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OBGYN TEST #2

Total questions: 260

Worksheet time: 2hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 68 year old patient presents to the sonography department complaining of vaginal bleeding. The most likely cause of her bleeding is:

a)

Endometrial carcinoma

b)

Endometrial polyps

c)

Endometrial atrophy

d)

Endometrial fibroids

2.

ORAL CONTRACEPTIVE PILLS PREVENT CONCEPTION BY INHIBITING

a)

MENSES

b)

OVULATION

c)

DYSFUNTIONAL UTERINE BLEEDING

d)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

3.

The hormone responsible for estrogen stimulation is:

a)

Progesterone

b)

LH

c)

FSH

d)

Androgen

4.

Select the cervical anomaly that does not cause bleeding:

a)

Leiomyoma

b)

Nabothian cyst

c)

Polyp

d)

Hyperplasia

5.

A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. Sonographically, the uterine body displays a highly echogenic structure in the endometrial cavity. This most likely represents:

a)

Endometritis

b)

Calcified submucosal fibroid

c)

an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUD)

d)

a calcified arcuate arteries

6.

ALL ARE CLINICAL FINDINGS OF PCOS EXCEPT:

a)

HIRSUTISM

b)

HEAVY BLEEDING

c)

INFERTILITY

d)

OBESITY

7.

A KRUKENBERG TUMOR SHOULD BE CONSIDERED IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES?

a)

WHEN THE PATIENT PRESENTS WITH A FAMILY HISTORY OF OVARIAN CA

b)

IN POSTMENOPAUSAL PATIENT WITH VAGINAL BLEEDING & AN ENLARGED UT

c)

WHEN BILATERAL SOLID MASSES ARE IDENTIFIED IN A PATIENT WITH HISTORY OF GASTRIC CA

d)

ANY TIME FREE FLUID IS SEEN IN THE POSTERIOR CUL DE SAC

8.

The inferior portion of the cervix closest to the vagina is the:

a)

Cornu

b)

Internal os

c)

External os

d)

Posterior fornix

9.

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE ASSOCIATED WITH FIBROID EXCEPT:

a)

CYSTIC MASS WITH NO CALCIFICATION

b)

INFERTILITY

c)

INTENTATION INTO BLADDER

d)

HEAVY BLEEDING

10.

The sonographic evidence of a hyperemic fallopian tube is consistent with:

a)

Hyprosalpinx

b)

Hematosalpinx

c)

Endometritis

d)

Salpingitis

11.

FEMALE CAUSES OF INFERTILITY INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:

a)

POLYCYSTIC OVARIES

b)

ENDOMETIOSIS

c)

DIVERTOCULOSIS

d)

CHRONIC PID

12.

THIS IMAGE SHOWS:

a)

FIBROID WITH SIS

b)

POLYP WITH SIS

c)

NORMAL ENDOMETRIAL CAVITY

d)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

13.

A PATIENT IS REFERRED FOR A PELVIC U/S FOR RLQ PAIN, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A POSSIBLE CONSIDERATION?

a)

APPENDICITIS

b)

ECTOPIC PREGNANCY

c)

ENDOMETRIOMA

d)

ENDOMETRITIS

14.

Which of the following is usually a predominantly cyctic mass?

a)

Teratoma

b)

Hydrosalpinx

c)

Ovarian abscess

d)

Mucinous cystadenoma

15.

The paired muscles that are located lateral to the uterus & anterior to the iliac creat are the:

a)

Iliopsoas muscles

b)

Rectus abdominis muscles

c)

Obturator interni muscles

d)

Periformis muscles

16.

Complex appearing fluid within the fallopian tubes seen with PID is most likely:

a)

Pyometra

b)

Pyosalpinx

c)

Hydrosalpinx

d)

Hematpmetra

17.

Which of the following is an estrogen-producing ovarian tumor?

a)

Cystic teratoma

b)

Fibroma

c)

Thecoma

d)

Endometrioma

18.

All of the following are considered risk factors for PID except:

a)

IUCD

b)

Multiple sexual partners

c)

Post childbirth

d)

Uterine leiomyoma

19.

Increase levels of Hcg may cause:

a)

Hemorrhagic cyst to develop

b)

Teratoma

c)

Theca lutein cysts

d)

Polycystic ovaries

20.

Hydrometra would appear sonographically as:

a)

A sonolucent tubular structure in the adnexa

b)

An echogenic thickening of the emdometrium

c)

A sonolucent fluid collection in the uterine canal

d)

A sonolucent fluid collection in uterus & vaginal

21.

PID can lead to all of the following except:

a)

Infertility

b)

Polycystic ovarian disease

c)

Ectopic pregnancy

d)

Adhesion formation in fallopian tubes

22.

THIS IMAGE OF A PATIENT WHO IS TAKING INFERTILITY DRUGS SHOWS:

a)

POLYCYSTIC OVARY

b)

HYPERSTIMULATED OVARY

c)

NORMAL OVARY

d)

ENDOMETIROSIS

23.

Leiomyosarcoma of the uterus denotes:

a)

The benign invasion of endometrial

b)

The ectopic location of endometrial tissuein adnexa

c)

The malignant counterpart of a fibroid

d)

An complex cyst

24.

The right ovarian artery branches off the:

a)

Internal Iliac artery

b)

Uterine artery

c)

Aorta

d)

Right renal artery

25.

A 34 year old patient presents to the ultrasound department for endovaginal ultrasound complaining of intermenstrual bleeding. The ultrasound findings include a focal irregularity & enlargement of one area of the endometrium. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Intramural leiomyoma

b)

Endometrial polyps

c)

Endometrial carcinoma

d)

Endometrial atrophy

26.

ALL ARE U/S APPEARANCE OF POLYP EXCEPT:

a)

HAS A FEEDING VESSEL

b)

PUNDUNCULATED

c)

INTRAUTERINE

d)

INTRAMURAL

27.

ENDOCRINE DISORDER WHICH INDUCES THE PITUITARY TO SECRETE GONADOTROPINS EARLIER THAN USUAL, RESULT IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

a)

DERMOID CYST

b)

HEMATOMETRACOLPOS

c)

ENDOMETRIOSIS

d)

PRECOCIOUS PUBERTY

28.

The most common initial presentation of PID is:

a)

Endometritis

b)

TOA

c)

Vaginitis

d)

Pyosalpinx

29.

Which of the following is strongest risk factor for ovarian cancer:

a)

Premenopausal female

b)

Multiparity

c)

Family history of lung cancer

d)

Family history of ovarian cancer

30.

