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Вопросы по очистке воды

Total questions: 172

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of flocculation in the mechanical process of water purification?

a)

To remove large particles from water

b)

To help small particles clump together

c)

To disinfect the water

d)

To adjust the pH of the water

e)

There is no correct answer

2.

Which of the following methods is commonly used in the sedimentation stage of water purification?

a)

Filtration

b)

Chlorination

c)

Aeration

d)

Allowing particles to settle

e)

No correct answer

3.

What is the main purpose of coagulation in water treatment?

a)

Kill bacteria

b)

Remove dissolved minerals

c)

Neutralize the charge of particles

d)

Add color to the water

e)

No correct answer

4.

How does the filtration stage contribute to the production of clean water?

a)

By exposing water to UV light

b)

By trapping small particles in the medium

c)

By evaporating water

d)

By adding minerals for taste

e)

No correct answer

5.

In the context of water purification, what does the abbreviation "TDS" stand for?

a)

Toxin Detection System

b)

Treatment and Disinfection Strategy

c)

Turbidity Measurement

d)

Total Dissolved Solids

e)

No correct answer

6.

What step usually follows the filtration stage in the mechanical water purification process?

a)

Settling

b)

Aeration

c)

Disinfection

d)

Softening

e)

No correct answer

7.

What is the purpose of the disinfection stage in water purification processes?

a)

Remove odors

b)

Regulate the water temperature

c)

Kill harmful microorganisms

d)

Improve the taste of water

e)

No correct answer

8.

What does the term "backwashing" mean in water filtration systems?

a)

Water flow in the reverse direction to clean the filter

b)

Adding chemicals to the water

c)

Measuring the turbidity of the water

d)

The final stage before distributing the water

e)

No correct answer

9.

How does aeration contribute to the water purification process?

a)

By adding oxygen to the water to remove impurities

b)

By lowering the water temperature

c)

By increasing the concentration of minerals

d)

By accelerating the sedimentation process

e)

There is no correct answer

10.

What is the main goal of the biological water purification process?

a)

Remove heavy metals from water

b)

Decompose organic substances into simpler substances

c)

Increase the temperature of the water

d)

Add more chemicals to the water

e)

No correct answer

11.

Which of the following microorganisms are commonly used in biological water treatment?

a)

Insects

b)

Algae

c)

Mammals

d)

Bacteria

e)

No correct answer

12.

What role do aerobic bacteria play in the biological treatment of water?

a)

They survive only in the absence of oxygen

b)

They break down pollutants in water using oxygen

c)

They increase the acidity of water

d)

They remove suspended solids from water

e)

There is no correct answer

13.

What is the function of activated sludge in the biological water treatment process?

a)

To act as a barrier to prevent the flow of water

b)

To provide nutrients for aquatic plants

c)

To settle at the bottom of the water body

d)

To decompose organic matter through microbial activity

e)

There is no correct answer

14.

Which of the following is a product of the biological water purification process?

a)

Toxic gases

b)

Recycled plastics

c)

Clean water

d)

Radioactive waste

e)

No correct answer

15.

In biological water treatment, what does the term "nitrification" mean?

a)

Removal of nitrogen compounds from water

b)

Adding nitrates to water

c)

Growth of algae in water

d)

Filtration process

e)

No correct answer

16.

What equipment is commonly used for aeration in biological water treatment systems?

a)

Pumps

b)

Water heaters

c)

Vacuum cleaners

d)

Filters

e)

Batch aeration systems

17.

Which of the following statements is true about biofilters in water treatment?

a)

They are mainly used to improve color

b)

They work by physically removing impurities

c)

Biofilms on the filtering material help in removing pollutants

d)

They are ineffective in breaking down organic matter

e)

There is no correct answer

18.

What is the purpose of the final sedimentation tank in the process of biological water treatment?

a)

To release treated water back into the environment

b)

To provide a habitat for aquatic animals

c)

To collect remaining suspended solids

d)

To increase the temperature of the water

e)

No correct answer

19.

