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PBN - RADIO NAVIGATION EASA 2022

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to ICAO PBN Manual, the airspace concept has been developed in order to satisfy the following strategic objectives: safety, capacity, efficiency, environment and access. This is to be achieved by enhancements in:

a)

Communications (COM)

b)

Navigation (NAV)

c)

Surveillance (SUR)

d)

Air Traffic Management (ATM)

2.

List the factors used to define area navigation (RNAV) or required navigation performance (RNP) system performance requirements:

a)

accuracy, integrity, continuity, complexity

b)

accuracy, continuity

c)

accuracy, integrity

d)

accuracy, integrity, continuity

3.

List all components of performance-based navigation (PBN):

a)

Navigation Specification and Navigation Application

b)

Navigational Regulation, Navigation Specification and Navigation Application

c)

Navigational Aid Infrastructure, Navigation Specification and Navigation Application

d)

Navigational Aid Infrastructure and Navigation Specification

4.

What is true about performance-based navigation (PBN)?

a)

It is not sensor specific.

b)

It requires the development of sensor-specific procedures and routes.

c)

It is similar to conventional navigation; both require a ground-based infrastructure.

d)

It is based on navigation specifications which are sensor specific.

5.

A PBN system cannot be based on:

a)

GPS

b)

NDB/DME

c)

DME/DME

d)

IRU

6.

In the approach phases of flight, PBN accommodates:

a)

angular laterally guided operations.

b)

linear laterally guided operations.

c)

both linear and angular laterally guided operations.

d)

no laterally guided operations but only longitudinally guided operations.

7.

In oceanic/remote, en-route, and terminal phases of flight. PBN is limited to:

a)

operations with angular lateral performance requirements and time constraints.

b)

linear and angular laterally guided operations.

c)

operations with linear lateral performance requirements and time constraints.

d)

ILS/MLS/GLS approach and landing operations.

8.

Define performance-based navigation (PBN).

a)

A three-dimensional optimum flight path computed by the FMS with reference to aircraft data stored in its performance database and pilot-entered flight parameters.

b)

The selection of airway routings and instrument procedures according to the performance capabilities and rights specified in the licenses of the pilots.

c)

Area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an instrument approach procedure or in a designated airspace.

d)

A specified combination of ground- and satellite-based as well as inertial navigation equipment designed to ensure a performance which allows aircraft to be operated in certain airspaces or along ATS routes.

9.

Which of the following are components of PBN?

a)

1. The NAVAID infrastructure

b)

2. Pilot training

c)

3. The navigation specification

d)

4. Integrity control

e)

5. The navigation application

10.

Which statement is true if you compare raw data with compute data?

a)

Sensor-based data is often referred to raw data. PBN is mainly based on such data.

b)

Conventional radio navigation is based on raw data like information from navigation aids and measured air data.

c)

PBN is based on computed data which is highly sensor specific.

d)

Raw data are based on computed data.

11.

"X" in RNAV X or RNP X is the (1)_________ navigation accuracy (total system error) in (2)_______, which is expected to be achieved at least (3)______ of the flight time by the population of aircraft operating within the airspace, route or procedure.

a)

(1) lateral; (2) NM; (3) 95 %

b)

(1) lateral; (2) km: (3) 90 %

c)

(1) longitudinal; (2) NM; (3) 99%

d)

(1) lateral; (2) NM; (3) 93 %

12.

RNAV 10 and RN P 4 are used:

a)

in the oceanic and remote phase of flight.

b)

in the approach phase of flight.

c)

in all phases of flight, except in the oceanic and remote phase of flight.

d)

in the en-route, approach and departure phase of flight.

13.

On some charts you can find the following abbreviations: "RNP AR APCH". What does "AR" mean?

a)

AREA

b)

AUTHORIZATION REQUIRED

c)

ARRIVING

d)

AERODROME RUNWAY

14.

RNAV 1 and RNP 1 are used:

a)

in the arrival and departure phases of flight.

b)

in all phases of flight, except for oceanic and remove phases.

c)

in the arrival phases of flight.

d)

in the departure phases of flight.

15.

RNP 2 is used:

a)

in the en-route and terminal phases of flight.

b)

in all phases of flight.

c)

in the en-route, oceanic and remote phases of flight.

d)

in oceanic and remote phases of flight.

