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CPS SS2 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

​ (a)   is defined as the product of an object’s ​ (b)   and its ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
acceleration
weight
velocity
mass
displacement
Force
2.

The __________________________________________ states that the total momentum of a system remains constant unless acted upon by an external force.

a)

law of conservation of momentum

b)

law of universal gravitation

c)

law of inertia

d)

law of acceleration

3.

______________________________________________________________ is a fundamental concept in physics that describes the motion of objects. Momentum is conserved in a closed system, meaning it remains constant unless acted upon by an external force. It plays a crucial role in collisions and is a key concept in understanding the behavior of moving objects.

a)

Momentum

b)

Friction

c)

Energy

d)

Gravity

4.

Impulse: The __________________________ of an object or the force times the time

a)

change in momentum

b)

velocity

c)

mass

d)

acceleration

5.

Collisions: ______________ between objects resulting in a change in momentum.

a)

interactions

b)

separations

c)

vibrations

d)

reflections

6.

Conservation of Momentum: Total momentum, ​ (a)  

​ a collision is the same as ​ (b)   a collision.

Choose from the below words
during
increases
decreases
before
after
7.

Conservation of Momentum is a fundamental principle in physics. It states that the total momentum of a system remains constant before and after a collision. This concept is crucial in understanding the behavior of objects during collisions. ____________ and ____________ are related concepts, but Momentum is not the correct answer. What is the correct pair?

a)

Mass

b)

Energy

c)

Impulse

d)

Force

8.

Momentum is a _________________ that depends on an object's mass and velocity.

a)

vector quantity

b)

scalar quantity

c)

chemical property

d)

wave property

9.

Conservation of momentum states that the ________ momentum of a system remains __________ before and after a collision.

a)

total, constant

b)

net, increasing

c)

kinetic, decreasing

d)

angular, variable

10.

In an isolated system, the ______________________________ is equal to the ________ momentum.

a)

total momentum after collision, initial

b)

total energy after collision, final

c)

kinetic energy after collision, initial

d)

total momentum before collision, final

11.

Elastic Collisions: Collisions where _________________ is conserved.

a)

kinetic energy

b)

momentum only

c)

mass only

d)

velocity

12.

Inelastic Collisions: Collisions where _________________ is not conserved.

a)

kinetic energy

b)

momentum

c)

mass

d)

velocity

13.

Impulse: Change in momentum caused by a _______.

a)

force

b)

distance

c)

temperature

d)

speed

14.
Which of the following images has more momentum?
a)
Object A
b)
Object B 
c)
They are the same
15.

What is the formula for momentum?

a)

p=mvp = mv

b)

F=maF = ma

c)

KE=12mv2KE = \frac{1}{2}mv^2

d)

W=FdW = Fd

16.

Which law is represented by the equation F=maF = ma ?

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

Law of Universal Gravitation

17.

Which of the following is NOT a part of a wave?

a)

Crest

b)

Trough

c)

Nucleus

d)

Wavelength

18.

Which of the following is evidence that the universe is expanding?

a)

Blue shift of galaxies

b)

Red shift of galaxies

c)

Increase in Earth's gravity

d)

Decrease in star temperature

19.

Which type of electromagnetic wave has the shortest wavelength?

a)

Radio waves

b)

Gamma rays

c)

Infrared waves

d)

Microwaves

20.

What does the HR diagram primarily classify?

a)

Planets by size

b)

Stars by luminosity and temperature

c)

Galaxies by shape

d)

Moons by orbit

21.

If a 2 kg object moves at 3 m/s, what is its momentum?

a)

5 kg·m/s

b)

6 kg·m/s

c)

1.5 kg·m/s

d)

9 kg·m/s

22.

A force of 10 N is applied to a 2 kg object. What is its acceleration?

a)

5 m/s 2^2

b)

20 m/s 2^2

c)

0.2 m/s 2^2

d)

12 m/s 2^2

23.

Which part of a wave is the highest point?

a)

Trough

b)

Crest

c)

Wavelength

d)

Amplitude

24.

If the energy in a system decreases, what could be a possible reason?

a)

Work is done on the system

b)

Energy is lost as heat

c)

The system gains mass

d)

The system moves faster

25.

Which of the following best describes how gravity affects space?

a)

It causes objects to lose mass

b)

It bends or curves space

c)

It increases the speed of light

d)

It changes the color of stars

26.

A wave has a frequency of 10 Hz and a wavelength of 2 m. What is its speed?

a)

5 m/s

b)

10 m/s

c)

20 m/s

d)

0.2 m/s

27.

A star is plotted on the HR diagram as being very hot and very luminous. What type of star is it most likely to be?

a)

White dwarf

b)

Main sequence

c)

Red giant

d)

Blue supergiant

28.