What is the importance of monitoring and controlling the pH level in biological water treatment?

a)

Accelerate the growth of pathogens

b)

Create an environment suitable for microorganisms

c)

Increase water turbidity

d)

Reduce dissolved oxygen content

e)

No correct answer

20.

What is the significance of bioaugmentation in biological water treatment?

a)

Introduction of genetically modified organisms for water purification

b)

Reduction of beneficial bacteria growth in the system

c)

Artificially increasing the pH level of water

d)

Increasing the turbidity of water

e)

Decomposition of heavy metals in water

21.

What is the purpose of the secondary treatment stage in biological water purification?

a)

Remove physical residues from the water

b)

Continue the decomposition of organic substances after primary treatment

c)

Adjust the color of the water

d)

Add disinfectants to the water

e)

No correct answer

22.

Which of the following is a common chemical substance used in water purification processes?

a)

Vinegar

b)

Chlorine

c)

Baking soda

d)

Lemon juice

e)

No correct answer

23.

Which of the following is a common chemical substance used in water purification processes?

a)

Vinegar

b)

Chlorine

c)

Baking soda

d)

Lemon juice

24.

What is the purpose of adding chlorine in the water purification process?

a)

To improve the taste of the water

b)

To remove harmful bacteria and pathogens

c)

To color the water blue

d)

To raise the temperature of the water

25.

How does the coagulation process help in water purification?

a)

By adding color to the water

b)

By removing dissolved particles from the water

c)

By making the water acidic

d)

By increasing the salinity of the water

26.

What is the purpose of the sedimentation process in water purification?

a)

To mix chemicals in the water

b)

To kill bacteria in the water

c)

To settle solid particles out of the water

d)

To change the pH of the water

27.

What is the main purpose of adding fluoride to drinking water?

a)

To provide color

b)

To improve dental health

c)

To remove odor

d)

To increase acidity

28.

What role do coagulants play in the water purification process?

a)

To accelerate the evaporation process

b)

To remove solid particles from water during sedimentation

c)

For water aeration

d)

To lower the water temperature

29.

How does the pH level of water affect the effectiveness of chemicals for water treatment?

a)

It doesn't matter

b)

A high pH level increases effectiveness

c)

A low pH level decreases effectiveness

d)

It neutralizes the chemicals

30.

What process involves the removal of pathogens and microorganisms from water?

a)

Filtration

b)

Softening

c)

Aeration

d)

Fluoridation

31.

What is the purpose of adding aluminum in the water purification process?

a)

To demineralize the water

b)

To neutralize pH

c)

To aid in coagulation

d)

To add color

32.

What chemical is commonly used to regulate low pH levels in water during the purification process?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Vinegar

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

Sodium hydroxide

33.

What chemical is commonly used to regulate high pH levels in water during the purification process?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Sulfuric acid

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

Sodium hydroxide

34.

How does the process of flocculation help in water purification?

a)

Increasing water hardness

b)

Neutralizing pH

c)

Removing colloidal particles

d)

Lowering water temperature

35.

Which of the following methods is NOT a common method of water purification?

a)

Reverse osmosis

b)

UV disinfection

c)

Deep frying

d)

Activated carbon filtration

36.

What is the purpose of the backwashing process in water purification?

a)

To remove accumulated residues from filters

b)

To add chemicals to the water

c)

To introduce air into the water

d)

To change the color of the water

37.

What method is used to remove excess minerals, such as calcium and magnesium, from water?

a)

Distillation

b)

Ionic exchange

c)

Flocculation

d)

Filtration

38.

What is the characteristic of drinking water?

a)

It is safe to drink

b)

It has an unpleasant smell

c)

It is heavily colored

d)

It contains visible particles

39.

