a)

12

b)

8

c)

6

d)

10

30.

Late adulthood can be characterised by?

a)

Getting their license

b)

Grief associated with death of friends/spouse

c)

Becoming toilet trained

d)

Voluntary work

31.

How many lifespan stages are there?

a)

8

b)

7

c)

10

d)

9

32.

Youth begins at ..... and ends at ....

a)

10, 18

b)

10,19

c)

12, 19

d)

12, 18

33.

Early adulthood can be characterised by

a)

Empty nest syndrome

b)

Sexual maturity

c)

Choose life partner, get married, children

d)

Reflection on life and achievements

34.

What lifespan stage does a child learn to walk?

a)

Prenatal

b)

Infancy

c)

Early childhood

d)

Late childhood

35.

True or false?

Young people are taking longer to gain independence and maturity.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

What is Medicare in Australia?

a)

Private health insurance

b)

A government program that pays for or subsidies health care costs.

c)

Giving out free medicine

d)

Giving out money to pay for things

37.

What does Medicare cover?

a)

Schedule fee of a consultation with a doctor.

b)

Schedule fee of a x-ray

c)

Schedule fee of a pathology test

d)

Schedule fee of a surgery in a public hospital

e)

75% of Schedule fee of a surgery in a private hospital

38.

The Medicare Safety Net:

a)

Ensures that people who require frequent services covered by Medicare receive additional support.

b)

Kicks in when medical expenses reach a certain level

c)

Catches people if they fall over in a hospital

d)

Has no impact on the H&W of patients

39.

Bulk billing:

a)

Is an added charge from doctors for overweight patients

b)

Is when doctors accept the Medicare benefit (the Schedule fee about $41 in 2025) as full payment.

c)

Is when the doctor doesn't get patients to pay their account until it exceeds $10,000.

d)

Includes a co-payment of usually $45

40.

What is not covered by Medicare?

a)

Treatment in public hospitals

b)

Accommodation in private hospitals

c)

Most dental examinations

d)

Ambulance services

41.

Advantages of Medicare:

a)

Reduced cost of essential medical services

b)

Is available to all Australians

c)

Reciprocal agreement between Australia and some other countries so can receive same benefits in New Zealand if something goes wrong on holiday.

d)

Allows patients to have a choice of doctor for out of hospital services.

42.

Disadvantages of Medicare:

a)

No choice of doctor for in-hospital treatments

b)

Waiting lists for many treatments can be long

c)

Does not cover alternative therapies or allied health services

d)

Often does not cover the full amount of a doctor's visit

43.

How is Medicare paid for?

a)

Through general taxation (income tax)

b)

The Medicare levy

c)

The Medicare levy surcharge

d)

Through donations by generous prisons

44.

The Medicare levy is?

a)

An additional 20% tax placed on the untaxable income of taxpayers

b)

A hydro dam that was paid for by Medicare

c)

An additional 2% tax placed on the taxable income of most taxpayers

d)

Not paid by Government pension card holders or those who make less than $20,000.

45.

The Medicare levy surcharge is?

a)

A discount for high earners

b)

An extra cost for low earners

c)

Only applies to Private hospital visits

d)

An additional 1 to 1.5 % tax on the income of people without private health insurance earning more than a certain amount ($101,000 for individuals or $202,000 for families.)

46.

The Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme (PBS):

a)

Subsidies the cost of all medicines for Australian's health system

b)

Subsidies over 5000 essential medicines in Australia

c)

Pays total cost of some medicines for all Australians

d)

Pays total cost of all medicines for people who are in Australia

47.

The PBS Safety Net:

a)

Increases the subsidy for a patient once they or their family has exceeded the threshold in a calendar year for medicines covered by the PBS

b)

Allows qualifying patients to pay only $6.00 instead of $25 for PBS medicines.

c)

Are never adjusted

d)

Are adjusted every year in line with inflation

48.

The National Disability Insurance Scheme:

a)

Provides funding for services and supports to eligible Australians with a disability.

b)

Is eligible to Australians with severe and permanent disabilities and are younger than 65 years.

c)

Provides services such as: Mobility equipment eg wheelchairs, Home or vehicle modifications and Transport (to health care or community events)

49.

What needs do newborns have that care givers have to provide?

a)

Feeding and being hydrated

b)

Maintain body warmth and staying clean

c)

Opportunities to play and explore the world

d)

Appropriate language stimulation

50.

In infancy growth can be described as?

a)

Steady

b)

Slow

c)

Rapid

d)

Fast

51.

In infancy, which of the following is/are examples of Physical Development?

a)

Birthweight doubles by six months

b)

Infants get better at holding objects

c)

Children get better at walking

d)

Infants begin to smile in reaction to loved ones

52.