A scientist observes that light from distant galaxies is shifted toward the red end of the spectrum. What does this observation suggest about the motion of these galaxies and the universe as a whole?

a)

The galaxies are moving toward us; the universe is contracting.

b)

The galaxies are stationary; the universe is static.

c)

The galaxies are moving away from us; the universe is expanding.

d)

The galaxies are moving in random directions; the universe is chaotic.

29.

Two students are each holding a negatively charged balloon. The students firmly hold the balloons so that the balloons are close to each other but not touching. The students then release the balloons at the same time. Which statement BEST predicts how the balloons would move once they are released?

a)

The electrical force on the balloons will cause them to accelerate away from each other, increasing the distance between the balloons.

b)

The electrical force on the balloons will cause them to accelerate toward each other, increasing the distance between the balloons.

c)

The electrical force on the balloons will cause them to accelerate away from each other, decreasing the distance between the balloons.

d)

The electrical force on the balloons will cause them to accelerate toward each other, decreasing the distance between the balloons.

30.

A student makes a model to show how charges react to each other using two balloons. Balloon A and Balloon C have a negative charge. Describe the charge on Balloons B and D.

a)

Balloons B and D both have a positive charge.

b)

Balloons B and D both have a negative charge.

c)

Balloon B has a negative charge and Balloon D has a positive charge.

d)

Balloon B has a positive charge and Balloon D has a negative charge.

31.

An athlete lifts two different exercise balls, a yoga ball and a medicine ball. The picture shows the yoga ball and the medicine ball. The medicine ball requires more force for the athlete to lift. Which claim is BEST supported by this data?

a)

The ball with the smaller volume has the weakest gravitational attraction with Earth.

b)

The ball with the larger volume has the strongest gravitational attraction with Earth.

c)

The ball with the larger mass has the greatest gravitational attraction with Earth.

d)

The ball with the smaller mass has the greatest gravitational attraction with Earth.

32.

Which statement BEST describes this difference in weight on Earth and the Moon?

a)

The Moon has a greater mass than Earth.

b)

The Moon is larger than Earth.

c)

Earth is larger than the Moon.

d)

Earth has a greater mass than the Moon.

33.

What is the difference between mass and weight?

a)

Mass refers to the amount of matter in an object, while weight is a measure of how much gravity is pulling on an object.

b)

Mass and weight are the same and can be used interchangeably.

c)

Weight is the amount of matter in an object, while mass is the force of gravity on it.

d)

Mass changes depending on location, but weight always stays the same.

34.

On Earth, a bowling ball with a mass of 5 kilograms is dropped from a height of 10 meters. The ball hits the ground in 1.43 seconds. Which statement BEST describes the gravitational force between the ground and the ball?

a)

The ball exerts a force on the ground.

b)

The ground exerts a force on the ball.

c)

The ground and the ball repel each other with equal force.

d)

The ball and the ground attract each other with equal force.

35.

When an object on Earth is thrown high into the air, it always returns to Earth's surface. Which statement is BEST supported by this phenomenon?

a)

The gravitational force depends on the direction in which the object is thrown.

b)

The gravitational force depends on the force with which the object is thrown.

c)

Gravitational interactions between two objects are attractive.

d)

Gravitational interactions between two objects are repulsive.

36.

When an object on Earth is thrown high into the air, it always returns to Earth's surface. Which statement is BEST supported by this phenomenon?

a)

The gravitational force depends on the direction in which the object is thrown.

b)

The gravitational force depends on the force with which the object is thrown.

c)

Gravitational interactions between two objects are attractive.

d)

Gravitational interactions between two objects are repulsive.

37.

The data shown in the table represent net forces acting on four freely falling objects. Nash makes a claim that is supported by the data.

Use the drop-down menus to complete the claim.

The force of gravity causes freely falling objects to experience ​ (a)   acceleration. The data in the table support this claim because the ratio of ​ (b)   to ​ (c)   is ​ (d)   9.8 m/s².

Choose from the below words
constant
net force
mass
always
never
weight
varying
kilograms
38.

Nash adds mass to the cart so that it has a total mass of 1.5 kg. He pulls the cart along the track with a constant force of 1.2 N. He records this information along with the average velocity of the cart as it passes each of the photogates.

Use the data table to determine the BEST explanation of why the average velocity of the cart increases from the first photogate to the second photogate?

a)

A. The mass of the cart causes it to accelerate.

b)

B. The net force on the cart causes it to accelerate.

c)

C. The mass of the cart causes it to keep a constant speed.

d)

D. The net force on the cart causes it to keep a constant speed.

39.

Nash pulls the cart along the track with a near constant force. Which graph BEST represents the change in position over time?

a)

Graph A: Position vs. Time, curved up then down

b)

Graph B: Position vs. Time, horizontal line

c)

Graph C: Position vs. Time, upward curve

d)

Graph D: Position vs. Time, straight diagonal line

40.