How does the ozonation process benefit water purification?

a)

Removing dissolved iron

b)

Neutralizing alkalinity

c)

Disinfecting water

d)

Increasing turbidity

40.

What step in the water purification process involves the removal of suspended particles through a filtration medium?

a)

Disinfection

b)

Aeration

c)

Filtration

d)

Settling

41.

What state standard is used in several countries from the list below?

a)

GOST

b)

Technical requirements

c)

Company rules

d)

Official duties

42.

Which document is not related to global significance?

a)

Company Rules

b)

GOST Standard

c)

ISO Document

d)

ASTM Standard

43.

Which standard is American?

a)

ASTM Standard

b)

GOST Standard

c)

UOP Standard

d)

Technical Requirements

44.

What standards provide recommendations for testing and analysis of oil and petroleum products?

a)

UOP Standard

b)

MSDS Requirement

c)

ASTM Standard

d)

GOST Standard

45.

What standards have been approved by the State Council for Standardization, Metrology, and Certification?

a)

State standards

b)

Industry standards

c)

Enterprise standards

d)

Technical requirements

46.

What standards are approved by the relevant ministries, agencies, and other central executive authorities?

a)

State standards

b)

Industry standards

c)

Enterprise standards

d)

Technical requirements

47.

What standards are approved by companies?

a)

Industry standards

b)

State standards

c)

Enterprise standards

d)

Technical requirements

48.

Main equipment is:

a)

equipment in which the main chemical and technological processes of product production are carried out

b)

equipment whose failure leads to the shutdown of the technological line

c)

the main part of the equipment on which other components are assembled and installed

d)

equipment of the plant’s repair workshops

e)

equipment used for transportation of raw materials

49.

Friction occurring on frictional surfaces in the complete absence of impurities is called:

a)

Rolling friction

b)

Sliding friction

c)

Pure friction

d)

Coriolis friction

e)

Cam friction

50.

At what imbalance is the center of gravity of a part or assembly located outside the axis of rotation?

a)

During rotation

b)

Static support

c)

Static moment

d)

Static imbalance

51.

Friction observed between solid surfaces with insufficient lubrication (film thickness not more than 0.5 μm):

a)

Semi-dry friction

b)

Pure fluid friction

c)

Semi-fluid friction

d)

Pure complete friction

e)

Pure incomplete friction

52.

Friction occurring with abundant lubrication:

a)

Semi-dry friction

b)

Fluid friction

c)

Semi-fluid friction

d)

Pure friction

e)

Friction

53.

Friction that occurs with proper geometric shapes of bodies:

a)

Boundary friction

b)

Pure fluid friction

c)

Semi-fluid friction

d)

Pure semi-fluid friction

e)

Organic-fluid friction

54.

Electrodes used for welding non-ferrous metals:

a)

Steel

b)

Copper

c)

Carbon

d)

Thin

e)

Non-ferrous

55.

Electrodes used for resurfacing worn-out parts:
<a>Electrodes used for resurfacing worn-out parts:

a)

ENR

b)

ED

c)

E

d)

EM

56.

To obtain a hard, wear-resistant layer, the following is used:

a)

Alloy of cobalt, chromium, and iron

b)

Alloy of chromium and vanadium

c)

Alloy of chromium and nickel

d)

Alloy of chromium and titanium

e)

Chromium cast iron

57.

Cause of failure of punching dies:

a)

Dulling of cutting edges

b)

Soft material

c)

Saw dulling

d)

Material wear

e)

Edge sticking

58.

Cause of failure of punching dies:

a)

Dulling of cutting edges

b)

Soft material

c)

Saw dulling

d)

Material wear

59.

For sealing small cracks in equipment parts, the following is used:

a)

Straightening

b)

Pinning

c)

>Adhesive

d)

Welding

60.

To obtain a permanent (non-detachable) connection:

a)

Screw

b)

Bolt

c)

Welding

d)

Nut

61.