16.

State the difference between Area Navigation (RNAV) and Required Navigation Performance (RNP). RNP is RNAV that includes requirements for:

a)

integrating air traffic control (ATC) surveillance monitoring and alerting.

b)

ground-based and satellite-based performance monitoring and alerting.

c)

satellite-based performance monitoring and alerting.

d)

on-board performance monitoring and alerting.

17.

RNP APCH is used:

a)

in all phases of flight, except for oceanic and remote phases.

b)

in all phases of flight, except for approach phases.

c)

in the arrival and en-route phases of flight.

d)

in the approach phase of flight.

18.

RNP AR APCH is used:

a)

in all phases of flight, except for approach phases.

b)

in the approach phase of flight.

c)

in all phases of flight, except for remote phases.

d)

in the arrival, approach and en-route phases of flight.

19.

List all basic functional requirements of the RNAV and RNP specifications:

1) continuous indication of lateral deviation

2) distance/bearing to active waypoint

3) Ground speed or time to active waypoint

4) navigation data storage

5) failure indication

a)

3, 4, 5

b)

1, 3, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d)

1, 2, 3, 5

20.

"RNP type" is defined as a containment value expressed as a distance in from the intended position within which flights would be far at least of the total flying time.

a)

Km, 90%

b)

Km, 95%

c)

NM, 90%

d)

NM, 95%

21.

Which of the following statements is true about RNP / RNAV navigation specifications?

a)

Aircraft approved for the more stringent functional requirements automatically meet the accuracy requirements of the navigation specification that has a less stringent functional requirement.

b)

Aircraft approved for the more stringent accuracy requirements automatically meet the functional requirements of the navigation specification that has a less stringent accuracy requirement.

c)

Aircraft approved for the more stringent accuracy requirements may not necessarily meet some of the functional requirements of the navigation specification that has a less stringent accuracy requirement.

d)

Accuracy requirements are always similar to the functional requirements.

22.

RNP 0.3 navigation specification is used:

a)

in all phases of flight, except for the final approach phase.

b)

in all phases of flight, except for oceanic, remote and final approach phases.

c)

in all phases of flight, except for oceanic and remote phases.

d)

in all phases of flight.

23.

Which of the following are some of the required navigation functionalities of RNAV and RNP specifications?

1. Continuous indication of lateral deviation

2. Continuous indication of vertical deviation

3. Distance and bearing to active waypoint

4. Groundspeed or time to the active waypoint

5. Navigation data storage

6. An FMC

a)

1, 2, 3 and 5

b)

1, 3, 4 and 5

c)

2, 4, 5 and 6

d)

2, 3, 4 and 6

24.

RNAV 2 might be used:

a)

in all phases of flight.

b)

in the en-route continental, arrival and departure phases of flight.

c)

in oceanic and remote phases of flight.

d)

in all phases of flight except approach phases

25.

You are briefing an approach to an airfield which uses PBN operations. Which kind of specifications do you encounter in the STAR?

1. RNAV 5

2. RNP AR APCH

3. RNAV 1

4. RNAV 10

a)

3, 4

b)

1, 3

c)

1, 2, 3, 4

d)

1, 3, 4

26.

RNP 0.3 is used...

a)

in all phases of flight, except for oceanic/remote and final approach, primarily far helicopters.

b)

in approach phases only.

c)

in oceanic phases of flights or over remote areas where the navaid infrastructure is rather weak compared to populated mainland areas.

d)

mainly on arrival and departure phases of flight.

27.

RNP 5 (Required Navigation Performance) requires a navigation accuracy of:

a)

+/- 5 NM lateral 99% of the flight time.

b)

+/- 5 NM lateral 95% of the flight time.

c)

+/- 5 km lateral 90% of the flight time.

d)

+/- 0.5 NM lateral 95% of the flight time.

28.

PBN path terminator "DF" means:

a)

Destination Fix

b)

Doppler Fix

c)

Designated Fix

d)

Direct Fix

29.

PBN path terminator "TF" means:

a)

Track to Fix

b)

Terminal Fix

c)

Tower Fix

d)

Time to Fix

30.