Which TWO statements are supported by the velocity versus time graph?

a)

The acceleration of the cart is 0.3 m/s².

b)

The velocity of the cart is constant over time.

c)

The cart moves 0.3 meter in 2 seconds.

d)

The velocity of the cart is increasing over time.

e)

The cart moves in different directions over time.

41.

A sound wave leaves the loudspeaker. As it travels, it experiences a temporary increase in wavelength and then returns to its original wavelength. Which of the following scenarios could explain this change in wavelength? Select ALL that apply.

a)

The sound wave traveled through a helium balloon (helium is less dense than air).

b)

The sound wave traveled into the rocky ground.

c)

The sound wave traveled through a glass of water.

d)

The sound wave reflected off of a rock wall nearby.

e)

The sound wave traveled through a person walking along the shore.

42.

A single sound wave travels from the loudspeaker through three different media: Medium A, Medium B, and Medium C. The table below contains both given and missing values for the wave’s speed, frequency, and wavelength in each medium. Fill in the missing values in the data table.

43.

These waves in the diagram are seismic S-waves. In an earthquake, waves like ​ (a)   would likely cause the most damage. The ​ (b)   of the waves is the best measure of the strength of an earthquake.

Choose from the below words

Frequency

D
amplitude
magnitude
A
B
C
44.

Impact of Gravitational Forces

Earth's solar system was formed 4.5 billion years ago from a dense cloud of interstellar gas and dust known as a solar nebula. At the center, gravity pulled more and more matter in. It is gravity that continued to collapse the matter and is responsible for the formation of the Sun, moons, planets, their orbits, and other objects in the solar system. The most widely accepted theory of the origin of the Moon proposes that a Mars-sized body collided with Earth, ejecting large volumes of debris into Earth’s orbit. The debris then collected together to form the Moon. Which statement BEST explains how gravitational force could have caused the debris to form the Moon?

a)

The debris was pulled together by the attractive gravitational force of the debris itself.

b)

The debris was pulled together by the attractive gravitational force of the closest planet, Earth.

c)

The debris was pulled away from Earth by Mars, causing the debris to collect between Earth and Mars.

d)

The debris was pulled away from Earth by the Sun, causing the debris to collect between Earth and the Sun.

45.

Earth's solar system was formed 4.5 billion years ago from a dense cloud of interstellar gas and dust known as a solar nebula. What force was responsible for the formation of the Sun, moons, planets, their orbits, and other objects in the solar system?

a)

Gravity

b)

Magnetism

c)

Friction

d)

Electricity

46.

Which of the following statements describe the effects of gravity on the atmosphere? Select ALL that apply.

a)

Gas particles with more mass have a weaker gravitational attraction to Earth.

b)

Gas particles that have less mass are pulled closer to Earth.

c)

Gas particles with less mass have a weaker gravitational attraction to Earth.

d)

Gas particles that have more mass are pulled closer to Earth.

e)

Gas particles that are closer to Earth are most likely to escape the atmosphere.

47.

Choose the correct statement that describes how the distances between particles and their orbiting planet affect whether planetary moons or rings form.

a)

If the particles are close to the planet, they are more likely to form rings. If the particles are farther from the planet, they are more likely to form moons.

b)

If the particles are close to the planet, they are more likely to form moons. If the particles are farther from the planet, they are more likely to form rings.

c)

The distance between particles and the planet does not affect whether rings or moons form.

d)

Particles always form moons regardless of their distance from the planet.

48.

When particles are closer to a planet, the gravitational force between the small particles and the planet is strongest. Because of this, the particles do not pull themselves together. When the particles are farther away from a planet, the gravitational force between the small particles is strongest. Because of this, the particles can pull themselves together.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Match the causes to their correct effects.

Gravitational attraction between individual particles -​ ​ ​ (a)  

Gravitational attraction between the Sun and the planets in our solar system- ​ (b)  

Gravitational attraction between Moon and Earth- ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
Formation of moons, planets, stars
Planets orbit the Sun
Earth experiences tidal bulges
Formation of rings around planets
Formation of meteorites
Formation of comets
50.

The Big Bang Theory is a scientific explanation for the origin of what?

a)

The universe

b)

The solar system

c)

The Milky Way galaxy

d)

The sun

51.

According to the Big Bang theory, which element(s) were formed when the Big Bang occurred?

a)

only carbon

b)

only hydrogen and helium

c)

all elements lighter than iron

d)

all elements lighter than carbon

52.

Ben learns that a type of radiation called cosmic microwave background (CMB) provides evidence that supports the Big Bang theory. Which statement BEST explains why CMB is evidence that supports the Big Bang theory?

a)

The temperature of CMB is slowly increasing over time.

b)

CMB fills the universe and can be detected in every direction.

c)

The frequency of CMB is slowly increasing over time.

d)

CMB is constantly being emitted by stars throughout the universe.