An 18-yr-old female presents for pelvic U/S with the history of 2 vaginas. The U/S images demonstrate 2 uterine horns & 2 cervices. This would be most consistent with which of the following?

a)

Uterus didelphys

b)

Uterus aplasia

c)

Bicornuate uterus

d)

Septate uterus

31.

THIS IMAGE SHOWS WHICH DAY OF MENSTRAL CYCLE?

a)

DAY 1-5

b)

DAY 6-13

c)

DAY 14

d)

DAY 15-28

32.

ALL ARE PHASES OF OVARIAN CYCLE EXCEPT:

a)

FOLLICULAR

b)

SECRETORY

c)

OVULATORY

d)

LUTEAL

33.

What statement about Meige’s syndrome is false?

a)

It is associated with ovarian mass.

b)

It includes massive ascites.

c)

It is associated with theca lutein cysts.

d)

It includes pleural effusions.

34.

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CLINICAL INDICATION FOR DOING U/S ON THE WOMEN WITH IUD?

a)

LOST IUD

b)

TWIN PREGNANCY

c)

ABNORMAL BLEEDING

d)

WRONG LOCATION

35.

Endometrial hyperplasia may be caused by all of the following except:

a)

HRT

b)

Estrogen replacment therapy

c)

Endometrial atrophy

d)

Tamoxifen

36.

A 34-yr-old female present with irregular, heavy periods. The sonographer notes a diffusely enlarges uterus containing multiple hypoechoic masses. This would be most consistent with:

a)

PID

b)

Leiomyomas

c)

Uterine cancer

d)

Endometriosis

37.

THIS IMAGE SHOWS:

a)

NORMAL OVARY

b)

POLYCYSTIC OVARY

c)

HYPERSTIMULATED OVARIAN SYNDROME

d)

NONE OF THE A

38.

All of the following statements concerning PID are true except:

a)

PID is typically a unilateral

b)

PID can be caused by douching

c)

PID can lead to TOA

d)

Dyspareunia is a clinical finding in acute PID

39.

 WITH INCREASING AGE, THE OVARIES BECOME UNRESPONSIVE TO GONADOTROPINS & STOP PRODUCTION OF:


a)

Estrogen

b)

Dominant follicle

c)

Progesterone

d)

All of the above

40.

The innominate bones of the pelvis consist of the:

a)

Sacrum, ischium, & Ilium bones

b)

Sacrum, coccyx, & pubic bones

c)

Ischium, ilium, & pubic bones

d)

Ilium, sacrum, & coccyx bones

41.

IMAGE A OF THE OVARY SHOWS

a)

Simple ovarian cyst

b)

solid ovarian mass

c)

complex ovarian mass

d)

None of the above

42.

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBE LOCATION OF FIBROID EXCEPT:

a)

Intramural

b)

Intraperitoneal

c)

subserosal

d)

Submucosal

43.

The ultrasound appearance of the myometrium may be described as:

a)

Heterogenous

b)

Homogeneous with smooth borders

c)

Heterogeneous with smooth borders

d)

Homogenous with irregular borders

44.

A 23-yr-old female presents for a pelvic U/S with the history of right adnexal mass palpated on clinical exam. The sonographer identifies a mass in right adnexa that is complex in appearance; including echogenic foci, that casts a strong acoustic shadow. This would be most consistent with which of the following pathologies?

a)

Corpus luteum cyst

b)

Endometrioma

c)

Mucinous cystadenoma

d)

Teratoma

45.

All are U/S appearance of dermoid tumor except:

a)

Dermoid plug

b)

Low amplitude echoes with enhancement

c)

Fat-fluid level

d)

High amplitude echoes with shadowing

46.

Complications in delivery may occur with pregnancy if a fibroid is located:

a)

Near the fundus

b)

Pedunculated off the fundus

c)

Near the cervix

d)

Near the ovary

47.

Which of the following would be described as functional cysts that are found in the presence of elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin?

a)

Endometrial cyst

b)

Corpus luteum cyst

c)

Chocolate cyst

d)

Theca lutein cysts

48.

WHAT STRUCTURE OF THE OVARY PRODUCES PROGESTERONE?

a)

Graafian follicle

b)

Medulla

c)

Functional cyst

d)

Corpus luteum

49.

Sonographic finding of Ovarian hyperstimulated syndrome includes all of the following except

a)

Cystic enlargement of the ovaries

b)

Ascites

c)

Pleural effusions

d)

Oliguria

50.

ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS CHARACTERIZED BY CYST DEVELOPED FROM ADHISION PERITONEAL SURFACE CAUSED BY PREVIOUS SURGERY OR INFECTION. THIS PATHOLOGY CAN CAUSE CHRONIC PELVIC PAIN:

a)

Cystic teratoma

b)

Diverticulosis

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Peritoneal inclusion cyst

51.

The image below is:

a)

Endometrioma

b)

complex cyst

c)

adenomyosis

d)

Solid mass

52.

The uterine vessels are found in the:

a)

Round ligament

b)

Cardinal ligament

c)

Broad ligament

d)

Uterosacral ligament

53.

Ultrasound finding of an endometrium polyp include:

a)

Infertility

b)

Intermenstrual bleeding

c)

Menometrorrhagia

d)

Diffuse thickening of endometrium

54.

paraovarian cyst is a:

a)


Large cystic mass with prominent septations

b)

Benign teratoma in which ectodermal elements are predominant

c)

The largest of the functional cysts, associated with trophoblastic disease

d)

Cyst that arises from the broad ligament

55.

Subserosal leiomyoma is a type of leiomyoma, which deformed the myometrium

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Fluid noted anterior to the uterus would most likely be located within the:

a)

Pouch of Douglas

b)

Vesicouterine pouch

c)

Space of retzuis

d)

Rectouterine pouch

57.

All of the following are clinical findings with endometrial hyperplasia except:

a)

Obesity

b)

Hursutism

c)

Abnormal uterine bleeding

d)

Thickened Endometrium

58.

THIS PHASE OF MENSTRAL CYCLE HAS A EFFECT BY

a)

Estrogen

b)

FSH

c)

Progesterone

d)

LH

59.

All of the following are ultrasound findings consistent with adenomyosis except:

a)

Diffuse, enlarged uterus

b)

Myometrium cysts

c)

Complex adnexal mass

d)

Hypoechoic areas adjacent to the endometrium

60.

Which vessels supply blood to the deeper layers of the myometrium?

a)

Radial arteries

b)

Spiral arteries

c)

Straight arteries

d)

Arcuate arteries

61.

The periovulatory phase may also be referred as the:

a)

Early secretory phase

b)

Late proliferative phase

c)

Late secretory phase

d)

Early proliferative phase

62.