The PBN path terminators define:

a)

a specific type of termination of RNP or RNAV procedures.

b)

a specific type of termination of ATC clearances.

c)

a specific type of termination of a flight plan.

d)

a specific type of termination of the previous flight path.

31.

Concerning PBN - Performance Based Navigation - which of the following terms refers to fixed radius path for en-route sections?

a)

RF leg type.

b)

TMA leg type.

c)

ABC leg type.

d)

FRT leg type.

32.

What is correct about fly-by/fly-over waypoints and turns?

a)

A turn via a fly-over waypoint is always shorter than a rum via a fly-by waypoint.

b)

A fly-by waypoint is a waypoint at which a turn is initiated in order to join the next segment of a route or procedure.

c)

A fly-by waypoint is a waypoint which requires turn anticipation to allow tangential interception of the next segment of a route or procedure.

d)

A fly-over waypoint is a waypoint which requires rum anticipation to allow tangential interception of the next segment of a route or procedure.

33.

PBN path terminator "IF" means:

a)

Intermediate Fix

b)

Initial Fix

c)

Inner Fix

d)

Illuminated Fix

34.

Concerning PBN - Performance Based Navigation - what is the name of a curved terminal or approach section, defined by fix, radius & arc length?

a)

Fixed radius path.

b)

Radius approach.

c)

Curved terminal approach.

d)

Faxed arc approach.

35.

PBN path terminator "CA" means:

a)

Course to an Altitude

b)

Centre Altitude

c)

Certified Altitude

d)

Centre Approach

36.

PBN path terminator "FA" means:

a)

Fix to Approach

b)

Final Approach

c)

Fix to Altitude

d)

Final Altitude

37.

PBN path terminator "CF" means:

a)

Centre Fix

b)

Certified Fix

c)

Course to Fix

d)

Civil Fix

38.

An error during PBN operations rising from the RNAV system and its inability to accurately specify the desired path is a:

a)

Path Definition Error (PDE)

b)

Flight Technical Error (FTE)

c)

Navigation System Error (NSE)

d)

Crew Error (CE)

39.

For performance-based navigation (PBN) operations, the PBN navigation database cycle must be valid for the current AIRAC cycle. Updates to the PBN cycle occur every:

a)

28 days.

b)

45 days.

c)

14 days.

d)

90 days.

40.

During an RNP approach in the final approach segment. a message saying UNABLE RNP is displayed on the GNSS receiver. What should the pilot do?

a)

Initiate a missed approach.

b)

Continue using alternative means of navigation, if available (e.g. VOR, ILS).

c)

Limit the maximum deflection to half the instrument scale instead of full scale.

d)

Continue the approach to the next higher available minima only (e.g. LNAV instead of LNAV/VNAV)

41.

Which error of the on-board performance monitoring and alerting system for PBN operations is managed by on-board systems or crew procedures (pilot monitoring)?

a)

Flight Technical Error (FTE)

b)

Navigation System Error (NSE)

c)

Path definition Error (PDE)

d)

Total System Error (TSE)

42.

In preparation for an RNP approach, the GNSS equipment intended to be used shows a RAIM prediction error. This means, that...

a)

at the expected time of approach, an insufficient number of satellites to assure fault detection is predicted to be available.

b)

at the expected time of approach, the predicted navigation accuracy of the system is worse than the requirement far that approach coded in the database.

c)

the GNSS cannot calculate the estimated time of arrival at the initial approach fix.

d)

the automatic RAIM prediction function has failed and the pilot has to verify the number of available satellites with the ATC.

43.

The Total System Error (TSE) during PBN operations encompasses:

a)

PDE + FTE - NSE

b)

PDE + FTE + NSE

c)

PDE x FTE x NSE

d)

PDE x FTE / NSE

44.

When performing an RNP approach, which of the following situations leads to a missed approach unless sufficient visual contact is established?

1. Communications failure.

2. TCAS RA.

3. Position fix differs from the other instruments.

4. The actual navigation accuracy exceeds the required navigation accuracy.

5. The lateral deviation exceeds instrument full scale deflection.

a)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b)

2, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 4

d)

2, 3, 4, 5

45.

