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TBI Reading 3 TOEFL ITP

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What aspect of the

United States in the late

nineteenth and early

twentieth centuries

does the passage mainly

discuss?

a)

(A) Why young women

chose to move from

farms to cities

b)

(B) The number and types

of manufacturing jobs

created in cities

c)

(C) Changes in settlement

patterns between

farms and cities

d)

(D) The effects of

mechanization on

western migration

2.

The word “expansion” in

line 1 is closest in meaning

to

a)

(A) change

b)

(B) growth

c)

(C) population

d)

(D) labor

3.

The word “abandoned” in

line 3 is closest in meaning

to

a)

(A) left behind

b)

(B) sold

c)

(C) gave away

d)

(D) gradually reduced the

size of

4.

Why does the author

discuss “prosperity” in

line 4 ?

a)

(A) To indicate that more

than one factor

contributed to the

movement from rural

to urban settlement

b)

(B) To support the idea that

many families were

able to stop farming

and migrate to the

cities

c)

(C) To suggest that the

migration would have

happened despite the

economic situation

d)

(D) To argue against

economics as the

primary factor in

migration

5.

According to the first

paragraph, in the late

1800s, farmland was most

likely to be purchased by

a)

(A) city businessmen

seeking new

investments

b)

(B) successful landowners

who had mechanized

farms

c)

(C) young farm men

starting to work

d)

(D) people who had few

opportunities in cities

6.

The word “inevitably” in

line 12 is closest in

meaning to

a)

(A) unexpectedly

b)

(B) usually

c)

(C) unavoidably

d)

(D) possibly

7.

The phrase “this trend” in

line 14 refers to

a)

(A) industrial workers

becoming farmers

b)

(B) the economic

development of the

countryside

c)

(C) the loss of rural

population

d)

(D) innovations in

manufacturing

8.

According to the first

paragraph, which of the

following is true about the

population of the United

States after the 1880s?

a)

(A) Fewer people lived on

farms.

b)

(B) The central part of the

United States lost

much of its

population to rural

areas in the West.

c)

(C) Rural areas of the West

became more

populated than those

in the central part of

the country.

d)

(D) Work opportunities

in urban areas began

to decline.

9.

According to the second

paragraph, how did

migration among young

women in the rural West

differ from that of young

men?

a)

(A) Young women were

more likely to leave

rural areas to go to

urban areas.

b)

(B) Young women were

more likely to take

jobs on farms.

c)

(C) Young women who

migrated generally

had more education.

d)

(D) Young women

generally moved

more frequently from

one rural area to

another.

10.

The word “constricted”

in line 24 is closest in

meaning to

a)

(A) unappealing

b)

(B) reduced

c)

(C) low-paying

d)

(D) disappearing

11.

What does the passage

mainly discuss?

a)

(A) The similarities between

Earth’s inner core and

outer core

b)

(B) The structure and

temperature of Earth’s

interior

c)

(C) When seismic waves

were first used to

study Earth’s interior

d)

(D) Why Earth’s solid inner

core is surrounded by

a molten outer core

12.

The word “mere” in line 2 is

closest in meaning to

a)

(A) approximate

b)

(B) insignificant

c)

(C) measured

d)

(D) lengthy

13.

According to the

first paragraph, most

knowledge of Earth’s

interior has been gained by

studying

a)

(A) Earth’s gravitational

field

b)

(B) Earth’s magnetic field

c)

(C) vibrations caused by

earthquakes

d)

(D) material taken from

holes drilled into

Earth’s crust

14.

According to the second

paragraph, which of the

following statements

regarding Earth’s inner core

and outer core is true?

a)

(A) Neither the inner core

nor the outer core

can be studied using

seismic waves.

b)

(B) The outer core is more

solid than the inner

core.

c)

(C) The inner core and the

outer core have

greatly different

d)

(D) Both the inner core and

the outer core

probably contain iron.

15.

The word “thoroughly”

in line 15 is closest in

meaning to

a)

(A) basically

b)

(B) similarly

c)

(C) potentially

d)

(D) completely

16.

The word “it” in line 18

refers to

a)

(A) Earth

b)

(B) a cool crust

c)

(C) the molten ball of rock

d)

(D) the heat

17.