The best description for endometrial polyps is:

a)

Malignant nodules that causes bleeding

b)

Benign lesions associated with cervical stenosis

c)

malignant nodules that are associated with endometrial atrophy

d)

Benign nodules of hyperplastic endometrial tissue

63.

The most common female genital tract malignancy is:

a)

Ovarian carcinoma

b)

Cervical Carcinoma

c)

Endometrial carcinoma

d)

Pelvic inflammatory disease

64.

Peritoneal spaces located posterior to the broad ligament are referred to as the:

a)

Rectouterine spaces

b)

Anterior cul-de-sac

c)

Adnexa

d)

Posterior cul-de-sac

65.

What congenital malformation of the uterus is common and has a clear association with an increased risk for spontaneous abortion?

a)

Anteflexed uterus

b)

Retroverted uterus

c)

Dextroverted uterus

d)

Septate uterus

66.

ABNORMAL VAGINAL BLEEDING MAY BE ASSOCIATED WITH ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:

a)

Endometritis

b)

Multiple myomas

c)

endometrial polyps

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

67.

A mucinous cystadenoma is all except which of the following?

a)

Large cystic mass with multiseptated cystic spaces

b)

Variable fluid echogenicity

c)

Cystic tumor

d)

Thick with irregular walls and septations

68.

Although clinical signs for endometrial cancer & leiomyosarcomas are nonspecific, most present it as:

a)


Significant amount of free fluid

b)

Uterine bleeding & pain

c)

Irregular bowel habits

d)

Hydronephrosis

69.

Degenerative changes occur when myomas:

a)

Become larger than 3 cm

b)

Become painful

c)


Outgrow their blood supply

d)

Fibrotic menorrhagia occurs

70.

 IF THE ENDOMETRIUM MEASURE MORE THAN 14 mm IN THE POSTMENOPAUSAL FEMALE WITHOUT HRT, THE SONOGRAPHER SHOULD THINK OF:

a)

ADENOMYOSIS

b)

ENDOMETRITIS

c)

ENDOMETRIOMA

d)

ENDOMETRIAL HYPERPLASIA 

71.

Precocious puberty may be associated with all of the following except:

a)

Ovarian tumor

b)

Adrenal tumor

c)

Liver tumor

d)

Brain tumor

72.

All are ultrasound appearance of peritoneal inclusion cyst except:

a)

Multiloculated

b)

Pressure on bladder

c)

Presence of an intact ovary

d)

Present as adnexal mass

73.

Which is NOT a bone of the pelvic girdle?

a)

Pelvic

b)

Inomiante

c)

Coccyx

d)

Sacrum

74.

A 15-yr-old female presents for a pelvis U/S examination because of intense pelvic pain. The sonographer should focus on which of the following?

a)
  • The endometrium for sign of endometrial cancer

b)

The ovaries for evidence of a dermoid

c)

The uterus for evidence of a fibroid

d)

The ovaries for sign of torsion

75.

A dermoid is:

a)

A large cystic mass with prominent septation

b)

A benign teratoma in which ectodermal elements are present

c)


The most common large cystic mass, which may contain thin-walled septations

d)

The largest of the functional cysts, associated with trophoblastic disease

76.

THE RECTUS ABDOMINIS MUSCLE FORMS MUCH OF THE

a)

Pelvic floor

b)

Pelvic side wall

c)

Anterior abdominal wall

d)

Rectal margin

77.

OVARIAN MALIGNANCY CAN SPREAD VIA:

a)

DIRECT INVASION OF ADJACENT STRUCTURE

b)

THE LYMPHATIC SYSTEM

c)

PERITONEAL FLUID TRANSPORT TO OTHER REGIONS OF THE ABDOMINO-PELVIC CAVITY

d)

All of the above

78.

All of the following adnexal masses may appear sonographically similar to a uterine leiomyoma except:

a)

Thecoma

b)

Paraovarian cyst

c)

Fibroma

d)

Granulosa cell tumor

79.

Which of the following is typically not a clinical complaint of women who are suffering from adenomyosis?

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Dysmenorrhea

c)

Dyspareunia

d)

Menometrorrhagia

80.

 The most common cause of tubal obstruction is:

a)

Adenomyosis

b)

Endometrioma

c)

Hydrometrocolpos

d)

Pelvic inflammatory disease

81.

Both the straight & spiral arteries are branches of the:

a)

Common iliac artery

b)

Radial artery

c)

Arcuate artery

d)

External iliac artery

82.

Which of the following is said to be common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

a)

Hursutism

b)

Polycystic ovary syndrome

c)

Fibroids

d)

Pelvic inflammatory disease

83.

All are the muscles of true pelvis except:

a)

Obturator internus Muscle

b)

Iliopsoas muscle

c)

Piriformis Muscle

d)

Levator ani muscle

84.

Which condition will not cause the endometrium appear thickened?

a)

Endometrial hyperplasia

b)

Menstrul cycle follicular phase

c)

Cervical cancer

d)

Myomas

85.

The temporary endocrine gland that results from rupture of the graafian follicle is the:

a)

Trophoblastic cells

b)

Corpus luteum

c)

Cumulus oophorus

d)

Corpus albicans

86.

UNOPPOSED ESTROGEN ADMINSTRATION MAY CAUSE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:

a)

INCREASE IN ENDOMETRIAL THICKNESS

b)

ENDOMETRIAL HYPERPLASIA

c)

POSTMENOPAUSAL BLEEDING

d)

SEROUS CYSADENOCARCINOMA

87.

THE CENTRAL ECHOGENIC LINE OF THE ENDOMETRIAL CAVITY REPRESENTS:

a)

HYDROMETROMA

b)

POLYP FORMATION

c)

APPOSITION OF THE 2 SIDES OF ENDOMETRIAL TISSUE 

d)

APPOSITION OF THE 2 SIDES OF MYOMETRIAL TISSUE

88.

THE BROAD LIGAMENT ENCLOSES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:

a)

BLADDER

b)

OVARIES

c)

UTERUS

d)

UTERINE TUBES

89.

The rigid region of the uterus located between the vagina & the isthmus is the:

a)

CERVIX

b)

CORNU

c)

CORPUS

d)

FUNDUS

90.

All of the following are ultrasound findings of the TOA except:

a)

The presence of 10 or more small cysts along the periphery of the ovaries

b)

Fluid in cul de-sac

c)

Thickened, irregular endometrium

d)

Fusion of the pelvic organs as a matted mass

91.

Cervical stenosis is an acquired condition with obstruction of the cervical canal:

a)

True

b)

False

92.

