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TSAC-F Exercise Science

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following vascular adaptations occurs in response to regular aerobic endurance training and is primarily associated with improved endothelial function? P21

a)

Enhanced nitric oxide release to promote vasodilation

b)
Reduced capillary density
c)
Increased blood viscosity
d)
Decreased blood flow to muscles
2.

While coaching your client through Romanian deadlifts, you remind them to feel the stretch in the back of their thighs and explain that they’re working the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus muscles. These muscles are part of which major muscle group?

a)
Glutes
b)
Quadriceps
c)
Calves
d)
Hamstrings
3.

What is not a physiological mechanism responsible for regulating stroke volume?

a)

Oxygen uptake

b)
Vascular resistance changes
c)
Blood pressure regulation
d)
Heart rate increase
4.

Which of the following is not a way oxygen can be carried in blood?

a)

Oxygen carried on a triglyceride

b)
Oxygen carried as a gas in blood
c)
Oxygen bound to hemoglobin
d)
Oxygen dissolved in plasma
5.

How does the hormonal (endocrine) system support the body during and after exercise?

a)

The hormonal system regulates metabolism, cardiovascular function, and tissue remodeling

b)
The hormonal system decreases energy production during exercise.
c)
It only helps with muscle growth after exercise.
d)
The hormonal system has no effect on performance during exercise.
6.

When a person intends to increase their physical activity and thinks about it now and then, but still does not feel ready to become physically active, what process of the transtheoretical model is this describing?

a)
Action
b)
Maintenance
c)
Preparation
d)
Contemplation
7.

During a rotational medicine ball throw, what plane is the torso moving through?

a)
Frontal plane
b)
Transverse plane
c)
Vertical plane
d)
Sagittal plane
8.

What is the primary function of arteries in the cardiovascular system?

a)
To filter waste products from the blood before it reaches the heart.
b)
To transport deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart.
c)
To regulate blood pressure and flow in the veins.
d)

To carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body’s tissues

9.

In the context of tactical strength and conditioning, understanding the force-velocity relationship is critical for selecting the right type of training. According to the force-velocity curve, which of the following best describes the relationship between force and velocity during muscular contractions?

a)
Force and velocity are directly proportional.
b)
As force increases, velocity decreases.
c)
As velocity increases, force decreases.
d)
There is no relationship between force and velocity.
10.

The biceps brachii, an elbow flexor, also contributes to what movement at the shoulder joint?

a)
Shoulder abduction
b)
Shoulder flexion
c)
Shoulder rotation
d)
Shoulder extension
11.

When an untrained individual and a trained individual perform the same submaximal exercise, how do their hormonal responses typically differ?

a)
Untrained individuals exhibit a more efficient hormonal response than trained individuals.
b)
Both trained and untrained individuals show identical hormonal responses during submaximal exercise.
c)
Trained individuals have higher stress hormones and lower anabolic hormones than untrained individuals.
d)

The trained individual shows a lower release of cortisol and catecholamines

12.

The conversion of ADP + Pi to ATP is known as what?

a)
Dephosphorylation
b)
Hydrolysis
c)
Oxidation
d)
Phosphorylation
13.

When a change in tension is sensed at the musculotendinous junction, what activates in the tendon?

a)
Muscle spindles
b)
Nerve endings
c)
Golgi tendon organs (GTOs)
d)
Joint receptors
14.

Funneling lactate into the blood to be transported to the liver, where it is converted to glucose, is know as what?

a)

Cori Cycle

b)
Krebs Cycle
c)
Fermentation
d)
Glycolysis
15.

Which part of the heart’s conduction system is responsible for initiating electrical impulses that set the pace for the heartbeat?

a)
Sinoatrial (SA) node
b)
Purkinje fibers
c)
Bundle of His
d)
Atrioventricular (AV) node
16.

A tactical athlete performs a single max-effort sled push lasting just a few seconds. Which energy system is primarily responsible for supplying energy during this type of short-duration, high-intensity activity lasting around six seconds or less?

a)
Phosphagen system
b)
Aerobic system
c)
Lactic acid system
d)
Glycolytic system
17.

Why does stroke volume (SV) increase more significantly during aerobic endurance training compared to resistance training?

a)

Stroke volume increases during Aerobic exercise which, greatly enhances venous return, increasing preload

b)
Resistance training leads to higher stroke volume than aerobic training.
c)
Stroke volume decreases during aerobic training due to fatigue.
d)
Stroke volume is unaffected by the type of training performed.
18.

Which anatomical plane figuratively divides the body into right and left halves?

a)
Coronal plane
b)
Sagittal plane
c)
Transverse plane
d)
Frontal plane
19.

You’re coaching a client through a heavy squat, and you notice they’re holding their breath and bracing their core using the Valsalva maneuver. Which of the following immediate blood pressure responses is most likely to happen during this technique?

a)

Increase in systolic blood pressure (SBP), increase in diastolic blood pressure (DBP)

b)

Increase in systolic blood pressure (SBP), no change in diastolic blood pressure (DBP)

c)

Decrease in systolic blood pressure (SBP), increase in diastolic blood pressure (DBP)

20.

When a joint is located near one end of the body segment (e.g., the arm), with the muscle force exerted farther away from the joint than the weight or resistance, this is referred to as which of the following?

a)

Second Class level

b)

First Class Level

c)

Third Class Lever

d)

Fourth Class Lever

21.