The word “functioned”

in line 18 is closest in

meaning to

a)

(A) acted

b)

(B) moved

c)

(C) appeared

d)

(D) grew

18.

The word “manufactured”

in line 20 is closest in

meaning to

a)

(A) changed

b)

(B) combined

c)

(C) utilized

d)

(D) made

19.

The third paragraph

mentions which of the

following as one cause

of the current high

temperature of Earth’s

interior?

a)

(A) The decay of

radioactive isotopes

b)

(B) The movement of

elements from Earth’s

crust to its interior

c)

(C) The vibrations that

result from

movement of Earth’s

crust

d)

(D) The injection of certain

organic elements into

Earth’s inner core

20.

Look at the terms

“seismic waves” (line 6),

“earthquakes” (line 6),

“magnetic field” (line 14),

and “stable elements”

(line 21). Which of these

terms is defined in the

passage?

a)

(A) seismic waves

b)

(B) earthquakes

c)

(C) magnetic field

d)

(D) stable elements

21.

According to the

passage, scientists do not

understand in detail how

a)

(A) the crust affects Earth’s

internal temperature

b)

(B) radioactive isotopes

cause heat

c)

(C) Earth’s magnetic field is

created

d)

(D) seismic waves originate

22.

The passage mainly

discusses the

a)

(A) difference between

amber and mineral

fossils

b)

(B) places where amber can

be found

c)

(C) various characteristics of

amber

d)

(D) types of trees that

produced amber

23.

Why does the author

mention dinosaur bones in

the first paragraph?

a)

(A) To emphasize the age of

fossils

b)

(B) To explain why there are

more mineral

replacement fossils

than organic fossils

c)

(C) To compare them with

amber as a different

type of fossil

d)

(D) To give an example of

an object in which

amber is commonly

found

24.

The word “intact” in line 8 is

closest in meaning to

a)

(A) beautiful

b)

(B) unusual

c)

(C) obvious

d)

(D) unchanged

25.

The word “trace” in line 11

is closest in meaning to

a)

(A) unknown

b)

(B) decreasing

c)

(C) very small

d)

(D) somewhat similar

26.

According to the second

paragraph, which of the

following is true about

deposits of amber?

a)

(A) There is a limited

number of large

deposits of amber in

the world.

b)

(B) Most deposits contain

large quantities of

amber specimens.

c)

(C) The major amber

deposits were formed

at approximately the

same time.

d)

(D) The deposits were

formed primarily by

tropical b

27.

The word “misconception”

in line 16 is closest in

meaning to

a)

(A) false belief

b)

(B) known fact

c)

(C) scientific theory

d)

(D) subject of debate

28.

The word “them” in line 18

refers to

a)

(A) deposits

b)

(B) pine trees

c)

(C) conifer trees

d)

(D) broad-leaved trees

29.

The word “Thus” in line 23 is

closest in meaning to

a)

(A) consequently

b)

(B) instead

c)

(C) moreover

d)

(D) initially

30.

The word “bury” in line 26 is

closest in meaning to

a)

(A) cover

b)

(B) color

c)

(C) fill

d)

(D) damage

31.

It can be inferred from the

passage that amber is most

commonly used

a)

(A) to determine the age of

other ancient

materials that are

found with it

b)

(B) as jewelry

c)

(C) to compare the

characteristics of

living trees to those of

ancient trees

d)

(D) to preserve fossil

impressions

32.

Which of the following is

NOT true of amber?

a)

(A) It is composed of an

organic material.

b)

(B) It is basically the same

as it was millions of

years ago.

c)

(C) It may contain the

remains of tiny

animals.

d)

(D) It is made by a process

of mineral

replacement.

33.

According to the passage,

why did the first people

who came to North

America leave their

homeland?

a)

(A) They were hoping to

find a better climate

b)

(B) They were seeking

freedom.

c)

(C) They were following

instructions given in a

dream.

d)

(D) They were looking for

food.

34.

The phrase “are easily

disposed” in line 12 is

closest in meaning to

a)

(A) demonstrate reluctance

b)

(B) readily encourage

others

c)

(C) have a tendency

d)

(D) often fail

35.

The word “Ultimately”

in line 15 is closest in

meaning to

a)

(A) frequently

b)

(B) normally

c)

(C) whenever possible

d)

(D) in the end

36.