A patient presents to the ultrasound department with fever, chills, & vaginal discharge, sonographically, what finding would you most likely not encounter?

a)

Fluid in Cul-de-sac

b)

Uterine adhesions

c)

Dilated uterine tubes

d)

Ill-defined uterine border

93.

an endometrioma most likely appears as a:

a)

Simple, anechoic mass with through transmission

b)

Complex mass with internal shadowing components

c)

Mostly cystic mass with low-level echoes

d)

Solid, Hyperechoic shadowing mass

94.

Theca lutein cysts are:

a)

The largest of the functional cysts, associated with trophoblastic disease

b)

Large cystic mass with prominent septation

c)

A benign teratoma in which ectodermal elements are present

d)

A cyst that arises from the broad ligament

95.

The uterine arteries supply blood to all of the following except:

a)

Rectum

b)

Fallopian tube

c)

Ovaries

d)

Uterus

96.

U/S DETECTION OF AIR BUBBLE IN THE UTERINE CAVITY MAY BE DUE TO ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:

a)


RECENT INSTRUMENTATION

b)

ENDOMETRIAL HYPERPLASIA

c)

INFECTION

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

97.

Which of the following would be most indicative of a leiomyosarcoma?

a)

Rapid growth

b)

Vaginal bleeding

c)

Dysuria

d)

Large hypoechoic mass

98.

The malignant ovarian mass that is associated with pseudomyxoma peritoneal is the:

a)

Dysgerminoma

b)

Sertoli- Leydig cell tumor

c)

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

d)

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

99.

The vagina is located _________ to the uterus:

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Inferior

d)

Medial

100.

THE HYPER ECHOIC, LINEAR STRUCTURE, IN THE ENDOMETRIAL CAVITY  WHICH CAUSES POSTERIOR SHADOW IS:

a)

Menstrual Phase

b)

Adhesions

c)

Intrauterine polyp

d)

Contraceptive device

101.

When measuring the lateral ventricular system of the fetal head, the most accurate level to use is the:

a)

Frontal horn

b)

Lateral ventricle parallel to the falx

c)

Lateral ventricle atrium

d)

Cisterna magna

102.

Myelomeningocele is the herniation of:

a)

Meninges and nerve tissue

b)

nerve tissue only

c)

meninges only

d)

none of the above

103.

The fetal position that offers a true sagittal view of the spine is:

a)

Transverse

b)

Oblique

c)

Cephalic

d)

Prone

104.

Midline falx is important landmark to visualize because its presence implies that separation of __________ has occurred.

a)

cisterna magna

b)

cerebellum

c)

Cerebrum

d)

lateral ventricles

105.

All are true for the ultrasound of the fetal heart except for:

a)

Left ventricle is closest to the chest wall

b)

Lies transversely in thoracic cavity

c)

Left atrium is closest to the spine

d)

The apex of the heart is directed toward the left anterior chest

106.

Which structure is obliterated in spinal bifida?

a)

Lateral ventricle

b)

Cisterna magna

c)

Sulci and gyri

d)

Partial cephalocele

107.

The placenta is responsible for all the following except?

a)

Exchange of nutrients

b)

Hematopoiesis

c)

Oxygen exchange

d)

Barrier to some medications

108.

Polyhydramnios happens when there is obstruction to which fetal system in utero?

a)

Digestive system

b)

Urinary system

c)

Nervous system

d)

Respiratory system

109.

Oligohydramnios happens when there is obstruction to which fetal system in utero?

a)

Digestive system

b)

Urinary system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Nervous system

110.

What covers the umbilical cord?

a)

allantois

b)

Whartons Jelly

c)

Yolk sac

d)

Amniotic fluid

111.

Measurement of the cerebellum is best made at the level of the:

a)

Thalamus, hippocampus, midbrain

b)

Vermis, midbrain, cisterna magna

c)

sphenoid, temporal bone, pituitary stalk

d)

foramen magnum, pons, fourth ventricle

112.

A percentage of the fetal blood from the IVC is shunted from

a)

Left to right atrium

b)

Right to left atrium

c)

Ductus venosus to left atrium

d)

Right atrium to ductus arteriosus

113.

An embryo presents with an outpouching from the anterior abdominal wall into the base of the umbilical cord and is covered by a membrane. This is MOST likely to be?

a)

Gastroschisis

b)

Umbilical hernia

c)

Omphalocele

d)

Normal herniation of the fetal gut

114.

The Spalding sign is most often associated with

a)

Fetal hydrops

b)

IUGR

c)

Fetal demise

d)

Pleural effusion

115.

The "lemon" and "banana" sign are usually associated with:

a)

Renal agenesis

b)

Dandy-Walker malformation

c)

Arnold-Chiari malformation

d)

Duodenal atresia

116.

A complex mass appearing on either side of the fetal neck is mostly likely a:

a)

Meningomyelocele

b)

Cystic hygroma

c)

Cephalocele

d)

Choroid plexus cyst

117.

Which of the following is not a sonographic finding of a hydatidiform mole?

a)

Theca lutein cyst

b)

Grapelike clusters throughout the uterus

c)

Homogenous uterine texture

d)

Low-impedance, high flow doppler pattern

118.

The most common cause of painless bleeding in the 2nd and 3rd trimester in pregnancy is:

a)

Trauma

b)

ectopic pregnancy

c)

Placental abruption

d)

Placenta previa

119.

Which of the following is a double fold of dura mater that separates the cerebral hemispheres and is a BPD landmark?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Falx cerebri

c)

Cisterna magnum

d)

Cavum septum pellucidi

120.

What references or landmarks should be used to document the biparietal diameter?

a)

Thalamus, cavum septum pellucid, falx cerebri, 3rd ventricle

b)

Thalamus only

c)

Cerebellum, cisterna magnum, nuchal fold

d)

Falx, cisterna magnum, 4th ventricle

121.

Hydrops fetalis is characterized by?

a)

Cystic masses within the lungs

b)

Edema, ascites, pleural or pericardial effusion

c)

dilated ventricles

d)

Pericardial effusion only

122.

If an anterior abdominal wall mass is seen just to the right of the umbilical cord, the most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Gastroschisis

b)

Omphalocele

c)

Hernia

d)

Limp-body wall defect

123.

Trophoblastic disease which extends outside the uterus and spreads to the lungs or brain is called:

a)

Choriocarcinoma

b)

Hydatidiform mole

c)

Endometrioma

d)

Lung gestational molar

124.

BPD diameter should be taken from:

a)

Outer to outer

b)

Outer to inner

c)

Inner to inner

d)

Inner to outer

125.

A 22-year-old gravid patient presents with oligohydramnios. Which of the following would be least likely?

a)

Anencephaly

b)

Post term pregnancy

c)

renal agenesis

d)

Premature rupture of the membranes

126.