Performing a biceps curl exercise is an illustration of what type of lever?

a)

Second Class level

b)

First Class Level

c)

Third Class Lever

d)

Fourth Class Lever

22.

While helping your client understand how the body produces movement, you use a calf raise as an example of a lever system. You explain that in this movement, the ball of the foot acts as the fulcrum, the calf muscles provide the effort, and the body weight is the resistance. What class of lever does this represent?

a)

Second Class level

b)

First Class Level

c)

Third Class Lever

d)

Fourth Class Lever

23.

Which of the following is not a type of hormone?

a)
Vitamin
b)

Steroid

c)

Monopeptide

d)

Polypeptide

24.

A firefighter enters a burning building and suddenly hears a loud explosion, triggering an immediate fight-or-flight response. Which body system is primarily responsible for starting this reaction?

a)
Parasympathetic nervous system
b)
Endocrine system
c)

Cardiovascular system

d)

Nervous system

25.

When the intensification of a training stimulus continues without adequate recovery and regeneration, this is known as which of the following?

a)

Overreaching

b)

Nonfunctional Overreach

c)
Overtraining syndrome
d)

Functional Overtraining

26.

Which part of the conduction system of the heart is responsible for delaying the electrical signal before the signal is transmitted to the ventricles?

a)
Sinoatrial (SA) node
b)
Bundle of His
c)
Purkinje fibers
d)
Atrioventricular (AV) node
27.

Which of the following is responsible for initiating the stretch reflex?

a)
Sensory neurons
b)
Golgi tendon organs
c)
Joint receptors
d)
Muscle spindle fibers
28.

Which of the following terms refers to the rate of movement through a ROM that is controlled and not the resistance on the barbell or standard weight training machine?

a)

Variable Resistance

b)

Isotonic

c)

Isometric

d)

Isokinetic

29.

What does the term  oxygen uptake refer to?

a)
The term oxygen uptake refers to the amount of carbon dioxide produced by the body.
b)
The term oxygen uptake refers to the amount of oxygen consumed by the body during physical activity.
c)
Oxygen uptake is the process of breathing in oxygen from the environment.
d)
Oxygen uptake measures the speed of blood circulation during exercise.
30.

Which firefighter task involves movement in the transverse plane?

a)

Forcible entry using a sledgehammer

b)

Victim Drag

c)

Ladder Raise

d)

Equipment lift and carry

31.

The rectus femoris and sartorius are part of which muscle group?

a)

Hip Extension

b)

Hip Flexors

c)

Hip Adductors

d)

Knee Extensors

32.

If Josh is trying to improve his vertical jump, what resistance exercise should be implemented to enhance his ability?

a)
Deadlifts
b)

Back Squats

c)

Power Clean

d)

Box Jumps

33.

Which of the following hormones is considered a catabolic hormone?

a)
Cortisol
b)
Insulin
c)
Glucagon
d)
Thyroxine
34.

Richard is performing heavy back squats, and on his third and final repetition he leans forward more than on his other two reps. Where would there lie the greatest amount of torque while in a leaning-forward position?

a)

Lumbar Spine

b)

Thoracic Spine

c)

Cervical Spine

35.

Which of the following activities places the lowest demand on anaerobic glycolysis?

a)

Cross-country skiing

b)

Boxing

c)

Basketball

36.

A highly advanced tactical athlete is being evaluated by his trainer after several months of training. Most recently, he has been focusing on endurance training. Which of the following would decrease after consistent aerobic endurance training?

a)

Stroke Volume

b)

Resting heart rate

c)

Maximal heart rate

37.

Which of the following is not a mechanism that contributes to varying degrees of peripheral blood concentrations of hormones?

a)

Fluid volume shifts

b)

The blood sample retrieval site

c)

Tissue clearance rate

38.

Which of the following energy systems does an aerobic athlete least need to focus on optimizing during training?

a)

Phosphagen syatem

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

Cori cycle

39.

An athlete's program includes strength training, sprinting, plyometrics, and agility work. What type of activities are considered?

a)

Anaerobic training

b)

Glycolysis training

c)

Aerobic training

40.

During a biceps curl, what point throughout the range of motion would have the largest torque value?

a)

When the forearm is parallel to the ground

b)

When the weight is at its lowest position

c)

When the weight is at its highest position

41.

Which of the following muscles contributes to dorsiflexion in the ankle joint?

a)

Extensor digitorum longus

b)

Soleus

c)

Flexor hallucis longus

d)

Flexor digitorum longus

42.

According to anatomical structure differences, who should be able to lift more weight in a bicep curl?

a)

One whose tendons are inserted on the bone farther away from the center joint

b)

One whose tendons are inserted on the bone closer to the joint center

c)

One whose moment are is shorter

43.

Surface drag provides what type of resistive force?

a)

Fluid resistance

b)

Inertia resistance

c)

Friction resistance

44.

Which of the following is not considered anatomical dead space?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Bronchioles

c)

Trachea

45.

When determining a client's goals in the initial meet and greet, you start using the SMART acronym. What does the "A" in SMART stand for?

a)

Action-oriented

b)

Attention

c)

Acquired Mindset

d)

After action

46.

When training special populations, increasing their maximal aerobic power is essential. How do we normally refer to maximal aerobic power?

a)

Peak VO2

b)

VO2 Max

c)

Lactate threshold

d)

Pyruvate

47.

