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WorksheetsQATAR 4
Total questions: 109
Worksheet time: 55mins
328. When V has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance:
Increases / increases.
Remains constant / remains constant.
Decreases / decreases.
Decreases / remains constant.
329. Density altitude is the:
Altitude read directly from the altimeter.
Height above the surface.
Pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature.
Altitude reference to the standard datum plane.
330. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:
A reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance.
A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance.
An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance.
An increased landing distance and improved go-around Performance.
331. A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (V mca). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?
Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft./min.
Altitude.
Straight flight.
Straight flight and altitude.
332. The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus:
92%.
43%.
70%.
67%.
333. The length of a clearway may be included in:
The accelerate-stop distance available.
The take-off run available.
The distance to reach V1.
The take-off distance available.
334. What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?
IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
The '1.3G' altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.
The lift coefficient increases.
The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
335. How is V mca influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
V mca decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
V mca increases with pressure altitude higher than 4,000 ft.
V mca increases with increasing pressure altitude.
V mca is not affected by pressure altitude.
336. During take-off the third segment begins:
When acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
When landing gear is fully retracted.
When acceleration starts from V LOF to V 2.
When flap retraction is completed.
337. The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
Selecting a lower V r.
A lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V 2.
Selecting a lower V 1.
Selecting a lower V 2.
338. By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (Planning phase for destination).
115/100.
1.67.
60/115.
0.60.
339. With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately:
1.2V s.
1.1Vs.
The highest CL/CD ratio.
The highest CL/CD² ratio.
340. A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?
Maximum Operational Mach Number.
Maximum Operating Speed.
Never Exceed Speed.
High Speed Buffet Limit.
341. Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available?
Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
No.
No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.
342. Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
V 1, V r, V 2, V mca.
V mcg, V 1, V r, V 2.
V 1, V mcg, V r, V 2.
V 1, V r, V mcg, V 2.
343. V 1 has to be:
Equal to or higher than V mcg.
Equal to or higher than V mca.
Higher than V r.
Equal to or higher than V 2.
344. Take-off run is defined as the:
Distance from brake release to V 2.
Horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which V LOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft. above the take-off surface.
Distance to V 1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V 1.
Distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V 1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
345. Which of the following is true with regard to V mca (air minimum control speed)?
The aeroplane is uncontrollable below V mca.
The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient.
VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes.
Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.
346. Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:
Nose wheel steering only.
Primary aerodynamic control only.
Primary aerodynamic control and nose wheel.
Primary aerodynamic control, nose wheel steering and differential braking.
347. What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition?
For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available runway length.
A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between 'net' and 'gross' take-off flight paths.
A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure.
A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.
348. Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V 1?
All Engine Take-off distance.
Take-off run.
Accelerate Stop Distance.
Take-off distance.
349. V 2 has to be equal to or higher than:
1.1 V mca.
1.15 V mcg.
1.1 V so.
1.15 V r.
350. Which statement regarding V 1 is correct?
When determining V 1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines.
The correction for up-slope on the balanced V 1 is negative.
V r may not be lower than V 1.
V 1 may not be higher than V mcg.
351. A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
A reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.
An increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.
A reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance.
An increased take-off distance and improved initial climb Performance.
352. The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for:
The failure of two engines on a multi-engine aeroplane.
The failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
The failure of any engine on a multi-engine aeroplane.
2 engine aeroplane.
353. A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
The Stalling speed.
The Minimum control speed air.
The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
The Maximum operating Mach number.
354. The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
Increases the stalling speed.
Improves the longitudinal stability.
Decreases the maximum range.
Improves the maximum range.
355. Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V 2 value, which is limited by V mca?
High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.
Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.
High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
356. Which of the following represents the minimum for V 1?
V mu.
V r.
V mcg.
V LOF.
357. The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
67%.
70%.
43%.
92%.
358. The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.
The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
359. In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed:
10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.
360. The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
The point half way between V 1 and V 2.
The middle of the segment between V LOF point and 35 ft point.
The lift-off point.
The point where V 2 is reached.
361. Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway?
V 2.
V mcg.
V mca.
V 1.
362. The take-off mass could be limited by:
The take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with one engine inoperative.