Acrania is partial or complete absence of the cranium, the fetus has an abnormally shaped head referred to as _____.

a)

Blueberry head

b)

Mickey mouse head

c)

Lemon Head

d)

Banana head

127.

Which of the following is a dilation of the ventricular system without enlargement of the cranium and shows the choroid plexus "dangling"

a)

Ventriculomegaly aka Hydrocephaly

b)

Cephalocele

c)

Holoprosencephaly

d)

Dandy-walker malformation

128.

Failure of the prosencephalon to divide into 2 cerebral hemispheres & ventricles is known as?

a)

Holoprosencephaly

b)

dandy walker malformation

c)

ventriculomegaly

d)

cephalocele

129.

Cystic dilation of the 4th ventricle with agenesis of the cerebellum is known as?

a)

Acrania

b)

cystic hygroma

c)

Dandy walker malformation

d)

Spina bifida

130.

Brain necrosis from occlusion of the internal carotid artery is known as?

a)

Cephalocele

b)

Hydranencephaly

c)

Acrania

d)

Spina bifida

131.

A midline cranial defect with herniation of the brain and meninges primarily in the occipital area is known as?

a)

Spina bifida

b)

Cephalocele

c)

Ventriculomegaly

d)

Anencephaly

132.

A pregnancy that has both an intrauterine (normal) and extrauterine (ectopic) pregnancy is known as?

a)

none of the above

b)

Cervical pregnancy

c)

Heterotopic pregnancy

d)

Interstitial pregnancy

133.

Which of the following is the most life threatening of all ectopic pregnancy's?

a)

Ampulla pregnancy

b)

Cornual or interstitial pregnancy

c)

Abdominal Pregnancy

d)

Ovarian Pregnancy

134.

A gestational sac without an embryo is?

a)

Placental hematoma

b)

anembryonic pregnancy or blighted ovum

c)

complete abortion

d)

subchorionic hemorrhage

135.

The most common occurrence of bleeding in the first trimester is from?

a)

Blighted Ovum

b)

Fetal Demise

c)

Subchorionic Hemorrhage

d)

Placental hematomas

136.

What is the most accurate ultrasound measurement for determining gestational age in the first trimester?

a)

BPD

b)

FL (femur length)

c)

Crown rump length

d)

Head circumference

137.

At what gestational age can the gestational sac first be visualized on transvaginal ultrasound?

a)

3-4 weeks

b)

4-5 weeks

c)

5-6 weeks

d)

6-7 weeks

138.

The side-by-side appearance of the amnion and the yolk sac is described as the:

a)

"double bleb sign"

b)

"Mickey Mouse sign"

c)

"Lemon Sign"

d)

"double decidual sign"

139.

Two echogenic rings around the sac are called the ____ the outer ring is the decidua parietalis, the inner ring decidua capsularis. The presence of this sign is highly indicative of early IUP

a)

Banana sign

b)

double decidual sign

c)

double bleb sign

d)

Mickey mouse sign

140.

Which structure appears at 5-6 weeks in early pregnancy and is the 1st structure to function?

a)

brain

b)

stomach

c)

Heart

d)

liver

141.

What is the fetal portion of the placenta called and what is the maternal portion of the placenta?

a)

Decuidua basalis and yolk sac

b)

Chorion plate and decidua basalis

c)

none of the above

d)

Embryonic disk and chorion villi

142.

What percentage does the heart occupy in the fetal thoracic cavity?

a)

1/4

b)

1/5

c)

1/3

d)

2/3

143.

Most commonly PID is caused by:

a)

Perihepatic inflammation

b)

Peritonitis

c)

Sexually transmitted diseases

d)

ruptured appendix

144.

When periovarian adhesions that distort anatomy form, the ovary cannot be separated from the inflamed dilated tube it is called the _____.

a)

Salpingitis

b)

Tubo-ovarian complex

c)

Ademyosis

d)

pyosalpinx

145.

The most common pelvis mass associated with pregnancy is the:

a)

Uterine leiomyoma

b)

Dermoid cyst

c)

Theca luteum cyst

d)

Corpus luteum cyst

146.

Dangling choroid sign is associated with:

a)

Ventriculomegaly

b)

Hydranencephaly

c)

Lissencephaly

d)

Meckel gruber syndrome

147.

The most common cause of hydrocephalus in utero is:

a)

Cerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Holoprosencephaly

c)

Brain tumors

d)

Aqueductal stenosis

148.

The band of tissue that allows communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres is the:

a)

Falx cerebri

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Cerebellar vermis

d)

CSP

149.

Causes of female infertility include all of the following except:

a)

Previous IUD use

b)

PCOS

c)

Asherman syndrome (Synechiae)

d)

Endometriosis

150.

All of the following are possible locations for fibroids except:

a)

Intraligamentus

b)

Subserosal

c)

submucosal

d)

tubal

151.

What vessels are often seen around the periphery of the uterus, and what vessels arise from branches of these vessels?


a)

Arcuate & radial vessels 

b)

Myometrial & endometrial vessels

c)

Internal iliac & cortical vessels

d)

Uterine & ovarian vessel

152.

The ligaments that attach the ovaries to the lateral pelvic sidewall are the:

a)

Suspensory ligaments

b)

Broad ligament

c)

Round Ligament

d)

Lateral ligament

153.

What effects do high levels of FSH have?

a)

Growth & maturation of ovarian follicles

b)

Growth & maturation of the corpus luteum

c)

Growth & maturation of endometrium

d)

Stimulates ovulation

154.

 WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MUSCLES IS SEEN SONOGRAPHICALLY ANTERIOR &LATERAL TO THE URINARY BLADDER?

a)

PSOAS

b)

PIRIFORMIS

c)

LEVATOR ANI

d)

OBTURATOR INTERNUS

155.

Which of the following about the ovaries is false?

a)


The ovaries are attached at the anterior aspect of the broad ligaments

b)

The ovaries are almond shaped

c)

The ovaries lie in the ovarian fossa

d)

The ovaries receive blood from the ovarian and uterine arteries

156.

WHAT HORMONE IS RELEASED BY THE PITUITARY GLAND?

a)

FSH

b)

GnRH

c)

ESTROGENN

d)

PROGESTERONE

157.

A 24 yr old female presents for a sonographic exam of the pelvis. The sonographer notices that the endometrium is isoechoic to the myometrium & outlined by a hyperechoic line, with another hyperechoic line in the center. One would assume that the patient is in which stage of her menstrual cycle?

a)

Late proliferative

b)

Early proliferative

c)

Secretory phase

d)

Luteal phase

158.

Sonographic evidence of a hypoechoic, hypervascular, irregular-shaped structure within the ovary most likely represents which of the following?

a)

Secondary ovarian follicle

b)

Corpus luteum

c)

Primordial follicle

d)

Graafian follicle

159.