53.

Ben learns that scientists use a visible light spectrum to determine the composition of the Sun and distant stars. The diagram shown below represents a visible light spectrum from the Sun. Which statement BEST explains why scientists can use a visible light spectrum from the Sun and other stars to identify composition?

a)

The atomic absorption lines undergo red or blue shift depending on the composition of the star.

b)

The atoms of elements in a star's atmosphere absorb specific wavelengths of light that appear as dark lines.

c)

The atoms of elements in a star's atmosphere emit light at specific wavelengths that appear as dark lines.

d)

The atomic emission lines undergo red or blue shift depending on the composition of the star.

54.

Match the term with an example:

a)
Speed
1.

45 m/s

b)
Velocity
2.

15 km/h South

c)
Acceleration
3.

7.5 m/s2

d)

Displacement

4.

-10 meters

e)

Distance

5.

25 miles

55.

An mariachi band is playing on a float in a parade. When the float is moving away from you, the ​ (a)   of the music sounds ​ (b)   because of the​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
volume
lower
doppler effect
frequency
wavelength
compression
higher
56.

Match the Newton's Law to the correct definition or example

a)

Newton's 1st Law

1.

The law of inertia

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

2.

The law of mass and acceleration

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

3.

The law of action reaction

57.

Click the dot that has the greatest kinetic energy.

58.

The amount of matter of an object is it's ​ (a)   , while ​ (b)   is the force of gravity acting on that mass. An astronaut will have ​ (c)   Mass on Jupiter, and experience​ (d)   ​ Weight

Choose from the below words
Mass
Weight
The Same
Greater
Less
59.

What law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction?

a)

Newton's First Law of Motion

b)

Newton's Second Law of Motion

c)

Newton's Third Law of Motion

d)

All of the above

60.

The amount of matter in an object

a)

mass

b)

atom

c)

proton

d)

weight

61.

The amount of space an object takes up.

a)

weight

b)

volume

c)

color

d)

location

62.
The place where a planet is closest to the Sun as it orbits the Sun is called the
a)
perihelion
b)
aphelion
63.
The place where a planet is farthest away from the Sun in its orbit around the Sun is called the
a)
aphelion
b)
perihelion
64.
The theory that explains the formation of the solar system is called ____.
a)
Nebulis Theory
b)
Nebular Theory
c)
Big Bang Theory
d)
Big Nebulan Theory
65.

Which term describes the composition of the outer planets?

a)

rocky

b)

solid

c)

water

d)

gaseous

66.

Why do the outer planets have longer years than the inner planets?

a)

The outer planets rotate faster than the inner planets.

b)

The outer planets are farther from the sun.

c)

The inner planets are denser and rotate slower.

d)

Outer planets are made of gas.

67.

As galaxies move away from our galaxy

a shift on the electromagnetic spectrum

(EMS) is noticed. This phenomena is

called _____________.

a)

redshift

b)

blueshift

c)

unshift

d)

blackshift

68.
Our theory of the universe was confirmed by the discovery of:
a)
fusion.
b)
cosmic microwave background radiation.
c)
the Andromeda galaxy.
d)
the Doppler effect.
69.
As part of the modern theory of the origins of the elements, it is hypothesized that before the formation of the stars, most of the matter in the universe consisted of what atoms?
a)
hydrogen and helium
b)
nitrogen and carbon
c)
silicon and lithium
d)
uranium and radium
70.

The universe's first visible light can now be observed as ___.

a)

starlight

b)

CMB (Cosmic Microwave Background)

c)

the doppler effect

d)

long as you have a telescope

71.
What does the Big Bang theory suggest?
a)
The universe was just there
b)
The Milky Way is the only solar system
c)
The universe is continually expanding
d)
The universe is collapsing in toward a single point
72.

Galaxies that are REDSHIFTED are:

a)

actually BLUE

b)

really NEAR earth

c)

invisible or not visible

d)

moving AWAY from us.

73.

The process of fusion happens in a star's

a)

Corona

b)

Convection Zone

c)

Radiative Zone

d)

Core

74.

What force creates the environment needed for nuclear fusion reactions to happen in stars?

a)

Star Wars Force

b)

Gravity

c)

Friction

d)

Normal Force

75.

Each element on the periodic table can be identified by its

a)

classification as a solid, liquid or gas.

b)

location on the table.

c)

ability to react to form compounds.

d)

unique spectral "fingerprint."

76.
All stars begin as a __________?
a)
giant
b)
black hole
c)
white dwarf
d)
nebula
77.

The mass and speed of three vehicles are shown below. Rank the vehicles by momentum from greatest to least.

a)

A > B > C

b)

B > A > C

c)

B > C > A

d)

C > B > A