The infant's body proportions and control can change following the cephalocaudal pattern of development. This means development occurs?

a)

From the outside in. (Fingers first)

b)

From the feet upwards

c)

From the middle in a circle

d)

From the head down

53.

The infant's motor skills can change following the proximodistal pattern of development. This means development occurs?

a)

From the body outwards

b)

From the feet upwards

c)

From the middle in a circle

d)

From the head down

54.

Infant social development includes:

a)

Attachment with mother (especially when breastfeeding)

b)

Infant begins to smile at around six weeks

c)

Playing with others

d)

Getting stronger bones

55.

Emotional development in infancy includes:

a)

A hurt infant can be comforted by caregivers

b)

If attachment has occurred infant feels secure, safe and loved

c)

By 8 months the infant has learnt to express anger and happiness

d)

The infant becomes taller

56.

Infant intellectual development includes:

a)

Learning about hard, soft, bitter and sweet by putting things in their mouth

b)

Learning that they have a name and will begin to respond

c)

Learning new words so it is important to read to infants

d)

Object permanence: they learn that an object that is out of sight still exists.

57.

Development in early childhood can be described as?

a)

Slow

b)

Steady

c)

Fast

d)

Rapid

58.

Physical development in early childhood includes?

a)

Increase in height by around 6cm per year (longer bones)

b)

Increase in weight by around 2.5kg per year

c)

Body proportions change (arms and legs match head, decrease body fat)

d)

Motor skills stagnate (stay the same)

59.

Social development in early childhood includes:

a)

Communication skills improve with more interaction

b)

Acceptable social behaviours increase

c)

If early child spends time away from caregivers their independence begins to develop

d)

Infants can speak 10,000 words

60.

Early childhood emotional development includes:

a)

Developing a sense of empathy for those who are crying or upset

b)

May begin to use physical violence to express their frustration

c)

Moods can change quickly during early childhood

d)

Adult's hair starts to go grey

61.

Early childhood intellectual development includes:

a)

Increased vocabulary: by 5 years they may know 1500-2500 words

b)

They start to think about how things work so will ask more questions

c)

Learning to classify objects and be able to separate them eg green blocks and orange blocks.

d)

Learn how to write letters and numbers

62.

Infancy and early childhood age ranges are?

a)

0-2 years and 4 years to 8 years

b)

Two months before birth to 2nd birthday and 2nd birthday to 6th birthday

c)

Birth to 2nd birthday and 2nd birthday to 6th birthday

d)

2-6 and 0-2

63.

The three year old was very good friends with only 25 letters of the alphabet.

a)

He needs to get out more

b)

He doesn't know why

c)

She is annoyed by the shape of the Z

d)

She can't stand to be around O

64.

Select the community service specifically designed to enhance mental health and wellbeing

a)

Headspace

b)

Places of worship

c)

Maternal and Child Health Service

d)

Meals on Wheels

65.

__________ is Australia's universal health insurance scheme

a)

Private Health Insurance

b)

Medicare

c)

Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme

d)

None of the above

66.

Identify the correct statement, in relation to the data above

a)

As an area becomes more remote, the prevalence of arthritis increases

b)

The prevalence of health conditions is higher in regional and remote areas compared to major cities

c)

For all geographic locations, the prevalence of diabetes is higher than deafness

d)

As an area becomes more remote, prevalence of diabetes decreases

67.

Which factor affecting access to healthcare includes language barriers?

a)

Geographic location

b)

Socioeconomic status

c)

Cultural factors

d)

Gender

68.

Select ALL that are factors affecting access to health services

a)

Gender

b)

Cultural factors

c)

Health Literacy

d)

Socioeconomic Status

69.

Why are Males less likely to access health care than Females?

a)

They don't want to

b)

Because they have a lower life expectancy

c)

Social norms

d)

They are more likely to have physical jobs

70.

Why are people who love in rural areas less likely to receive health care?

a)

The quality of doctors is not as good as inner city care.

b)

Limited healthcare professional in these areas

c)

People in rural areas don't need healthcare

d)

People having to travel long distances to access healthcare

71.

Identify the THREE factors that relate to socioeconomic impacting access to healthcare

a)

Income

b)

Location

c)

Occupation

d)

Education

72.

What is meant by 'Health Literacy'?

a)

Language barriers, religious beliefs, values and expectations
of the services provided.

b)

People being able to read

c)

individuals have the capacity to obtain, process and understand
basic health information and services needed to make appropriate health decisions.

d)

People being able to understand English

73.