How do the remodeling cells within bone tissue respond to resistance training to add new bone?

a)

Osteoblast activity is equal to osteoclast activity

b)

Osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity

c)

Osteoblast activity has no relevance to osteoclast activity

d)

Osteoclast activity exceeds osteoblast activity

48.

What is the maximum recommended exposure time for firefighters working in an environment over 100 degrees Celsius (212 degrees F)?

a)

60 min

b)

25 min

c)

15 min

d)

No recommended time limit

49.

An athlete eats a small snack prior to an intense workout with his strength and conditioning coach. Which type of glycogen is most important for high-intensity activity?

a)
Blood glucose
b)
Muscle glycogen
c)
Fat stores
d)
Liver glycogen
50.

Which of the following is the smallest unit of skeletal muscle featuring an overlap of actin and myosin?

a)
muscle fiber
b)
tendon
c)
myofibril
d)
sarcomere
51.

During the eccentric movement of the biceps curl exercise, the triceps brachii acts as which type of mover?

a)
agonist mover
b)
stabilizer mover
c)
synergist mover
d)
antagonist mover
52.

Cortisol primarily signals metabolism for which macronutrient?

a)
vitamins
b)
carbohydrates
c)
fats
d)
proteins
53.

What is the name for the synapse between a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates?

a)
motor end plate
b)
axon terminal
c)
synaptic cleft
d)
neuromuscular junction
54.

What type of training device uses variable resistance to ensure that the rate of movement remains constant throughout a range of motion?

a)
Isometric training device
b)

Isotonic training device

c)

Eccentric training device

d)
Isokinetic training device
55.

What is not a benefit of BCAA supplementation for a tactical athlete?

a)

Decreased protein oxidation

b)

Improved recovery time

c)

Increased muscle building

d)

Decreased muscle breakdown

56.

During a pursuit of an armed suspect, a police officer experiences the activation of the fight-or-flight response. Which body system is primarily engaged at the onset of this reaction?

a)

Nervous

b)

Respiratory

c)

Cardiovascular

d)

Circulatory

57.

What type of cartilage can be found between the intervertebral disks?

a)
Fibrocartilage
b)
Elastic cartilage
c)
Hyaline cartilage
d)
Articular cartilage
58.

Which energy pathway provides ATP for high-intensity activity lasting 30-90 seconds?

a)

Beta-oxidation

b)

glycolysis

c)

Aerobic metabolism

d)

Phosphagen system

59.

Your skeletal muscle tissue has the characteristic of being able to stretch beyond its normal resting length. What is this referred to?

a)
Flexibility
b)
Contractility
c)
Elasticity
d)
Extensibility
60.

Which type of athlete would most likely have the highest mitochondrial density?

a)

Baseball player

b)

Sprinter

c)

Hockey player

d)

Marathon runner

61.

An action potential signals the release of which of the following in order to stimulate a muscle contraction?

a)

Actin

b)

Calcium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Myosin

62.

Which of the following is the end product of short-burst, high-intensity muscular activities?

a)

Triacylglcerol

b)

Lactate

c)

Glucose

d)

Acetyl-CoA

63.

The myocardium is part of what structure?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Shoulder muscle

c)

Heart muscle

64.

Various exercise training modalities can increase serum testosterone concentrations in boys and younger men. Which of the following training modalities does not do so?

a)

Two or more years of resistance training experience

b)

Large muscle group exercises

c)

Long rest intervals

65.

Metabolism is the total of what two reactions?

a)

Exergonic and endergonic

b)
Fermentation and Respiration
c)
Oxidation and Reduction
d)
Synthesis and Decomposition
66.

Which muscle does not contribute to creating an anterior tilt of the pelvis?

a)

Iliacus

b)

Rectus Femoris

c)

Gluteus Maximus

d)

Psoas major

67.

Which of the following is not considered a type of connective tissue of a muscle?

a)

Endomysium

b)

Perimysium

c)

Sarcomere

68.

Which of the following would decrease as a physiological adaptation to resistance training?

a)

Mitochondrial density

b)

Anaerobic power

c)

Muscle fiber size

69.

Every muscle has an origin and an insertion. What is a way of discerning between the two?

a)
Both origin and insertion are fixed attachments.
b)
The origin is the fixed attachment, and the insertion is the movable attachment.
c)
The origin is the movable attachment, and the insertion is the fixed attachment.
d)
The origin is located at the midpoint of the muscle, while the insertion is at the end.
70.

Which of the following is responsible for building bone tissue?

a)
Osteoblasts
b)
Fibroblasts
c)
Osteoclasts
d)
Chondrocytes
71.

Which of the following provides sensory feedback to the CNS so that it can elicit the proper amount of muscle contractile force to overcome the resistance placed upon the muscle?

a)
Muscle spindles
b)
Afferent neurons
c)
Joint receptors
d)
Golgi tendon organs
72.

Which of the following is not an adaptation to resistance training?

a)

Increased glycogen stores

b)

Increased rate of force production

c)

Increase in mitochondrial density

73.

An athlete continues to train despite feeling tired and not fueling his body properly. The trainer attempts to educate the athlete on the potential negative effects his actions may have on his body. 