The maximum brake energy only.
The climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.
The take-off distance available (TODA) only.
363. Which statement is correct?
V r is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
V r is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
In case of engine failure below V r the take-off should be aborted.
V r is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
364. If the value of the balanced V 1 is found to be lower than V mcg, which is correct?
The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.
The take-off is not permitted.
The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
The VMCG will be lowered to V 1.
The take-off decision speed V1 is:
A chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.
Not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
A chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.
Sometimes greater than the rotation speed Vr.
The speed VLO is defined as:
Lift off speed.
Landing gear operating speed.
Design low operating speed.
Long distance operating speed.
The take-off distance required increases:
Due to slush on the runway.
Due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
Due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
Due to lower gross mass at take-off.
The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
Failure of critical engine.
Failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off distance.
All engines operating.
Only one engine operating.
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data?
Only for take-off.
Only for landing.
Yes.
No.
For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?
When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.
In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length.
An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft. to the full stop point.
Which of the following statements is correct?
If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.
A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
An under run is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.
Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
An airport has a 3,000 metres long runway, and a 2,000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
6,000 metres.
4,000 metres.
5,000 metres.
4,500 metres.
When 'spoilers' are used as speed brakes:
CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.
They do not affect wheel-braking action during landing.
At same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.
At same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.
How does Vmcg change with increasing field elevation and temperature?
Increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required rudder force.
Increases, because Vmcg is related to V1 and Vr and those speeds increase if the density decreases.
Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases.
Decreases, because Vmcg is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density.
The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is:
500 kts.
320 kts.
480 kts.
600 kts.
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:
TAS.
Weight.
Load factor.
Wind.
The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant):
Spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.
Pulling up from a dive.
Weight decreases.
Minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why?
Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.
Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation.
At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):
Increases.
Decreases.
Remains the same.
Decreases until the Tropopause.
Why is Vmcg determined with the nose wheel steering disconnected?
Because nose wheel steering has no effect on the value of Vmcg.
Because the value of Vmcg must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways.
Because the nose wheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.
Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nose wheel has already been lifted off the ground.
The stall speed:
Does not depend on weight.
Increases with the length of the wingspan.
Increases with an increased weight.
Decreases with an increased weight.
The following factors increase stall speed:
A lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap setting.
An increase in load factor, a forward C.G. shift, decrease in thrust.
A higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward C.G. shift.
Increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.
A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:
Increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.
Increase thrust and angle of attack.
Increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
Increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.
The centre of gravity moving aft will:
Increase the elevator up effectiveness.
Decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
Not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
Increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.
Mcrit is the free stream Mach number at which:
Shock stall occurs.
The critical angle of attack is reached.
Somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.
Mach buffet occurs.
When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of:
Increased longitudinal stability.
Lower stalling speed.
Higher critical Mach number.
Greater strength.
What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence?
Winglets.
Swept wings.
Straight wings.
Wing dihedral.
One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the stall:
Wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment.
Tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment.
Leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose down moment.
Tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.
Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur:
When a higher than normal angle of attack is used.
At a speed approaching the stall.
When the height is less than half of the length of the wingspan above the surface.
When the height is less than twice the length of the wingspan above the surface.
What will happen in ground effect?
A significant increase in thrust required.
The induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases.
The wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases.
An increase in strength of the wing tip vortices.
If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect:
The lift is increased and the drag is decreased.
The effective angle of attack is decreased.
The induced angle of attack is increased.
Drag and lift are reduced.
Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance:
Decreases.
Does not change.
Increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
Increases.
Which moments or motions interact in a Dutch roll?
Pitching and adverse yaw.
Rolling and yawing.
Pitching and yawing.
Pitching and rolling.
Rotation about the lateral axis is called:
Yawing.
Slipping.
Pitching.
Rolling.
On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as 'H' for 'Heavy'
Has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136,000 kg.
Has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140,000 kg.
Requires a runway length of at least 2,000m at maximum certified take-off mass.
Is of the highest wake turbulence category.
The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is:
7,000 kg.
2,700 kg.
5,700 kg.
10,000 kg.
From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger areas are active:
SIGMET.