Purpose of spring stops:


a)

To transfer load in one direction

b)

To transmit rotary motion

c)

To engage gears

d)

To return the mechanism

62.

Current used for arc welding:


a)

Direct current

b)

Alternating current

c)

Both direct and alternating

d)

Solar energy

63.

How do working surfaces of machine parts wear?

a)

Evenly

b)

Unevenly

c)

Quickly

d)

Slowly

64.

How do working surfaces of machine parts wear?

a)

Evenly

b)

Unevenly

c)

Quickly

d)

Slowly

65.

Change in reaction rate under the influence of special accelerators is called:

a)

isomerization

b)

dehydrogenation

c)

catalysis

d)

cracking

66.

Process where dissolved gases are released from water into the air and removed:

a)

aeration

b)

coagulation

c)

ion exchange

d)

flotation

67.

Reactions where the initial substance forms an intermediate, which then forms the final product are:

a)

consecutive

b)

parallel

c)

catalytic

d)

endothermic

68.

A wastewater treatment method used for removing acids and alkalis:

a)

coagulation

b)

neutralization

c)

rectification

d)

regeneration

69.

Additives used to increase catalyst activity are:

a)

promoters

b)

packings

c)

antioxidants

d)

carriers

70.

Reactions classified by heat effect include:

a)

catalytic

b)

endothermic

c)

homogeneous

d)

multistage

71.

The biochemical water treatment process occurring with a constant oxygen supply is:


a)

aerobic

b)

anaerobic

c)

reductive

d)

oxidative

72.

The process of separating the useful part of raw material from the non-useful one is called:


a)

neutralization

b)

degassing

c)

enrichment

d)

complex utilization

73.

Raw materials are classified by origin into:

a)

mineral raw materials

b)

gaseous raw materials

c)

inorganic raw materials

74.

The process in which a catalyst is used to speed up a reaction is called:

a)

homogeneous catalysis

b)

heterogeneous catalysis

c)

negative catalysis

d)

positive catalysis

75.

Equipment used for high-temperature processes:


a)

rectification column

b)

conveyor

c)

feeder

d)

furnace

76.

Suspension of fine solid particles in a liquid is called:

a)

emulsion

b)

polymer

c)

catalyst

d)

suspension

77.

A substance that changes the reaction rate is:


a)

activator

b)

intermediate

c)

catalyst

d)

regulator

78.

Separation into solid and liquid phases is:

a)

catalysis

b)

coagulation

c)

rectification

d)

absorption

79.

A value that characterizes a device or its operating mode is:

a)

concentration

b)

technological parameter

c)

technological mode

d)

technological regulation

80.

Reactions occurring in different phases are:

a)

homogeneous

b)

heterogeneous

c)

high-temperature

81.

The process of separating the useful part of raw material from the non-useful one is called:

a)

regeneration

b)

degassing

c)

enrichment

82.

A set of operations performed in sequence to obtain a finished product from raw materials is:

a)

chemical-technological process

b)

technological mode

c)

technological parameter

d)

technological regulation

83.

Target product separation is achieved by:

a)

enrichment

b)

rectification

c)

neutralization

84.

A substance that changes the rate of a reaction is:

a)

activator

b)

catalyst

c)

intermediate

85.

By-products not used in the current production but can be raw materials elsewhere are:


a)

intermediates

b)

waste

c)

raw materials

86.

Particle agglomeration in a colloidal system is called:

a)

catalysis

b)

coagulation

c)

rectification

d)

absorption

87.

During major overhaul, the following is performed:


a)

modernization

b)

restoration of equipment resource

c)

replacement of any parts

d)

repair of only some parts, excluding base parts

88.

To restore the equipment’s resource, the following is performed:


a)

routine repair

b)

major overhaul

c)

shift maintenance

d)

periodic maintenance

89.

Preparatory work for major overhaul is performed by:

a)

operational personnel

b)

maintenance personnel

c)

either operational or maintenance personnel

d)

no correct answer

90.