The pituitary gland releases what two hormones during the

 ovarian endocrine cycle?

a)

LH & PROGESTERONE

b)

GnRH & LH

c)

ESTROGEN & PROGESTERON

d)

FSH & LH

160.

The rectouterine space is also known as which one of the following?

a)

Anterior cul-de-sac

b)

Space of Retzius

c)

Posterior cul-de-sac 

d)

Pouch of dodd

161.

All are regions of the broad ligament except:

a)

Mesovarium

b)

Mesosalpinx

c)

Mesometrium

d)

Mesomyometrium

162.

Corpus luteum immediately begins secreting:

a)

LH

b)

FSH

c)

Estrogen

d)

Progesterone

163.

The average menstrual cycle lasts approximately ___ days, beginning with the first day of menses.

a)

12 days

b)

31 days

c)

28 days

d)

2 days

164.

 FUNDUS IS THE PORTION OF THE URETUS SUPERIOR TO THE:

a)

Cervix

b)

Round ligament

c)

Cornua

d)

Uterine artery

165.

What muscle group may be seen in the false pelvis along the lateral side walls of the pelvis?

a)

Obturator Internus

b)

Iliopsoas

c)

Rectus sheath

d)

Psoas major

166.

The anterior cul de sac, or ___________________pouch, is located anterior to the fundus of the uterus between the ______________ and the _____________.

a)

Vesicouterine pouch, bladder & pubic symphysis

b)

Vesicouterine pouch, rectum & pubic symphysis

c)

Vesicouterine, bladder & uterrus

d)

Rectouterine, bladder & pubic symphysis 

167.

Secretory phase of endometrial cycle corresponds to _____________ of ovarian cycle.

a)

Luteal phase

b)

Follicular phase

c)

Ovulatory phase

d)

none of the above

168.

Flexion refers to the axis of the uterine body relative to the:

a)

fundus

b)

cervix

c)

vagina

d)

cornua

169.

This hormone can benefit women by reducing the risk of endometrial hyperplasia/cancer however it can lead to breast cancer

a)

Progesterone

b)

FSH

c)

LH

d)

Estrogen

170.

Bicornuate uterus is a congenital malformation that results from incomplete fusion of the:

a)

Mullerian ducts

b)

wolffian ducts

c)

Graafain ducts

d)

Bartholin ducts

171.

Which of the following ovarian masses does not secrete hormones?

a)

Infected cyst

b)

corpus luteum

c)

Theca luteum cyst

d)

follicular cyst

172.

Which type of leiomyoma tends to be the most symptomatic?

a)

Submucosal

b)

Intramural

c)

Interstitial

d)

Subserosal

173.

Which of the following vessels is also known as the hypogastric artery?

a)

Ovarian artery

b)

Internal iliac artery

c)

Internal iliac vein

d)

External artery

174.

ADENOMYOSIS IS ECTOPIC ENDOMETRIUM:

a)


MUSCULAR LAYER

b)

OVARIES

c)

BROAD LIGAMENT

d)

UTERINE TUBES

175.

which of the following will appear as a cyst in the cervical region of the uterus?

a)

Nabothian cyst

b)

Gartner duct cyst

c)

Cervical stenosis

d)

Myometrium cyst

176.

The following are all benefits of estrogen replacement therapy EXCEPT

a)

Alleviates menopausal symptoms

b)

Reduces risk of osteoporosis

c)

Reduces risk of heart attacks

d)

Decrease the risk of endometrial hyperplasia/cancer 

177.

Which of the following will appear as a cyst in the vaginal region?

a)

Cervical cancer

b)

Cervical cancer

c)

Gartner duct cyst

d)

Nabothian cyst

178.

Benign invasive growth of the endometrium that may cause heavy, painful menstrual bleeding:

a)

Intramural leiomyoa

b)

Adenomyosis

c)

Submucosal leiomyoma

d)

Subserosal leiomyoma

179.

What is the most common type of leiomyoma that deforms the myometrium?

a)

Intramural

b)

Submucosal

c)

Pedunculated

d)

Subserosal

180.

Sonohysterography is a common procedure used to determine some causes of infertility, including

a)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

b)

Endometriosis

c)

Endometrial polyp

d)

Adenomyosis

181.

The most dangerous location for an ectopic pregnancy is______________

a)

Abdominal

b)

Ampullary

c)

Ovarian

d)

Cornual

182.

Location of uterine fibroid do not include:

a)

Intraligamentus

b)

Submucosal

c)

Subserosal

d)

Tubal

183.

 A patient who has never had a menstrual period is said to have:

a)

Menopause

b)

Precocious puberty

c)

Primary amenorrhea

d)

Secondary amenorrhea

184.

ALL ARE CLINICAL FINDING OF POLYP EXCEPT:

a)

FEEDING VESSEL

b)

INFERTILITY

c)

MENORRHAGIA

d)

HEAVY BLEEDING

185.

Pelvic inflammatory disease is most commonly caused by:

a)

Ruptured ovarian cyst

b)

Sexually transmitted diseases

c)

IUCD

d)

hydrosalpinx

186.

A fibroid is sonographically indistinguishable from:

a)

Nabothian cyst

b)

Adenomyosis

c)

Endometrial carcinoma

d)

Leiomyosarcoma

187.

NORMAL PHYSIOLOGICAL FLUID IN THE POSTEROR CUL-DE-SAC IS COMMON WITH:

a)

PID

b)

ECTOPIC PREGNANCY

c)

OVULATION

d)

UTERINE FIBROID

188.

All are true for normal gestational sac except:

a)

YS is present when GS is larger than 1.2 cm

b)

Anechoic trophoblastic wall

c)

Embryo is present when GS is larger than 25 mm

d)

Round or oval with smooth border  

189.

The inner cell mass develop into all except:

a)

Yolk sac

b)

Embryo

c)

Amnion

d)

Chorion

190.

Select the fetal position that offers a true sagittal view of the spine:

a)

Prone

b)

Transverse

c)

Oblique

d)

Cephalic

191.

Choose the anatomy that can be detected in the fetal neck:

a)

Anterior communicating artery

b)

Carotid bifurcation

c)

Brachial Artery

d)

Superior vena cava

192.

 A patient is seen with heavy bleeding 5 days after delivery. Ultrasound reveals an enlarged postpartum uterus with an echogenic mass. this suggests which of the following?

a)

Partial mole

b)

Placenta previa

c)


Retained product of conception

d)

Retroplacental hemorrhage

193.

Normal fetal brain parenchyma appears _____________ because of small size reflectors and high water content in tissue.

a)

Hyperechoic

b)

Hypoechoic

c)

Homogenous

d)

Heterogenous

194.