An error during PBN operations in the accuracy of determining actual aircraft coordinates is a:

a)

Path Definition Error (PDE)

b)

Flight Technical Error (FTE)

c)

Navigation System Error (NSE)

d)

Crew Coordination Error (CCE)

46.

An error during PBN operations related to the execution of flight along the defined path refers to a:

a)

Path Definition Error (PDE)

b)

Flight Technical Error (FTE)

c)

Navigation System Error (NSE)

d)

Flight Path Error (FPE)

47.

An RNP APCH to LNAV/VNAV minima based on BARO-VNAV can only be conducted when the aircraft is within a promulgated temperature range. The reason for this is that: (Assume: automatic correction system not installed)

a)

static vents can be blocked due to icing when approaching in IMC, hence leading to a loss of vertical guidance.

b)

the difference between true height and published decision height has to be limited to a maximum value.

c)

the assessment of the vertical position of the aircraft, in relation to the glide path angle (GPA) during the approach is based on barometric data.

d)

the calculated true air speed (TAS) is based on the standard atmosphere and any significant differences will lead to an approach speed which could be too slow or too fast.

48.

What is the difference between the on-board navigation specifications RNP1 and RNAV1?

a)

A performance-monitoring function is required for bath RNP 1 and RNAV 1. An alerting function is only required for RNP 1.

b)

An alerting function is required for bath RNP 1 and RNAV 1. A performance-monitoring function is only required for RNP 1.

c)

A performance-monitoring and alerting function is required for RNAV 1 only.

d)

A performance-monitoring and alerting function is required for RNP 1 only.

49.

From the selection below, choose a PBN procedure which is classified as a non-precision approach (NPA):

a)

RNP approach to LNAV/VNAV minima.

b)

RNP approach to LPV minima.

c)

RNP approach to LNAV minima.

d)

RNP approach to GLS minima.

50.

RNAV 1, RNAV 2, RNP 1 and RNP 2 routes can be modified by pilots:

a)

manually, by inserting range and bearing to a new waypoint, in response to an ATC clearance.

b)

manually, by inserting the geographical coordinates, in response to an ATC clearance.

c)

by deleting or inserting waypoints in the navigation database or manually by inserting rho/theta values of the new waypoint.

d)

by inserting or deleting waypoints in the database, in response to an ATC clearance.

51.

You are cleared by ATC to fly an RNAV STAR to your destination airport. On loading the STAR from your FMS, you notice a waypoint is missing on your navigation display (ND). Which of the follow statements are correct/ incorrect?

1. The route may be modified through the insertion or deletion of specific

waypoints (from the database), in response to an ATC re-clearance.

2. The STAR should be amended through the insertion of new waypoints

based on latitude/longitude or place/bearing/distance fixes.

a)

(1) correct. (2) correct

b)

(1) correct. (2) incorrect

c)

(1) incorrect, (2) correct

d)

(1) incorrect, (2) incorrect

52.

According to European regulations, which statement is correct regarding approval required for PBN specification?

a)

Some PBN operations require approval.

b)

All PBN operations require approval.

c)

PBN operations do not require approval.

d)

The approval required is operator dependent.

53.

Can operators extend their RNP 10 navigation capability time?

a)

No, this is not possible.

b)

Yes, they can extend the time by updating.

c)

Yes, they can extend the time by adding an additional LRNS.

d)

Yes, they can extend the time if the aircraft is equipped with two IRS systems.

54.

RNAV 10 requires that aircraft operating in oceanic and remote areas be equipped with at least:

a)

Two independent and serviceable long-range navigation systems (LRNSs) comprising an INS, an inertial reference system (IRS)/flight management system IRS (FMS) or a GNSS.

b)

Three independent and serviceable long-range navigation systems (LRNSs) comprising an INS, an inertial reference system (IRS)/flight management system IRS (FMS) or a GNSS.

c)

Two independent and serviceable long-range navigation systems (LRNSs) comprising an inertial reference system (IRS)/flight management system IRS (FMS) or a GNSS.

d)

Two independent and serviceable long-range navigation systems (LRNSs) comprising an INS or an inertial reference system (IRS)/flight management system IRS (FMS).

55.

In an RNAV approach to LNAV/VNAV minima, LNAV is based on GNSS and VNAV is based on:

a)

GBAS or Radio-VNAV

b)

SBAS or GBAS

c)

SBAS or Baro-VNAV

d)

Radio-VNAV or Baro-VNAV

56.