During the preparatory phase of major overhaul, the following tasks are performed:

a)

hydraulic testing

b)

depressurizing to atmospheric pressure

c)

pneumatic testing

d)

removal of product from equipment

91.

Maintenance is divided into shift and periodic depending on:

a)

the availability of labor

b)

the nature of the work performed

c)

the time of day

d)

the scope of work

92.

Periodic maintenance is carried out:

a)

on standby equipment

b)

every shift

c)

on operating equipment

d)

during equipment downtime

93.

Maintenance and repair in the Maintenance and Repair System can be performed according to one of the methods depending on:

a)

the technical condition of the equipment

b)

the structure of the repair cycle

c)

the significance of the equipment in the technological process

d)

whether the equipment is primary or auxiliary

94.

Number of operating hours during which all repairs are performed:
<a>Shift duration
<a>Inspection duration
<+a>Repair cycle duration

a)

Repair cycle duration

b)

Shift duration

c)

Inspection duration

95.

Accident report is filled out when machine downtime exceeds:

a)

60 minutes

b)

50 minutes

c)

40 minutes

d)

30 minutes

96.

Process of gradual damage accumulation under repeated stresses, leading to reduced durability:


a)

Long-term failure

b)

Fast failure

c)

Fatigue failure

d)

Accepted failure

97.

Purpose of cam stops:


a)

To transfer load in one direction

b)

To transmit rotary motion

c)

To engage gears

d)

To return the mechanism

98.

For sealing small cracks in metallurgical equipment parts:

a)

Welding

b)

Adhesive

c)

Pinning

d)

Straightening

99.

One of the main methods of restoring machine parts:


a)

Fatigue failure


b)

With changing material properties

c)

With changing original dimensions

d)

With changing location

100.

The process of changes over time in deformation and stresses in parts under external loads:

a)

Flexibility

b)

Hardness

c)

Viscosity

d)

Creep

101.

Name the following reaction:

a)

Hydrogenation of benzene

b)

Dehydrogenation of cyclohexane

c)

Hydrocracking of benzene

d)

Hydrogenolysis of hexane

102.

What product is obtained in the industry by cyclotrimerization of butadiene-1,3 in the presence of a complex catalyst Al(C2H5)2Cl-TiCl4 in cyclododecanthrene-1,5,9 followed by its hydrogenation?

a)

Cyclododecane

b)

Cyclotrimer

c)

Cyclooctane

d)

Cyclohexane

103.

Name the following chemical reaction:

a)

Esterification

b)

Formation of acetals

c)

Aldol condensation

d)

Hydrogenation of aldehydes in alcohols

104.

What product is obtained after non-destructive oxidation of propane?

a)

Propanoic acid

b)

Hexanol

c)

Methyl ethyl ether

d)

Dimethyl ether

105.

What product is obtained after destructive oxidation of butane?

a)

Valeric acid

b)

Maleic acid

c)

Vinegar acid

d)

Acrylic acid

106.

What product is obtained after oxidative condensation by following form of reaction?

a)

Glycol

b)

Hydroperoxide

c)

Anhydride

d)

Epoxide

107.

What secondary alcohol is oxidized to butanone-2?

a)

Butanol-3

b)

Butanol-2

c)

Butanol-1

d)

Butanol-4

108.

Who developed a method for directed liquid-phase oxidation of liquid saturated hydrocarbons C10-C20 with the formation of alcohols in following reaction?

a)

Kucherov M.G.

b)

Konovalov M.I.

c)

Bashkirov A.N.

d)

Zaycev A.M.

109.

Name the reagent and product in following reaction:

a)

Ethyne, oxygen, ethylene peroxide

b)

Ethylene, oxygen, ethylene peroxide

c)

Ethyne, oxygen, ethylene oxide

d)

Ethylene, oxygen, ethylene oxide

110.