RAD/NAV charts.
NOTAM and AIP (Air Information Publication).
Only AIP (Air Information Publication).
On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to:
10 nm.
25 nm.
20 nm.
15 nm.
Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?
Haemoglobin in the red blood cells.
White blood cells.
Plasma.
Blood fat.
The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:
Water vapour in the alveoli.
Oxygen in the cells.
Carbon dioxide in the blood.
Nitrogen in the air.
Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect:
Bends.
Chokes.
Hypoxia.
Pain in the sinuses.
In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
Dull headache and bends.
Dizziness, hypothermia.
Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
Nausea and barotitis.
The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness). It
Varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude.
Is the same amount of time for every person.
Is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure.
Varies individually and does not depend on altitude.
The semi-circular canals form part of the:
Inner ear.
Middle ear.
Ear drum.
External ear.
What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on performance?
It causes muscular spasms.
It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours.
It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties, the risk of sensory illusions and mood disorders.
It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress management by muscular relaxation.
A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:
Execute the valsalva manoeuvre.
Close the eyes and relax.
Talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing simultaneously.
Don an oxygen mask.
Hyperventilation causes:
Acidosis.
Hypochondria.
A lack of carbon dioxide in the blood.
An excess of carbon dioxide in the blood.
Hyperventilation is:
An accelerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing blood-pressure.
A reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain.
A normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain).
An accelerated heart frequency caused by an increasing blood pressure.
Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation?
Slow heart beat.
Slow rate of breathing.
Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails).
Dizzy Keeling.
The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:
Shortage of CO2 in the blood.
Surplus of CO2 in the blood.
Surplus of O2 in the blood.
Shortage of CO in the blood.
Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:
Hyperventilation.
Hypoxia.
Stress.
Decompression sickness without having a decompression.
After decompression at high altitude:
Automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin.
Temperature in the cockpit will increase.
Pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin.
Nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism, bends and chokes.
Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following decompression are called:
Creeps.
Leans.
Chokes.
Bends.
Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called:
Chokes.
Creeps.
Leans.
Bends.
The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following decompression are called:
Bends.
Chokes.
Leans.
Creeps.
After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time before flying again. This period is at least:
24 hours.
6 hours.
12 hours.
48 hours.
Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth):
Are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded.
Should be avoided because hypoxia may develop.
Are forbidden.
Can be performed without any danger.
Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (>10 m depth):
Has no influence on altitude flights.
Is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia.
Can cause decompression sickness even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18,000 ft.
Prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism (decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not exceeding 30 000 ft.
Which statement is correct?
There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.
Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety.
Problems in the personal relation between crewmembers hardly hamper their communication process.
Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper their communication process.
After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is about:
10 minutes.
30 to 60 seconds.
15 seconds or less.
5 minutes.
Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be about:
5 to 10 minutes.
10 to 12 minutes.
1 to 2 minutes.
3 to 5 minutes.
What is the 'Time of Useful Consciousness' for a rapid decompression at 25,000 ft.?
Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds.
About 30 seconds.
Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot.
About 18 seconds.
What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft.?
More than 1 minute.
About 12 seconds.
Between 20 seconds and 1 minute.
About 40 seconds.
An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
Not land because the airport is not available for landing.
Give way to another aircraft.
Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
When passing 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL.
When passing the transition level.
When passing the transition altitude.
Within the transition layer.
The criterion, which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft, shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
+/- 150 ft.
+/- 250 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
+/- 200 ft.
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case:
It is a deviation from the track.
The TAS varies by + or - 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
Of an emergency.
The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
Come back and land.
Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within:
5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line.
10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line.
25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line.
15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line.
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
2.0 nm between aircraft on the same localizer course.
5.0 nm between aircraft on the same localizer course.
3.0 nm between aircraft on the same localizer course.
3.0 nm between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination.
Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations.
Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing.
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
0 ft.
3.3 % gradient.
35 ft.
0.8 % gradient.
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in- VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
When seems possible to land.
When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight.
When the aircraft has the control tower in sight.
When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet.
The runway edge lights shall be:
White.
Blue.
Green.
Red.
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
300 m from threshold.
600 m from threshold.