A-RNP incorporates the navigation specifications:

1. RNAV APCH

2. RNAV 1

3. RNAV 5

4.RNP1 /RNP2

5.RNP APCH

a)

2, 3, 4, 5

b)

1, 3, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 4, 5

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

57.

What kind of NAVAIDs are required for performance-based navigation (PBN) operations on a route for which RNP10 is required?

a)

DME/DME/IRU

b)

DME/DME

c)

VOR/DME

d)

None

58.

In case a discrepancy occurred between the on-board navigation database and the published procedure:

a)

the commander has to decide if an RNP APCH is possible.

b)

pilots can fly an RNP APCH after they have received a corresponding clearance from ATC.

c)

Pilots can fly an RNP APCH if they use higher minima.

d)

pilots must not fly an RNP APCH.

59.

What is required to fly an RNP approach with LPV minima?

a)

SBAS and FAS data block.

b)

Authorization.

c)

LNAV and VNAV capability.

d)

Be equipped with at least two LRNSs.

60.

Which of the following are considered PBN 3D approaches?

1. GNSS + VNAV

2. GLS

3. PAR

4. RNP 1

5. ILS

6. SBAS

a)

1 and 6

b)

1, 5 and 6

c)

1, 2, 4 and 6

d)

1, 2, 3, 4 and 6

61.

RNAV (RNP) is an RNP approach

a)

True

b)

False

62.

During normal RNP AR APCH, pilots should limit cross-track error to _________ the associated navigation accuracy.

a)

0.1

b)

0.3

c)

1

d)

1/2

63.

During normal RNP AR APCH, the vertical deviation during the Final Approach Segment (FAS) must be within:

a)

75ft

b)

100ft

c)

150ft

d)

200ft

64.

In the event that any loss of RNAV capability is experienced the pilot should:

a)

Notify ATC including the proposed course of action.

b)

Climb or descend 300 feet and notify ATC.

c)

Notify ATC and declare an emergency.

d)

Divert from the current track by 40 degrees and notify ATC

65.

Prior to commencing any kind of RNP procedure, flight crews should:

a)

Verify the correct sensor is being used for position computation when using a multisensor system.

b)

Confirm the correct procedure has been selected, including waypoint sequence, reasonableness of track angles, distances, and other parameters.

c)

Review maintenance logs and forms to ascertain the equipment required for flight in RNP airspace or on an RNP route is operational.

d)

All of the answers are correct.

66.

What letters identify Local RNAV routes?

a)

Q, T, Z or W

b)

T, Y, H or Q

c)

Q, Z, T or Y

d)

V, W, J or H

67.

What is RNP 0.3 used for?

a)

Oceanic, continental, en-route and airspaces considered to be remote

b)

Arrival and departure phases of flight

c)

Oceanic, remote continental, arrival and departure phases of flight

d)

All phases of flight except oceanic/remote and final approach

68.

What is a DF leg?

a)

a path that the aircraft's track from an initial area, direct to the next waypoint

b)

a path that terminates at a fix with a specified course at that fix

c)

a constant radius circular path around a defined turn point that starts and terminates at a fix

d)

a great circle track over the ground between two known database fixes

69.

When PBN is required for the route or procedure to be flown, that the relevant PBN navigation specification is stated in the:

a)

AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication) or other document

b)

Doc 9613 (Performance-based Navigation Manual) or other document

c)

NOTAM (Notice to Air Missions) or other document

d)

AFM (Aircraft Flight Manual) or other document

70.

The RNAV and RNP ________ issued for an aircraft's equipment depends on the manufacturer, class and model of the avionics used to satisfy the PBN requirements.

a)

Classifications

b)

Qualifications

c)

Specifications

d)

Performances

71.

When a/c use fly-by, turn of more than ______ degrees should be closely monitored to avoid possible overtake situations

a)

45

b)

90

c)

180

d)

360

72.

What is a CF leg?

a)

a path that the aircraft's track from an initial area, direct to the next waypoint

b)

a path that terminates at a fix with a specified course at that fix

c)

a constant radius circular path around a defined turn point that starts and terminates at a fix

d)

a great circle track over the ground between two known database fixes

73.