Which of the following is most likely to occur?

a)

Anabolic effects may exceed catabolic effects

b)

Muscle cell deah

c)

Catabolic effects may exceed anabolic effects

74.

The lowering phase of a bench press would cause what kind of muscle action?

a)

Isometric

b)

Eccentric

c)

Concentric

d)

Isotonic

75.

Which structure is not considered a component instrumental in keeping the ball of the humerus in place in the shoulder joint?

a)

Rotator cuff muscles

b)

Deltoids

c)

Pectoralis minor

76.

When the blood glucose level is too low, the body releases what hormone to increase blood glucose levels?

a)

Glucagon

b)

insulin

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Calcium

77.

An athlete is instructed to imagine a past achievement as a method to increase motivation. Which of the following would best describe this type of motivation?

a)

Reward based motivation

b)

Visualization motivation

c)

Intrinsic motivation

d)

External motivation

78.

Gary is a 35-year-old looking to begin an aerobic exercise program, and his doctor tells him to begin his program at a lower intensity—around 55% of his maximal heart rate. His resting heart rate is 65 bpm. 

Using the Karvonen method, how can Gary estimate his age-predicted maximal heart rate (APMHR) and his target heart rate (THR)?

a)

220 minus his age

b)

220 minus resting heart

c)

220 x 0.55 + 65

79.

How much power (ft-lb/sec) does Taylor produce by performing deadlifts with 200 lbs for 10 repetitions in 40 seconds, where he moves the barbell 2 feet on each lift?

a)

400 ft-lb/sec

b)

100 ft-lb/sec

c)

200 ft-lb/sec

d)

300 ft-lb/sec

80.

What is the cause of peripheral fatigue that occurs during exercise?

a)

lactic acid

b)

Pyruvate

c)

Metabolic acidosis

81.

During aerobic exercise, what measure is increasing as intensity increases?

a)

Vasoconstriction

b)

Diastolic blood pressure

c)

Minute ventilation

82.

What is a potential hormone adaptation as a result of aerobic training?

a)

Increased sensitivity to hormones

b)

Decreased ability to meet metabolic demands of exercise

c)

Decreased sensitivity to hormones

83.

Which of the following is not true about cartilage?

a)

It makes up a large portion of the larynx

b)

It forms a connection between the ends of the ribs and the sternum

c)

It covers the ends of long bones

d)

It has its own blood vessels

84.

Which of the following athlete types would have the greatest amount of Type II muscle fibers?

a)

Cross-country skier

b)

Weightlifter

c)

Marathon runner

85.

An athlete recently sustained an injury to their shoulder after a fall. They were diagnosed with a complete tear to the teres major muscle. Which of the following actions would you expect the athlete to have difficulty performing?

a)

Shoulder flexion

b)

Shoulder abduction

c)

Shoulder extension

86.

The nerves that innervate skeletal muscle are called which of the following?

a)
Sensory neurons
b)
Interneurons
c)
Motor neurons
d)
Autonomic neurons
87.

During the eccentric phase of a jump, what is happening to the elastic energy?

a)

It is being released

b)

It is being stored in the series elastic component

c)

It is inhibiting muscle movement

88.

Which of the following types of muscle fibers has a high oxidative capacity, low contractile force, and small size?

a)
Type IIa muscle fibers
b)

Type IIx muscle fibers

c)

Type II fibers

d)
Type I muscle fibers
89.

A strength coach notices that an athlete is exhibiting unusual fatigue, mood changes, and an increase in illnesses. The coach assesses the athlete's exercise frequency, volume, or intensity of training, in order to screen for what condition?

a)

Overtraining syndrome

b)

Overuse injury

c)

Bone stress injury

90.

When a person is stretching, what do muscle spindles trigger in an attempt to stop further stretching?

a)

Reciprocal inhibition

b)

Mechanoreceptor reflex

c)

Stretch reflex

91.

Which of the following enzyme activities is incorrect when it comes to physiological adaptations to aerobic endurance training? 

a)

Sodium-Potassium ATPase: May slightly increase

b)

Phosphofructokinase: Variable

c)

Creatine phosphokinase: Increases

d)

Myokinase: Decreases

92.

What must pyruvate be converted to when entering the mitochondria and heading to the Krebs cycle?

a)

Lacate

b)

Acetyl-CoA

c)

H+

93.

If Jared performs a set of 10 repetitions of the push press, pressing the bar up a distance of 2 feet with a bar weighing 50 pounds, what is his positive mechanical work for that set?

a)

500 ft pounds

b)

1000 ft pounds

c)

200 ft pounds

d)

750 ft pounds

94.

The ilioocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis are part of which of the following muscle groups?

a)

Abdominal

b)

Deltoids

c)

Erector spinae

d)

Latissimus dorsi

95.

Which of the following is an example of a flat bone?

a)

The fibula

b)

The bones of the skull

c)

The patella

96.

What is another name for spongy bone tissue found at the ends of long bones?

a)

Lamellae

b)

Cortical

c)

Cancellous

d)

Epiphyses

97.

Which of these is not a knee flexor?

a)

Bicep femoris

b)

Semitendinosus

c)

Sartorius

d)

Semimembranosus

98.

What is known as an act, object, or event that decreases the likelihood of future operant behavior when the punishment follows that behavior?

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Punishment

c)

Target Behavior

99.

How much ATP is generated from 1 molecule of glucose during aerobic metabolism?

a)

20

b)

2

c)

4

d)

36

100.