What products are obtained by following reaction:

a)

propylene oxide and acetophenone

b)

styrene and methylphenylcarbonyl

c)

acetophenone and methylphenylcarbonyl

d)

propylene oxide and methylphenylcarbonyl

111.

Name the following reaction:

a)

Preparation of styrene by dehydration of methyl phenyl carbonyl

b)

Epoxidation of propylene with hydroperoxide

c)

Decomposition of ethylbenzene hydroperoxide

d)

Oxidation of ethyl benzene

112.

Name the organic product in following reaction:

a)

Acetaldehyde

b)

Formaldehyde

c)

Ethylene oxide

d)

Formic acid

113.

Name the following reaction:

a)

Decarboxylation of benzoic acid

b)

Dehydrocyclization of alkanes

c)

Dehydrogenation of cycloalkanes

d)

Trimerization of acetylene

114.

Name the following reaction:

a)

Alkylation of benzene

b)

Dehydrogenation of cycloalkanes

c)

Trimerization of acetylene

d)

Decarboxylation of benzoic acid

115.

Name the following reaction:

a)

Dehydrogenation of cycloalkanes

b)

Dehydrocyclization of alkanes

c)

Decarboxylation of benzoic acid

d)

Alkylation of benzene

116.

Name the following reaction:

a)

Trimerization of acetylene

b)

Dehydrogenation of cycloalkanes

c)

Dehydrocyclization of alkanes

d)

Alkylation of benzene

117.

What metal catalyst is used in following dealkylation reaction:What metal catalyst is used in following dealkylation reaction:Ni

a)

Pd

b)

Rh

c)

Mo

d)

Ni

118.

> What is another name of disproportionation reaction?

a)

Transalkylation

b)

Cracking

c)

Isomerization

d)

Hydrogenation

119.

How to produce acetylene from ethane (name the reaction)?

a)

By alkylation reaction

b)

By halogenation reaction

c)

By hydrogenation reaction

d)

By dehydrogenation reaction

120.

How o-xylene is obtained from benzene (name the reaction)?

a)

By hydrogenation reaction

b)

By dehydrogenation reaction

c)

By oxidation reaction

d)

By alkylation reaction

121.

How benzene is obtained from cyclohexane (name the reaction)?

a)

By alkylation reaction

b)

By halogenation reaction

c)

By trimerization reaction

d)

By dehydrogenation reaction

122.

Name the following compound:

a)

Benzoquinone

b)

Benzene

c)

Cyclohexane

123.

Name the following compound:

a)

Toluene

b)

Naphthaquinone

c)

Benzene

124.

What is initial reagent in following reaction?

a)

Naphthalene

b)

Toluene

c)

Benzene

125.

сWhat is the initial reagent in the following reaction?

a)

O-xylene

b)

P-xylene

c)

Benzene

126.

What is produced by following reaction?

a)

Phthalic anhydride

b)

Maleic anhydride

c)

romellitic dianhydride

d)

Acetophenone

127.

What products are obtained by following reaction?

a)

Phthalic anhydride and water

b)

Methyl phenyl carbonyl and water

c)

Acetophenone and water

d)

Pyromellitic dianhydride and water

128.

Name the following reaction

хз какой праавильный

a)

Halogenation

b)

Alkylation

c)

Isomerization

d)

Hydrohalogenation

129.

дячвмь

a)

Nitration

b)

Alkylation

c)

Isomerization

d)

Hydrohalogenation

130.
a)

Isomerization

b)

Esterification

c)

Nitration

d)

Alkylation

131.

Cumene process

<a> Fischer-Tropch process

<a> Friedel-Craft’s process

<a> Alkylation process

a)

Cumene proces

b)

ischer-Tropch process

c)

iedel-Craft’s process

d)

lkylation process

132.
a)

Isomerization

b)

Alkylation

c)

Esterification

d)

Nitration

133.
a)

Hydroxiphenone

b)

Phenol

c)

Benzoic acid

d)

Salicylic acid

134.