What is a CA leg?

a)

a specified track over the ground from a database fix to a specified altitude at an unspecified position

b)

a specified course to a specific altitude at an unspecified position

c)

a specified course to intercept a subsequent

d)

a specified heading to a specific altitude termination at an unspecified position

74.

Pre-stored information in Navigation Database include:

a)

NAVAIDs, Waypoints, Leg types, ATS Routes, Terminal Procedures, Related information

b)

NAVAIDs, Waypoints, ATS Routes, Emergency Procedures, Related information

c)

NAVAIDs, Waypoints, Leg types, ATS Routes, Holding Procedures, Related information.

d)

NAVAIDs, Waypoints, ATS Routes, Terminal Procedures, Related information

75.

A wide coverage augmentation system in which the user receives augmentation information from a satellite-based transmitter is

a)

Aircraft-based augmentation system (ABAS)

b)

Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS)

c)

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM)

d)

Satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS)

76.

an RNAV (GPS) approach with minimums that are typically lower than LNAV or LNAV/VNAV approaches is

a)

LP

b)

LPV

c)

LNAV

d)

Baro - VNAV

77.

An advanced function of the FMS designed to calculate and adjust the speed of the aircraft in an attempt to arrive at a point within a defined time limit is:

a)

Time of Arrival Calculation

b)

Time of Arrival Control

c)

Estimated Time of Arrival

d)

Time Of Arrival Function

78.

The letter "Z" in the approach title indicates:

a)

The pilot must be given the correct Zulu time prior to commencing the approach.

b)

The approach goes to multiple runways

c)

There is more the one RNAV approach to this runway

d)

None of the above

79.

Waypoint:

a)

a predetermined geographical position that is defined in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates.

b)

it may be a simple named point in space or associated with existing navaids, intersections, or fixes.

c)

most often used to indicate a change in direction, speed, or altitude along the desired path

d)

All of the answers are correct.

80.

A specified track over the ground from a database fix to a specific DME distance that is from a specific database DME NAVAID

a)

FD leg

b)

CD leg

c)

TD leg

d)

VD leg

81.

RAIM:

a)

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

b)

Radar Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

c)

Receiver Automatic Information Monitoring

d)

Receiver Autonomous Integrally Monitoring

82.

LPV: an RNAV (GPS) approach with minimums that are typically lower than ---------- approaches

a)

LNAV

b)

LNAV or LNAV/VNAV

c)
VOR
d)
NDB
83.

A set of aircraft and aircrew requirements needed to support Performance-based Navigation operations within a defined airspace.

a)

Navigation specification

b)
General Air Traffic rules
c)
Basic Flight Operation guidelines
d)
Standard Navigation protocols
84.

the application of a navigation specification and the supporting NAVAID infrastructure, to routes, procedures, and/or defined airspace volume, in accordance with the intended airspace concept.

a)
Navigation specification for weather forecasting.
b)

Application of navigation tools

c)

Navigation application

d)

Navigation specification

85.

navigation system which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.

a)
Flight Management System (FMS)
b)
Instrument Landing System (ILS)
c)
Global Positioning System (GPS)
d)

RNAV system

86.

An ATS route established for the use of aircraft adhering to a prescribed RNP navigation specification

a)
Standard ATS route
b)
RNP navigation route
c)
RNP flight path
d)
RNP ATS route
87.

A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) departure route linking the aerodrome or a specified runway of the aerodrome with a specified significant point, normally on a designated ATS route, at which the en-route phase of a flight commences

a)
Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Departure
b)
Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
c)
Standard Arrival Route (STAR)
d)
Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP)
88.

Performance-based Navigation (PBN), in simple terms, ___________________ based to performance based.

a)
Performance-based Navigation (PBN) is only applicable to military aircraft.
b)
Performance-based Navigation (PBN) redefines navigation capability from sensor-based to performance-based.
c)
PBN eliminates the need for any navigation systems.
d)
Performance-based Navigation (PBN) focuses solely on equipment upgrades.
89.

NAVIGATION PROCEDURES as an ________ to point-to-point navigation techniques using ground based stations only

a)
method
b)
strategy
c)
protocol
d)
alternative
90.