During what type of muscle action is strength greatest?

a)

Isometric

b)

Eccentric

c)

Concentric

d)

Isotonic

101.

Where are platelets, red blood cells, and most white blood cells made?

a)

In the liver

b)

In the blood

c)

In the bone marrow

d)

In the endocrine glannds

102.

Within the first few weeks of training, what is most responsible for strength improvements?

a)

Muscle hypertrophy

b)

Pennation of the muscle fibers

c)

Neural factors

103.

Where does internal respiration occur?

a)

Internal respiration occurs between the systemic capillaries and the cells of the body (such as muscle cells)

b)

Internal respiration occurs in the lower respiratory system

c)

Internal respiration occurs in the upper respiratory system

d)

Internal respiration occurs between the alveoli in the lungs and the pulmonary capillaries

104.

Which structural firefighter task primarily uses the ATP/CP system?

a)

Ladder raise

b)

Victim Drag

c)

Hose Operation

d)

Stair Climb

105.

Which of the following is an agonist in leg extension?

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Gluteals

c)

Quadriceps

d)

Deltoids

106.

What are the regulatory proteins in myofilaments that play a role in the sliding filament mechanism?

a)
Troponin and tropomyosin
b)
Actin and myosin
c)
Calmodulin and calsequestrin
d)
Keratin and collagen
107.

What physiological adaptation might we see after consistent blood doping?

a)
Increased red blood cell count.
b)
Lower blood pressure.
c)
Decreased heart rate.
d)
Increased muscle mass.
108.

Which of the following is the pressure in the arteries following contraction of the heart?

a)
Mean arterial pressure
b)
Diastolic pressure
c)
Venous pressure
d)
Systolic pressure
109.

Which of the following concepts is a popular method of understanding hormone receptors? P19-22

a)
DNA replication
b)
Protein synthesis
c)

Lock & Key Method

d)
Cellular respiration
110.

The debatable concept that muscle fibers can actually split longitudinally, resulting in additional muscle fibers, is known as what? P172-176

a)
Muscle fiber hyperplasia
b)
Muscle fiber regeneration
c)
Muscle fiber hypertrophy
d)
Muscle fiber atrophy
111.

While stretching after a workout, your client asks how muscles are able to lengthen beyond their normal resting position without tearing. Which characteristic of skeletal muscle tissue allows muscles to safely stretch beyond their resting length? P28

a)

Extensibility of skeletal muscle tissue.

b)

Excitability of skeletal muscle tissue.

c)
Elasticity of skeletal muscle tissue.
112.

Which of the following are examples of two body segments that are part of the axial skeleton? P26-28

a)

Lumbar vertebra, ribs

b)

Shoulder girdle, cervical vertebra

c)

Sacral vertebra, shoulder girdle

113.

A tactical strength coach is designing a program to maximize intramuscular coordination, the ability to recruit and synchronize motor units more efficiently. Which training approach is most effective for achieving this goal? P60

a)

Performing sets with near-maximal loads (1RM to 3RM)

b)

Performing sets with High-volume sets using loads in the 15RM to 20RM

c)

Performing sets with Moderate-load sets with slow tempo in the 6RM to 8RM range

114.

After returning from a three-week deployment with limited access to training equipment, a tactical athlete experiences noticeable declines in strength and endurance. Compared to the original time it took to develop these fitness levels, how does the process of retraining typically compare? P62-63

a)

Retraining occurs faster than initial training due to muscle memory and prior adaptation

b)

Retraining takes longer or progresses at the same rate

c)

Retraining is slower for endurance but faster for strength

115.

Which of the following blood vessels is primarily responsible for gas exchange between the blood and active tissues, fulfilling the main function of the cardiorespiratory system? P14

a)
Capillaries
b)
Aorta
c)
Veins
d)
Arteries
116.

Which joint is considered the most mobile joint in the human body?

a)
Shoulder joint
b)
Ankle joint
c)
Knee joint
d)
Elbow joint
117.

What is the typical blood pressure response during aerobic exercise in healthy individuals? P18

a)

Systolic blood pressure increases modestly, while diastolic pressure remains relatively unchanged

b)

Systolic Pressure decreaes due to vasodilation, while diastolic pressure increases

c)

Both systolic and diastolic blood pressure increase significantly

118.

Which of the following correctly identifies the four chambers of the human heart? P11

a)

Right atrium, left ventricle, pulmonary valve, aortic valve

b)

Left atrium, left ventricle, Superior atrium, inferior atrium

c)
Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle
119.

Which training approach is most effective for increasing muscle size (hypertrophy) in tactical strength and conditioning? P60

a)

Lifting near-maximal loads in the 1RM to 3RM range

b)

Using moderate loads (6RM to 12RM) and training to or near muscular failure

c)

Using High-repetition training with low resistance in the 15RM to 20RM range

120.

Pushing your hands together in front of your chest with no external movement is an example of which type of exercise? P43-44

a)

Isokinetic exercise

b)
Isometric exercise
c)

Isotonic exercise

d)

Hypertrophic exercise

121.

Which of the following best defines cardiac output? P18

a)

The volume of blood pumped by the heart each minute, calculated as heart rate × stroke volume

b)

The total amount of oxygen delivered to working muscles per heartbeat

c)

The pressure exerted by the blood against arterial walls during contraction

122.