Doctors charging more than the 'schedule fee' is a barrier relating to what factor affecting access to healthcare.

a)

Geographical Location

b)

Socioeconomic Status

c)

Gender

d)

Health Literacy

74.

Identify ALL barriers that are associated with cultural factors affecting access to healthcare

a)

Differing values

b)

Not feeling safe

c)

Religious beliefs

d)

Language barriers

75.

What are examples of digital media that target health and wellbeing?

a)

What your parents have told you

b)

Health Literacy

c)

A book from the library

d)

A Symptom checker app

76.

How can social media be used to promote physical health and wellbeing?

a)

Exercise trackers

b)

Messaging friends

c)

Access to nutritious recipes

d)

Accessing online mental health professionals

77.

Virtual reality can be used to promote health and wellbeing

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Why is Health Literacy important?

a)

Talk to friends

b)

So people can understand benefits and risks of health procedures

c)

Seek professional support

d)

Complete paperwork

79.

How does digital media directly promote mental health and wellbeing?

a)

Assists people in accessing psychologists

b)

Symptom checker apps for COVID.

c)

Apps that track steps

d)

Helps people meet others with a passion for fitness

80.

What is an example of how family support impacts health and wellbeing?

a)

Lack of employment can isolate a person from their community

b)

If members of a family care for and support each other they are more likely to have the confidence to seek help from health services when they need it.

c)

Families not being able to afford Private Health Inurance

d)

Access to healthcare being impacted as they live in rural areas

81.

Which population group is more likely to have better access to health care?

a)

People living in major cities

b)

People living in rural areas

82.

Identify TWO ways employment allows people to access health care

a)

Often provides initiatives to help improve their employee's health

b)

It is often measured as a combination of education, income and occupation.

c)

Gives an individual access to income which in turn helps someone to access and pay for health services.

d)

Gives an individual the opportunity to be critical of information they find in the media and on social media.

83.

What are the names of the male and female sex cells?

a)

Sperm & ovary

b)

Sperm & cervix

c)

Sperm & Ova

d)

Urine & ova

84.

Sperm and Ova are both considered to be half cells. What is it called when they combine to make a 'full cell'?

a)

Complete cell

b)

Zygote

c)

Fertilisation

d)

DNA

85.

Which stage occurs from 3-8 weeks?

a)

Germinal

b)

Embryonic

c)

Foetal

d)

Fertilisation

86.

Development during the prenatal stage is the most rapid of all the lifespan stages. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Which of the following occurs in the correct order during the Germinal Stage:

a)

zygote -> blastocyst -> embryo -> morula

b)

zygote -> blastocyst -> morula -> embryo

c)

zygote -> morula -> embryo -> blastocyst

d)

zygote -> morula -> blastocyst -> embryo

88.

How long does the Germinal stage last?

a)

5 days

b)

7 days

c)

2 weeks

d)

8 weeks

89.

What major development occurs in the Embryonic stage?

a)

Sex of baby is determined

b)

Heart, skin and bone cells all form

c)

Hair cells form

d)

None of the above

90.

True or false: the embryo is very sensitive to environmental influences during this stage?

a)

True

b)

False

91.

At what point in the Pre-Natal stage does the Foetal stage begin?

a)

The birth of the child

b)

3 week mark

c)

9 week mark

d)

9 month mark

92.

Which of the following begin to function during the Foetal stage?

a)

Muscles

b)

Organs

c)

Nerves

d)

All of the above

93.

What are the lungs filled with in the Foetal stage?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbondioxide

c)

Amniotic fluid

d)

None of the above

94.

How long before their due date do babies have to be born to be considered premature?

a)

1 day early

b)

1 week early

c)

2 weeks early

d)

3 weeks early

95.

At what point in the Foetal stage can the sex of the baby be determined via ultrasound?

a)

9-13 weeks

b)

14-18 weeks

c)

19-23 weeks

d)

24+ weeks

96.

What is a key characteristic of the 34-38 week mark in the Foetal stage?

a)

Toe and finger nails grow

b)

Foetus is around 37cm long

c)

The sex of the baby is determined

d)

The foetus assumes the 'head down' position

97.

What is a function of the placenta?

a)

Connect the foetus to the uterine wall

b)

Allow nutrient uptake

c)

Eliminate waste

d)

All of the above

98.

When a mother's 'water breaks' what is it that is bursting?

a)

Placenta

b)

Amniotic fluid

c)

Blastocyst

d)

Endometrium

99.

What is the maximum amount of time a woman can be pregnant before she is induced?

a)

40 weeks

b)

42 weeks

c)

44 weeks

d)

There is no maximum time

100.

True or false:

Babies conceived via IVF 'skip' the germinal stage from 0-2 weeks?

a)

True

b)

False