Most common clinical presentation for complications of 1st trimester is:

a)

Irregular GS

b)

Dilated internal OS

c)

GS in lower uterine segment

d)

Vaginal spotting or bleeding

195.

All of the following are associated with a decreased serum hCG except:

a)

Partial mole

b)

Incorrect dates

c)

Embryonic demise

d)

Missed abortion

196.

The etiology of hydatidiform mole is:

a)

Swelling of the retained placenta in missed abortion

b)

none of the above

c)

Trophoblastic changes in a blighted ovum

d)

Fertilization of an ovum without any active chromosomal material

197.

 Cerebellar hemisphere is join by:

a)

Vermis

b)

Corpus collosum

c)

Logitudinal fissure

d)

Sulci & gyri

198.

Women with endometriosis may have:

a)

Dyspareunia

b)

Metromenorrhagia

c)

Dysmenorrhea

d)

All of the above

199.

 All of the following structure are seen in posterior fossa except:

a)

Cisterna magna

b)

Cerebellar hemisphere

c)

Nuchal fold

d)

Cervical vertebra

200.

SIS is useful in diagnosis of ovarian pathology:

a)

True

b)

False

201.

The cause of endometrioma is same as endometriosis:

a)

True

b)

False

202.

Type of fibroid found to deform the endometrial cavity & causes heavy or irregular bleeding is subserosal fibroid

a)

True

b)

False

203.

Type of fibroid that may become pedunculated & appear as extrauterine mass is:

a)

Intraligamentary

b)

Intramural

c)

Subserosal

d)

Submucosal

204.

Space of Retzius is also called as retropubic or prevesical space:

a)

True

b)

False

205.

Hemorrhagic cyst is a functional cyst:

a)

True

b)

False

206.

Broad ligaments hold the uterus forward:

a)

True

b)

False

207.

All of the following are reasons for High hCG levels except:

a)

Incorrect dates

b)

More than one embryo

c)

Ectopic pregnancy

d)

Molar pregnancy

208.

All are Tripple screen hormones used to check for chromosomal abnormalities except:

a)

Estriol aka unconjugated estrogen

b)

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

c)

hCG

d)

PAPPA (plasma protein)

209.

The reduction in blood return to the maternal heart caused by the gravid uterus compressing the maternal IVC describes:

a)

Edwards syndrome

b)

Pulmonary obstructive syndrome

c)

Supine hypotensive syndrome

d)

Recumbent hypotensive syndrome

210.

The quadruple screen includes an analysis of all the following except:

a)

hCG

b)

alpha-fetoprotein

c)

Inhibin A

d)

PAPPA

211.

Typically with Gastroschisis the AFP value will be:

a)

Elevated

b)

Decreased

c)

This laboratory finding is not helpful

d)

unchanged

212.

What fetal suture is located within the frontal bone along the midline of the forehead?

a)

Lambdoidal suture

b)

Sagittal suture

c)

Metopic suture

d)

Squamosal suture

213.

A patient has a history of endometriosis and presents with sudden onset of LLQ pain. The  βhCG is pending and  her LMP was 2 ½ weeks ago. The sonographer identifies a 4 cm adnexal mass with low level echoes & posterior acoustic enhancement. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Endometrioma

b)

Ovarian torsion

c)

Hemorrhagic ovarian cyst

d)

Mucinous cystadenoma

214.

The diagnosis of placenta previa is most accurately made:

a)

Transabdominally with full maternal bladder

b)


Transabdominally with an empty maternal bladder

c)

Transrectally

d)

Transvaginal

215.

What occurs when there is fetal demise and the gestational parts remain in utero?

a)

Incomplete or missed abortion 

b)

Spontaneous abortion

c)

Blighted ovum

d)

Ectopic pregnancy

216.

On color Doppler U/S. most malignant ovarian tumors yield flow signals that are best characterized as:

a)

Avascular

b)

High impedance

c)

Low Impedance

d)

No flow

217.

The cavum septum pellucidi is observed in front of the:

a)

Thalamus

b)

Peduncles

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Corpus callosum

218.

A sonographic examination was performed on a pregnant patient who complained of vaginal bleeding. Sonographically, a crescent shaped anechoic area is noted adjacent to the gestation sac. The gestation sac contained a 6-week single live intrauterine pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Ectopic pregnancy

b)

Molar pregnancy

c)

Subchorionic hemorrhage

d)

Anembryonic gestation

219.

All the statements about broad ligament are true except:

a)

It’s a double folds of peritoneum

b)

It is major suspensory ligament of uterus

c)

It drapes over fallopian tube, ovaries & uterus

       

d)

Extend from lateral side of uterus to side wall

220.

A patient presents with a dilated cervical os and an irregular shaped gestational sac in the lower uterine segment. This is most likely a:

a)

Inevitable Abortion

b)

Blighted ovum

c)

Complete Abortion

d)

Threatened Abortion

221.

the nonfunctional layer of the endometrium is the:

a)

Basal Layer

b)

Myometrium

c)

Endometrial cavity

d)

Functional Layer

222.

ALL ARE SIGN OF SEPTIC ABORTION EXCEPT?

a)

SEEN AFTER MISSED ABORTION

b)


AIR BUBBLE WITHIN THE UTERUS

c)


 SEEN AFTER COMPLETE ABORTION

d)

SEEN AFTER INCOMPLETE ABORTION

223.

Which of the following is not a potential cause of PID is?

a)

IUCD

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Postabortion

d)

Chlamydia

224.

The most dependent recess in the body is the:

a)

Morisons pouch

b)

Anterior Vaginal fornix

c)

Posterior vaginal fornix

d)

Posterior cul-de-sac

225.

A patient presents with cramping and heavy vaginally bleeding with clots, and is 8 weeks pregnant.  what is the most likely differential diagnosis?

a)

INCOMPLETE    ABORTION 

b)

THREATENED ABORTION

c)

SYMPTOMS ARE NOT SPECIFIC

d)

INEVITABLE ABORTION

226.

The vagina may be partially / completely absent or obstructed by a membrane in early development, this may result in the following.

a)

Hematocolpometra

b)

Hematocolpos

c)

Hematometra

d)

All of the above

227.

What is a typical Doppler waveform pattern for trophoblastic flow?

a)

Low resistance, high velocity 

b)

High resistance, High velocity

c)

Low resistance, low velocity

d)

High resistance, low velocity

228.

The decidual reaction that changes in the endometrium opposite the site of implantation is:

a)

Decidua Basalis

b)

Decidua Capsularis

c)

Decidua frondosum

d)

Decidua Parietalis

229.