When was the reaction of hydroformylation (oxosynthesis) discovered?

a)

1938

b)

1945

c)

1952

d)

1960

135.

What is false from the following states?

a)

he reaction rate is proportional to the olefin concentration

b)

The hydroformylation reaction releases the energy

c)

The hydroformylation reaction is endothermic

136.
a)

<a> Carbon monoxide

b)

Sulfur

c)

Ammonia

137.

In reactors with internal heat removal, how are the reaction components introduced into the reaction zone?

a)

AllAll reaction components are introduced from below.

b)

Only reaction products are introduced from below.

c)

Only cold feedstock is introduced from below.

138.

What is a disadvantage of reactors with internal heat removal?

a)

They are complex to design and manufacture

b)

They increase yield of by-products.

c)

They cannot be used for exothermic reactions.

139.

What type of coolant is typically used in reactors with external heat exchangers for hydroformylation?

a)

Reaction product

b)

Mineral oil

c)

Air

d)

Demineralized water

140.

What ordinary material is used for reactors made in hydroformylation?

a)

carbon steel

b)

nickel steel

c)

zinc alloy

141.

It is obtained by polymerizing ethylene at high temperatures (up to 300°C) and pressures up to 250 MPa in the presence of radical initiators

a)

low-pressure polyethylene

b)

high-pressure polyethylene

c)

low-pressure polypropylene

142.

Name the equipment 6 in following scheme

a)

Desorber

b)

Absorber

c)

Settler

143.

How is the heat of the oxidative cracking reactor supplied in the following scheme?

a)

By gas from the gas separator 14

b)

By recycling compounds from separator 8’

c)

> By air which is pumped by the compressor 13 through the nozzles to the lower part of the reactor

144.

какой катализатор используется в данном процессе

a)

50% solution of sulfuric acid in acetone

b)

50% solution of boric acid in acetone

60% solution of sulfuric acid in acetone

c)

50% solution of sulfuric acid in butanone

145.

Name the equipment 7 in following scheme

a)

decomposition reactor

b)

concentration column

c)

fortification column

d)

alkali washing column

146.

At what temperature range the oxidation of the isopropylbenzene is carried out in the liquid phase in the presence of the initiator - hydroperoxide isopropylbenzene (HPIPB)?

a)

at a temperature of 120-135°C

b)

at a temperature of 115-135°C

c)

at a temperature of 110-130°C

d)

at a temperature of 115-135°C

147.

Name the equipment 8 in following scheme

a)

receiving tank

b)

rectification column for commercial phthalic anhydride isolation

c)

rectification column for light by-products isolation

d)

phthalic anhydride preliminary purification column

148.

What type of oxidation process is the liquid-phase oxidation of hydroperoxide production?

a)

rectification

b)

destructive oxidation

c)

оxidative condensation

d)

non-destructive oxidation

149.

Name the equipment 9 in following scheme

a)

Washing column of extract and raffinate

b)

<a> Extractive rectification column

c)

TEG purification column

150.

Name the equipment 5 in following scheme

a)

Washing column of extract and raffinate

b)

Extractive rectification column

c)

Single-entry evaporation section

151.

This process is based on the selective dissolution of components of the mixture (aromatic) in a solvent with limited solubility or absence of it

a)

Primary dehydration

b)

Azeotropic rectification

c)

Selective extraction

d)

Extractive rectification

152.

12. What temperature is required to complete the reaction: CH3OH + 0.5O2 → HCHO + H2O?

a)

600°C

b)

500°C

c)

400°C

d)

700°C

153.

  1. Name the equipment 8 in following scheme

a)

  1. phthalic anhydride preliminary purification column

b)

  1. rectification column for light by-products isolation

c)

rectification column for commercial phthalic anhydride isolation

154.