Which of the following best describes how minute ventilation adapts to regular aerobic endurance training? P21

a)
Minute ventilation decreases due to reduced tidal volume.
b)
Minute ventilation remains unchanged regardless of training.
c)
Minute ventilation increases due to improved tidal volume and respiratory efficiency.
d)
Minute ventilation increases solely due to higher breathing rate.
123.

What training variable has the greatest impact on enhancing performance? P56

a)
Training duration
b)
Training frequency
c)
Training intensity
d)
Rest periods
124.

Which of the following is a kinesiological factor that influences an individual's mobility and flexibility? P263

a)

Age

b)
Body composition
c)

Physical activity level

d)

Muscle origin and insertion

125.

An athlete is performing an upper body workout in order to improve overall strength. During a biceps curl, when would the biceps be performing a concentric muscle action? P34

a)
When lowering the weight during the biceps curl.
b)
When holding the weight at the top of the curl.
c)

When lifting the weight up during the biceps curl.

d)
When resting between sets of biceps curls.
126.

How does the resting cardiovascular function of a trained individual typically compare to that of an untrained individual, assuming body size is similar? P21

a)

Higher heart rate, higher stroke volume, higher cardiac output

b)

Lower heart rate, higher stroke volume, and similar cardiac output

c)

Lower heart rate, lower stroke volume, and lower cardiac output

127.

The ability of experienced lifters to recruit high-threshold motor units before low-threshold motor units is known as what type of recruitment? P36-37

a)
Partial recruitment
b)
Selective recruitment
c)

Rate coding

d)

Size Principle

128.

You’re coaching a client through a wall sit and explain that this exercise strengthens the muscles without requiring movement. What type of muscle strengthening exercise is this? P43-44

a)

Isokinetic exercise

b)

Isotonic exercise

c)
Aerobic exercise
d)
Isometric exercise
129.

An athlete performs a series of workouts to improve his overall strength. He owns a weightlifting belt and would like to utilize it during his workouts. Which of the following exercises does not require a weightlifting belt? P418-420

a)

1RM Bench Press

b)

90% 1RM Deadlift

c)

90% 1RM Back Squat

130.

Which of the following describes systolic blood pressure? P14-16

a)

The pressure on the arterial walls following ventricular contraction

b)

The pressure on the arterial walls during relaxation of the heart

c)

The pressure on the heart as the blood is being forcefully ejected during contraction

131.

Which of the following best describes the difference between end-diastolic volume (EDV) and end-systolic volume (ESV) in cardiac function? P12

a)
EDV measures the pressure in the arteries; ESV measures the heart rate.
b)
EDV is the volume of blood after contraction; ESV is the volume before filling.
c)
EDV is the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of filling; ESV is the volume remaining after contraction.
d)
EDV is the total blood volume in the body; ESV is the volume in the lungs.
132.

Which of the following is not one of the three major categories of muscle fiber types? P 35

a)

Slow glycolytic

b)

Slow Oxidative

c)

Fast Oxidative Glycolytic

d)

Fast Glycolytic

133.

Which of the following best describes the effects of sympathetic nervous system activation during exercise? P 20

a)

It increases heart rate and contractility, enhances breathing rate, and causes vasoconstriction in nonworking tissues

b)

It decreases heart rate and breathing rate with widespread vasodilation

c)

It increases parasympathetic tone to calm the body during physical stress

134.

During a muscle contraction, certain proteins act as "gatekeepers," controlling whether the contractile proteins can interact and generate force. As a trainer explaining this to your client, which proteins would you identify as being responsible for this regulatory function in the sliding filament mechanism? P 30

a)
Actin and myosin
b)
Calmodulin and myomesin
c)
Dystrophin and nebulin
d)
Troponin and tropomyosin
135.

How does stored glycogen in skeletal muscle typically adapt in response to both strength training and aerobic endurance training? P 65

a)

Stored glycogen increases in both strength and aerobic endurance training.

b)
Glycogen utilization becomes less efficient with aerobic training.
c)
Stored glycogen remains unchanged regardless of training type.
d)
Stored glycogen decreases in capacity with strength training.
136.

When you multiply the muscle force times the torque arm, this distance is referred to as which of the following? P 41-42

a)

Muscle torque

b)

Second class lever

c)

Resistive torque

d)

First class lever

137.

Regular aerobic endurance training leads to a significant increase in total blood volume. What is the typical percentage increase in blood volume observed with consistent aerobic training? P21

a)
30-40%
b)

20-25%

c)

12-15%

d)
5-10%
138.

Research shows that resistance training improves flow-mediated dilation (FMD), a marker of endothelial function. Approximately how much can FMD increase as a result of consistent resistance training? P21

a)

2.0% to 2.8%

b)

4.5% to 5.0%

c)

1.2%

d)

8.0% to 10.0%

139.

During a dynamic warm-up, a tactical athlete performs high-knee skips to activate the lower body. Which sensory receptor is primarily responsible for detecting the rapid stretch in the muscle and triggering a reflexive contraction to prevent overstretching? P 36

a)
Golgi tendon organ
b)
Joint receptors
c)
Thermoreceptors
d)
Muscle spindle
140.