The word “compelling”

in line 18 is closest in

meaning to

a)

(A) joyous

b)

(B) intricate

c)

(C) competing

d)

(D) forceful

37.

What is the main point of

the second paragraph?

a)

(A) Public performance is

essential to verbal art

b)

(B) Oral narratives are

a valid form of

literature.

c)

(C) Native Americans have

a strong oral tradition

in art.

d)

(D) The production

of literature provides

employment for

many artists.

38.

According to the passage,

what responsibility does

the audience of a verbal art

performance have?

a)

(A) They provide financial

support for

performances.

b)

(B) They judge the quality

of the content and

presentation.

c)

(C) They participate in the

performance by

chanting responses.

d)

(D) They determine the

length of the

performance by

requesting a

continuation.

39.

What can be inferred

about the nature of the

Native American literature

discussed in the passage?

a)

(A) It reflects historical and

contemporary life in

Asia.

b)

(B) Its main focus is on

daily activities.

c)

(C) It is based primarily on

scientific knowledge.

d)

(D) It is reshaped each time

it is experienced.

40.

Which of the following

is NOT true of the Native

American literature

discussed in the passage?

a)

(A) It involves acting.

b)

(B) It has ancient origins.

c)

(C) It has a set form.

d)

(D) It expresses an inner

vision

41.

What can be inferred from

the passage about the

difference between written

and oral literature?

a)

(A) Written literature

reflects social values

better than oral

literature does.

b)

(B) Written literature

involves less

interaction between

audience and creator

during the creative

process than oral

literature does.

c)

(C) Written literature usually

is not based on

historical events,

whereas oral literature

is.

d)

(D) Written literature is not

as highly respected as

oral literature is.

42.

What is the author’s

attitude toward Native

American literature?

a)

(A) Admiring of its form

b)

(B) Critical of the cost of its

production

c)

(C) Amused by its content

d)

(D) Skeptical about its

origins

43.

The passage mainly

discusses the

a)

(A) development of

synthetic colors

for textiles during the

nineteenth century

b)

(B) advantages of chemical

dyes over dyes

derived from plants

and animals

c)

(C) differences between

dyeing textiles and

printing them

d)

(D) history of the use of

natural and chemical

dyes to color textiles

44.

According to the passage,

what was the source of

most textile dyes that were

used before the nineteenth

century?

a)

(A) Animals

b)

(B) Minerals

c)

(C) Plants

d)

(D) Chemicals

45.

What was the advantage

of using madder plants for

different shades of red?

a)

(A) It was possible to

cultivate madder

plants in almost every

location.

b)

(B) Madder plants

produced brighter

colors than other

plant sources.

c)

(C) Plant sources produced

more lasting colors

than animal sources.

d)

(D) Dyes derived from the

madder plants were

easier to work with

than other dyes.

46.

The word “invariably” in

line 13 is closest in

meaning to

a)

(A) without exception

b)

(B) steadily

c)

(C) after some time

d)

(D) noticeably

47.

It can be inferred from the

passage that the green

areas in woven tapestries

developed a bluish tinge

because

a)

(A) a darker color, like blue,

dominates a light

color, like yellow

b)

(B) light changed some of

the green dye used in

the tapestries to blue

c)

(C) the yellow dye that was

used in the tapestries

had faded

d)

(D) the dyes used to color

woven tapestries were

made from minerals

48.

The word “superseded”

in line 15 is closest in

meaning to

a)

(A) strengthened

b)

(B) improved

c)

(C) replaced

d)

(D) complemented

49.

According to the passage,

how did chemical dyes

compare to natural dyes?

a)

(A) The chemical dyes had

less attractive colors.

b)

(B) The chemical dyes were

less easy to use.

c)

(C) The chemical dyes

lost their brightness

more quickly when

exposed to light.

d)

(D) The chemical dyes

held up better after

washing.

50.

According to the passage,

what problem led to the

development of new dyes

after 1900 ?

a)

(A) Previously developed

dyes did not work on

new types of fibers.

b)

(B) Dyes derived from

petroleum caused

damage to new

synthetic fibers.

c)

(C) New synthetic fibers

required brighter

colors than natural

fibers did.

d)

(D) New fabrics easily lost

their colors when

washed.