What particularly often used catalyst in gas-phase oxidation which produces anhydrides?

a)

vanadium-potassium sulfate-silica gel catalyst

b)

cobalt-nickel silicate catalys

c)

cobalt ctarbonyl catalyst

d)

palladium chloride catalyst

155.

Name the equipment 5 in following scheme

ne

a)

Washing column of extract and raffinate

b)

Extractive rectification column

c)

Single-entry evaporation section

d)

Transmitting column of volatile benzene

156.

Process of separation of components with close boiling points using the third component, which dissolves one of the components well

a)

Primary dehydration

b)

Selective extraction

c)

Extractive rectification

d)

Azeotropic rectification

157.

Name the equipment 10 in following scheme:

a)

contact apparatus of selective hydrogenation

b)

low-boiling products distillation column

c)

primary rectification column

d)

acetone extraction column

158.

Name the equipment 10 in following scheme:

a)

contact apparatus of selective hydrogenation

b)

low-boiling products distillation column

c)

primary rectification column

159.

<q> Name the equipment 2 in following scheme:

a)

stripping column

b)

regenerator

c)

alkali scrubber

d)

reactor

160.

rName the equipment 5 in following scheme:

a)

rectification column

b)

hydrogenation block

c)

dehydrator

d)

oxidation reactor

161.

Name the equipment 8 in following scheme

a)

rectification column

b)

dehydrator

c)

oxidation reactor

d)

epoxidation reactor

162.

What by-products are formed in propylene oxide production?

a)

propylene oxide and methyl ethyl carbonyl

b)

ethylbenzene hydroperoxide

c)

ethylbenzene and styrene

d)

acetophenone and methyl phenyl carbonyl

163.

What methods from the list below are not related to propylene oxide production?

a)

the epoxidation method of propylene over acids or H2O2

b)

electrochemical method

c)

hydrofluoride method

d)

oxidation of propylene with molecular oxygen

164.

Name the equipment 7 in following scheme:

a)

condenser

b)

rectification column

c)

main contact reactor

d)

main contact absorber

165.

How ethylene is purified from the acetylene in ethylene oxide production?

a)

by selective hydrogenation or by copper oxide with precipitation of copper acetylides

b)

it is saponified in saponifiers

c)

it is hydrolysed with water by decomposition reaction

d)

it is washed with alkali, water, passed through an adsorber with activated carbon

166.

What is mostly used as the oxidizing agent in oxidation process?

a)

oxygen and air

b)

nitrogen and air

c)

hydrogen and air

d)

sulfur and air

167.

What is the optimal range of temperature for ethylene oxide production process?

a)

200-300°C

b)

100-200°C

c)

300-400°C

d)

250-350°C

168.

What catalyst is used in the process of oxidation of ethylene to ethylene oxide?

a)

silver

b)

cobalt

c)

palladium

d)

arsenium

169.

What process is carried out in the equipment 16?

a)

regeneration of boric acid

b)

hydrolysis of borate esters

c)

oxidation of liquid paraffins in the presence of H3BO3

d)

saponification and distillation of secondary alcohols

170.

Name the stage where borate ester is formed in following technological scheme:<+a> oxidation of liquid

a)

paraffins in the presence of H3BO3

b)

hydrolysis of borate esters

c)

saponification and distillation of secondary alcohols

d)

regeneration of bc acidori

171.

What method from below is not used for production of gigher fatty alcohols?

a)

separation from the second unsaponifiable production of SFA;

b)

hydrogenation of SFA and their methyl and butyl ethers;

c)

hydrogenation of whale oil;

d)

direct oxidation of saturated hydrocarbons C1-C2 with molecular oxygen

172.

What methods are used to produce a lot of low-molecular acids?

a)

liquid-phase oxidation of acetaldehyde;

b)

liquid-phase oxidation of n-butane and n-paraffins C5-C8;

c)

all answers are correct

d)

liquid-phase carbonylation of methanol

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