Hormones are released during and after heavy resistance training sessions. How would aerobic training affect hormone sensitivity? P 22

a)
Aerobic training improves hormone sensitivity.
b)
Aerobic training decreases hormone sensitivity.
c)
Aerobic training has no effect on hormone sensitivity.
d)
Aerobic training only affects muscle growth, not hormone sensitivity.
141.

What is the primary purpose of the Valsalva maneuver during heavy resistance training? P18

a)
To improve flexibility in the joints.
b)
To stabilize the spine during heavy resistance training.
c)
To increase heart rate during exercise.
d)
To enhance muscle endurance during workouts.
142.

Which of the following best defines muscular endurance in the context of tactical strength and conditioning? P 58

a)
The speed at which muscles can contract.
b)
The maximum weight a muscle can lift in one attempt.
c)
The flexibility of muscles during stretching.
d)
The ability of muscles to sustain repeated contractions over time.
143.

What percentage of VO2max will cause a shift in fatty acid oxidation to carbohydrate? P51

a)

70-80%

b)

25-30%

c)

50-60%

d)

20-25%

144.

What is an example of an energy substrate? CH4

a)

Tropomyosin

b)

Glucose

c)

Myosin

d)

Actin

145.

During a tactical strength session, an athlete attempts a heavy deadlift. As the tension in the muscle and tendon rapidly increases, which sensory receptor helps protect the muscle from excessive force by triggering relaxation? P 38

a)
Golgi tendon organ
b)
Pacinian corpuscle
c)
Joint capsule receptor
d)
Muscle spindle
146.

While coaching a client through a controlled lowering phase of a biceps curl, they ask what the triceps are doing during that part of the movement. How would you describe the role of the triceps brachii during the eccentric (lowering) phase of the biceps curl? P 28

a)

Synergist

b)

Agonist

c)

Antagonist

147.

During a tactical training drill, a soldier performs a clean and press to hoist a heavy sandbag overhead quickly. Which biomechanical factor best reflects the ability to generate high force in a short amount of time? P 46

a)

Work

b)

Power

c)

Momentum

d)

Torque

148.

Which of the following formulas is used to estimate Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) at rest? P 15

a)
MAP = (SBP + DBP) / 2
b)
MAP = SBP - DBP
c)
MAP = DBP + 1/2(SBP - DBP)
d)

MAP = (SBP - DBP) / 3 + DBP

149.

When a baseball pitcher is extending the elbow and getting ready to release the ball, which muscle is acting as the agonist and which the antagonist? P 28-30

a)
Agonist: triceps brachii; Antagonist: biceps brachii
b)
Agonist: deltoid; Antagonist: pectoralis major
c)
Agonist: brachialis; Antagonist: latissimus dorsi
d)
Agonist: biceps brachii; Antagonist: triceps brachii
150.

When a person's back is slightly rounded, what type of spinal description is given to it? P164?

a)
Flatback
b)
Scoliosis
c)
Lordosis
d)
Kyphosis
151.

Which of the following structures serves as the only electrical connection between the atria and ventricles, allowing the transmission of action potentials in the heart? P 12

a)
Sinoatrial (SA) node
b)
Atrioventricular (AV) node
c)

Atrioventricular (AV) bundle

d)
Purkinje fibers
152.

Which of the following is not a symptom of overtraining? P 437-438

a)

Sleep disturbances

b)

Decreased blood pressure

c)

Moodiness

153.

How is resting minute ventilation affected following an aerobic endurance training program? P21

a)

Resting minute ventilation does not change, but breathing rate decreases and tidal volume increases

b)

Resting minute ventilation decreases after an aerobic endurance training program.

c)

Resting minute ventilation increases after an aerobic endurance training program.

d)
Resting minute ventilation fluctuates significantly after an aerobic endurance training program.
154.

While coaching a tactical athlete through a shoulder press, you notice they struggle most at the midpoint of the lift. This point reflects the greatest mechanical disadvantage due to the relationship between the force generated by the muscle and the external load. What term best describes the opposing rotational force created by the external load in this scenario? P 41-42

a)

Muscle torque

b)

Resistive torque

c)

Elastic force

155.

After 12 to 24 months of consistent aerobic endurance training, what is the typical percentage increase in VO₂ max from baseline in a well-designed program for a tactical athlete? P 65

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

50%

156.

Which of the following best defines tidal volume? P 16

a)
The total volume of air in the lungs at maximum inflation.
b)
The amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal exhalation.
c)
The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forced exhalation.
d)
The amount of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath.
157.

During a high-intensity drill, a tactical athlete performs repeated short sprints and loaded carries. What is the primary metabolic byproduct produced during these short-burst, high-intensity muscular efforts? P 51

a)
Adenosine triphosphate
b)

Lactate

c)
Creatine phosphate
d)
Carbon dioxide
158.

Which type of exercise is most likely to cause a significant increase in catecholamine levels, such as epinephrine and norepinephrine? P 19-20

a)

Yoga or mobility training

b)

High intensity interval training (HIIT) or Max resistance training

c)

Low intensity steady state cycling for 30 min

159.

During a high-intensity obstacle course, a tactical athlete relies on rapid bursts of speed and power to climb, sprint, and jump. Which type of muscle fiber is most responsible for producing these explosive efforts? P 36

a)

Type IIx muscle fibers

b)

Type IIa muscle fibers

c)
Type I muscle fibers
160.