What are the primary navigation inputs used by RNAV system?

a)

INS, Mapping Radar, FMC database

b)

INS, Navigation Aids, TAS and Drift

c)

Nav Aids, INS, FMC database

d)

Nav Aids, Mapping Radar, FMC database

91.

Which of the following is a 2D approach?

a)

ILS

b)

LPV

c)

LNAV

d)

LNAV/VNAV

92.

Which of the following is a 3D approach?

a)

LNAV

b)

VOR/DME

c)

LPV

d)

SRA

93.

Which of the following may be required for a LNAV/VNAV approach? (Select 2)

a)

SBAS

b)

Dual GNSS sensors

c)

Baro/VNAV

d)

DME

94.

Which of the following requires specific authorisation?

a)

SRA

b)

RNP APCH

c)

RNP AR APCH

d)

RNAV 1

95.

For the RNAV 5 specification, the population of aircraft operating within the airspace, route, or procedure are expected to be

a)

Within 5nm of the desired path at least 95% of the time

b)

Within 5nm of their displayed position at least 95% of the time

c)

Within 5km of their displayed position at least 95% of the time

d)

Within 5nm of the desired path at least 99% of the time

96.

Which of the following sources may be used for RNAV compliance?

a)

ILS

b)

NDB

c)

GNSS

d)

RADAR

97.

Which of the following may be used in the approach phase of flight?

a)

RNAV 1

b)

RNP APCH

c)

RNP 4

d)

P-RNAV

98.

Under which of the following circumstances may GNSS be used as a means of primary navigation? a. To overlay an NDB approach contained within a current equipment database b. To fly a RNAV or RNP approach contained within the equipment’s database c. To fly a published terminal NDB hold when the aircraft is not equipped with ADF d. To fly the final approach track of an ILS

a)

To overlay an NDB approach contained within a current equipment database

b)

To fly a RNAV or RNP approach contained within the equipment’s database

c)

To fly a published terminal NDB hold when the aircraft is not equipped with ADF

d)

To fly the final approach track of an ILS

99.

The Time to Alert (TTA) for an LPV approach is

a)

6 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

15 minutes

d)

5 seconds

100.

In terms of PBN, accuracy is defined as

a)

The trust that can be placed in the navigation solution

b)

The ability of the system to present usable information to the operator

c)

The measure of the precision of the navigation solution

d)

The ability of the system to perform its function without interruption

101.

PBN consists of three elements. They are

a)

Navigation Application, Specification and Infrastructure

b)

RNAV, RNP and Beacon Hopping

c)

Ground, Space and Control

d)

Space, User and Control

102.

PBN accommodates both linear and angular laterally guided operations

a)

For en-route operations

b)

For approach operations

c)

For approach and en-route operations

d)

For RNP 0.1 Approaches only

103.

RNP 1 is based on

a)

VOR/DME and does not require on-board performance and monitoring

b)

IRS and is used for oceanic/continental airspace

c)

NDB and requires on-board performance and monitoring

d)

GNSS and requires on-board performance and monitoring

104.

There are two types of Fixed Radius Paths. Namely

a)

Radius to Fix and Fixed Radius Transition

b)

Offset flight path and Fixed Radius Transition

c)

RNAV Offset flight path and RNP Offset flight path

d)

Hold and Path terminators

105.

Data processes applied in PBN are critical to safety because

a)

RNAV and RNP applications use the data to define procedures to be flown

b)

They determine the ILS decision height

c)

he accuracy needs to be checked against the VOR/NDB

d)

The processes used to define RNP routes can be used without an up-to-date Navigation Database

106.

PBN navigational functional requirements include

a)

Aircraft position relative to track and distance and bearing to the active waypoint

b)

On-board performance monitoring and alerting function

c)

A requirement that TSE is bounded at zero

d)

At least two LRNS, one of which must be GNSS

107.

What is meant by the term FAS DB?

a)

Final Approach Segment Database

b)

ull Auto System Data Block

c)

Final Approach Segment Data Block

d)

Flight Approach System Database

108.

The PBN airspace concept consists of

a)

COM, NAV, SUR and ATM

b)

En-route, Oceanic and Terminal

c)

LNAV, VNAV and LPV

d)

VOR, DME and GNSS