The velamentous placenta refers to a/an:

a)

Membranous insertion of the cord

b)

Insertion of the umbilical cord at the margin of the placenta

c)

Insertion of the umbilical cord near the edge of the placenta

d)

Arteriovenous anastomosis of the vessels within the placenta

230.

Prolong severe oligohydramniosis most likelyto leadto which of the following condition?

a)

Pulmonary hypoplasia

b)

Femus dysplaia

c)

Posterm pregancy

d)

Single umbilical artery

231.

Because of the low density of brain tissue, the texture of the brain may appear:

a)

Hypoechoic

b)

Hyperechoic

c)

Inhomogeneous

d)

Echogenic

232.

The amount of amniotic fluid is regulated by all except which of the following?

a)

The production of fluid

b)

The removal of the fluid by swallowing

c)

Fluid exchange within the heart

d)

The membranes and cord

233.

SUPINE HYPOVOLUMIC SYNDROME CAUSES ALL EXCEPT:

a)

DECREASE BP

b)

INCREASE CARDIAC OUTPUT

c)

AKA IVC SYNDROME

d)

DECREASE VENOUS OUTPUT

234.

Oligohydramnios is associated with all except which of the following?

a)

Fetal renal anomolies

b)

Gastrointestinal disorders

c)

Rupture of the intrauterine membranes

d)

Postdate pregnancy

235.

THE CM APPEARS ON U/S WHEN THE FETUS IS SUPINE POSITION, AS AN

a)

ANECHOIC SPACE SUPERIOR TO THE CEREBELLUM

b)

ECHOGENIC SPACE INFERIOR TO THE CEREBELLUM

c)

ECHOGENIC SPACE SUPERIOR TO THE CEREBELLUM

d)

ANECHOIC SPACE INFERIOR TO THE CEREBELLUM

236.

Which of the following is a cystic lesion of the umbilical cord caused by persistent dilation of the omphalomesenteric duct, most commonly affects females and is associated with Meckel diverticulum?

a)

Hemangioma

b)

Gastroschisis

c)

Ophalomesenteric cyst

d)

Omphalocele

237.

What is the most common cord entanglement in the fetus, it is associated with a long cord?

a)

Nuchal cord

b)

False knots

c)

Thrombosis of the umbilical vein

d)

True Knots

238.

A battledore placenta is?

a)

Fundal placenta attachment

b)

Placenta located over the internal OS

c)

Cord insertion into the margin of the placenta

d)

Cord insertion into the fetal membranes

239.

A Velamentous insertion refers to?

a)

An accessory lobe of the placenta

b)

Umbilical cord that attaches to the fetal membranes first then the placenta

c)

Umbilical cord that attaches to the margin of the placenta

d)

Placenta that lies over the internal cervical os

240.

Amniotic band syndrome consists of?

a)

All of the above

b)

A syndrome that occurs after the fetus swallows to much fluid

c)

Adhesions of torn amniotic membrane wrapped around fetal parts and producing congenital amputations

d)

complications of placenta abruption

241.

A growth restricted fetus will show a doppler pattern in the umbilical cord that is?

a)

Low resistance

b)

High resistance

c)

Normal

d)

Increased diastolic flow

242.

When placental tissue is seen to extend beyond the external uterine wall into the bladder this condition is?

a)

Placenta Previa

b)

Placenta Percreta

c)

Placenta increta

d)

Placenta accreta

243.

Causes of polyhydramnios include all of the following:

a)

Congenital abnormalities

b)

heart failure

c)

Gastrointestinal anomalies

d)

amniotic bands

244.

All of the following statements regarding hydatidiform mole are true except:

a)

Considered as tumor of trophoblastic tissue, they are incapable of metastasizing   

b)

Previous mole result in increased risk for recurrence

c)

It is associated with marked elevated hCG levels

d)

The U/S appearance is similar to that of a degenerating myoma

245.

The following are causes of infertility among couples except:

a)

Theca –Lutein cysts 

b)


Endometriosis

c)

Ovulatory failure

d)

Asherman’s syndrome

246.

Meigs syndrome is associated with what ovarian tumor?

a)

Fibroma

b)

Ovarian cystadenoma

c)

Cysticteratoma

d)

Yolk sac tumor

247.

The largest part of the uterus is the:

a)

Fundus

b)

Corpus

c)

cervix

d)

Isthmus

248.

2nd and 3rd trimester are also known as:

a)

Development age

b)

Growth age

c)

Maturation age

d)

none of the above

249.

After 1st trimester hCG is a hormone produced by the:

a)

Placenta

b)

Trophoblastic cells

c)

Chorion

d)

Yolk sac

250.

A succenturiate placenta is a:

a)

Accessory lobe of the placenta

b)

small placenta

c)

early matured placenta

d)

Benign tumor of the placenta

251.

All of the following are characteristics of a grade 3 placenta except

a)

Smooth homogenous

b)

Interlobar septal calcifications

c)

Indentations that reach the basal plate called "cotyledon formation"

d)

Basilar calcifications

252.

True or False: The placenta is hyperechoic to the myometrium

a)

True

b)

False

253.

The most common tumor of the placenta is the:

a)

Choriocarcinoma

b)

Subplacental hematoma

c)

Chorioangioma

d)

Placenta percreta

254.

The term fetus papyraceus refers to a condition where the fetus;

a)

Is reabsorbed, leaving no detectable sign

b)

Lacks normal bone structure

c)

Dies, but persists as a flattened structure with bones

d)

Lacks red blood cells rendering it white as paper

255.

A 30 year old gravid patient, 32 weeks by date, now presents with painless vaginal bleeding that has lasted for 5 days. The first condition to rule out by sonography is:

a)

Hydatidiform mole

b)

Ectopic pregnancy

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Ovarian cyst

256.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be found in the fetus of a diabetic mother?

a)

Cardiac anomalies

b)

IUGR

c)

Microsomia

d)

skeletal and CNS anomalies

257.

The presence of hypertension in the 2nd or 3rd trimester is NOT LIKELY to increase the risk of:

a)

Fetal hyrdops

b)

IUGR

c)

Placental abruption

d)

Toxemia

258.

Generalized swelling and edema of skin throughout the body is termed:

a)

Asherman syndrome

b)

Anasarca

c)

Ascites

d)

Pericardial effusion

259.

True or False: Varix of the umbilical vein is a focal dilation of the vein nearly always intraabdominal but extrahepatic in location.

a)

True

b)

False

260.

Sonohysterography is a common procedure used to determine some causes of infertility, including:

a)

A.) Intracavitary fibroid

b)

B.) Endometrial Polyp

c)

C.) Endometriosis

d)

D.) A and B both the intracavitary fibroid & Endometrial Polyp