Which of the following hormones are classified as catecholamines? P 19

a)

Insulin and Glucagon

b)

Testosterone and growth hormone

c)

Cortisol and aldosterone

d)
Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, Dopamine
161.

Daniel is performing a barbell deadlift for ten repetitions. What type of muscle action are his abdominals performing? P 43

a)
Concentric contraction
b)
Eccentric contraction
c)
Plyometric contraction
d)
Isometric contraction
162.

A tactical athlete performing body armor-loaded training relies heavily on structural support and shock absorption. Which classification of bones includes those with complex shapes, like the vertebrae, that are uniquely designed for protection and movement in multiple planes? P27

a)
Long bones
b)
Irregular bones
c)
Flat bones
d)
Sesamoid bones
163.

During a consultation, a client asks how their body regulates things like metabolism, heart function, and fat storage. As a trainer, how would you explain which body system is primarily responsible for controlling these functions? P 20

a)
Nervous system
b)
Muscular system
c)
The endocrine system
d)
Digestive system
164.

During a consultation, a client asks how their body regulates things like metabolism, heart function, and fat storage. As a trainer, how would you explain which body system is primarily responsible for controlling these functions? P 20

a)

Nervous

b)

Muscular

c)

Hormonal

d)

Digestive

165.

What does the T wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) represent? P 13

a)
Repolarization of the ventricles
b)
Heart rate variability
c)

Ventricular depolarization

d)
Atrial depolarization
166.

Activities such as resistance training that are high-intensity, and thus have a high power output, require a rapid rate of supplied energy and rely almost entirely on which energy system? P 50

a)
Aerobic energy system
b)

Phosphagen energy system

c)
Fat oxidation energy system
d)
Lactic acid energy system
167.

A tactical athlete has been overtraining and is being evaluated by a medical professional. Which of the following hormones might you see an increase of as a result of overtraining? P 438

a)
Adrenaline
b)
Cortisol
c)
Insulin
d)
Testosterone
168.

A client asks how to know if their cardio fitness is really improving. As their trainer, which measurement would you tell them is the most accurate indicator of their aerobic fitness level? P 20

a)
VO2 max
b)
Body mass index (BMI)
c)
Heart rate recovery time
d)
Lactate threshold
169.

What is the primary role of chemoreceptors during exercise? P 19

a)

To monitor oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels in the blood

b)
To regulate body temperature through sweat production.
c)
To increase heart rate by stimulating adrenaline release.
d)
To enhance muscle contraction during exercise.
170.

Which of the following physiological adjustments might we experience when first entering an area of high altitude? P 463-464

a)

Increase in pulmonary ventilation at rest

b)
Improved sleep quality and relaxation.
c)
Increased appetite and weight gain.
d)
Decreased oxygen consumption and lower heart rate.
171.

When designing a conditioning program for tactical athletes, which training variable has the greatest influence on driving improvements in physical performance such as strength, speed, and endurance? P 56

a)
Training volume
b)
Recovery time
c)
Exercise variety
d)
Training intensity
172.

How would you calculate one's rate-pressure product? P 15-18

a)
Rate-Pressure Product = Heart Rate x Systolic Blood Pressure
b)
Rate-Pressure Product = Diastolic Blood Pressure / Heart Rate
c)
Rate-Pressure Product = Systolic Blood Pressure - Heart Rate
d)
Rate-Pressure Product = Heart Rate + Systolic Blood Pressure
173.

During a tactical strength training session, an athlete is performing heavy barbell squats near their one-rep max. How are velocity and muscular power typically affected when lifting very heavy loads? P 61

a)

Low velocity, high power

b)

low velocity, low power

c)

High velocity, low power

d)

High velocity, high power

174.

How can we measure cardiac output? P 12

a)

Stroke volume x heart rate

b)

Heart rate x diastolic blood pressure

c)

Heart rate x systolic blood pressure

175.

How does capillary density in skeletal muscle typically respond to aerobic endurance training compared to heavy strength training? P 65

a)

Increases with endurance training, shows little or no change with strength training

b)

Decreaes with endurance training, increases with strength training

c)

Decreases with both types of training

176.

An untrained person would typically reach the lactate threshold at what percentage of their VO2max? P 51

a)

70-80%

b)

30-40%

c)

50-60%

d)

20-30%

177.

When analyzing the sarcomere, there are plenty of areas of overlap between myosin and actin. Which area of the sarcomere has no actin during the relaxation phase of muscle contraction? P 29-32

a)

I-band

b)

A-band

c)

H-zone

178.

While observing a tactical athlete performing pull-ups, you notice that their strength seems to drop off when they hang too low or pull too high. This change in performance is best explained by which physiological principle? P 34

a)

Stretch-shortening cycle

b)

Length-tension relationship

c)

Motor unit recruitment

d)
Force production principle
179.

An athlete performs a barbell bench press with a spotter during an upper-body strength workout. During what phase of a barbell bench press is negative work being performed? P 46

a)
During the concentric phase of the bench press.
b)
At the start of the lift before lowering the barbell.
c)
While the barbell is resting on the chest.
d)
During the eccentric phase of the bench press.
180.

An athlete performs a barbell bench press with a spotter during an upper-body strength workout. During what phase of a barbell bench press is negative work being performed? P 46

a)

When the bar is at the halfway mark

b)

As the bar is moving up

c)

As the bar is lowering

d)

When the bae is lifted off the rack