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Chapter 9: Fire Hazards

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is one of the most important ways in which an inspector can make a difference when it comes to unsafe behaviors?

a)

Allowing building managers to deal with them

b)

Repeatedly issuing citations to property owners

c)

Helping occupants/owners change unsafe behaviors

d)

Report unsafe behaviors to the appropriate authorities

2.

Oily rags in an open waste container is an example of which type of unsafe behavior?

a)

Inadequate housekeeping

b)

Improper storage of flammable liquids

c)

Unintentional ignition sources

d)

Improper storage of combustible liquids

3.

What is overgrown grass, weeds, and brush considered?

a)

Inadequate housekeeping

b)

Unintentional ignition sources

c)

Improper use of electrical equipment

d)

Open burning

4.

Why is it dangerous to become complacent in the use of ignition sources?

a)

Leads to an attitude that sources are always under control and will never cause a hostile fire

b)

Leads to an excitement with the use of fuel sources and containers

c)

Leads to a fearful working environment with flammable and combustible materials

d)

Leads to a lazy environment in which employees always follow safety protocols

5.

What is required by most model fire codes for individuals before open burning can take place?

a)

Contracts

b)

Permits

c)

Appropriate weather

d)

Participant list

6.

Which electrical hazard classification has flammable vapors and gas may be present?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

7.

Which electrical hazard location has combustible dust?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

8.

Which electrical hazard location has ignitable fibers that pose a hazard?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

9.

In addition to creating a potential ignition source, the improper use of electrical equipment also increases the:

a)

danger of electrocution or shock

b)

insurance costs for the property owner

c)

likelihood of false smoke or fire alarms

d)

cost of electricity for the occupant

10.

Using gasoline to ignite a solid fuel, such as charcoal, is an example of which unsafe behavior?

a)

Unintentional ignition sources

b)

Open burning

c)

Improper use and storage of flammable and combustible liquids

d)

Inadequate housekeeping

11.

Storing flammable or combustible liquids in unapproved containers is an example of which unsafe behavior?

a)

Unintentional ignition sources

b)

Open burning

c)

Improper use and storage of flammable and combustible liquids

d)

Inadequate housekeeping

12.

What is the safest procedure for handling flammable or combustible liquid from a fire protection standpoint?

a)

Pump them from underground tanks through a piping system

b)

Use a hose 150 feet away from an external tank

c)

Use compressed gas cylinders that are chained to the a reinforced wall

d)

Place flammable liquids in metal box with unsealed lids

13.

What causes unsafe conditions that result in fire hazards?

a)

Design or use of a building or equipment related to behaviors or processes

b)

Material storage facilities that have not been properly inspected

c)

Complacent attitudes from property and business owners

d)

Inadequate housekeeping and unintentional ignition sources

14.

Detailed electrical inspections are typically the responsibility of qualified:

a)

electrical engineers

b)

electrical contractors

c)

electrical inspectors

d)

fire inspectors

15.

Worn electrical equipment may be prone to _____ and subsequent overheating of surrounding materials to their ignition point.

a)

arcing

b)

overflow

c)

encapsulating

d)

ventilation

16.

Overloading a circuit beyond its designed capabilities is an example of:

a)

Improper Use of Electrical Equipment

b)

Worn Electrical Equipment

c)

Improper Use and Storage of Compressed Gas

d)

Unintentional Ignition Sources

17.

Which common storage method uses structural framework onto which pallets or other materials are placed?

a)

Pallet storage

b)

Solid piling

c)

Rack storage

d)

Loose piling

18.

Who is usually responsible for the design, installation, and maintenance of fire protection systems in retail outlets?

a)

Architects

b)

Store owners

c)

Contractors

d)

Occupants

19.

While working in material storage facilities, inspectors should pay attention to the increase fuel load and the change in _____________.

a)

storage arrangement

b)

business management

c)

safety plan operations

d)

ventilation systems

20.

Which common storage method gives a fire the least chance to develop?

a)

Pallet storage

b)

Rack storage

c)

Loose piling

d)

Solid piling

21.

The majority of pallets are constructed of:

a)

Wood

b)

Plastic

c)

Paper

d)

Metal

22.

Which common storage method uses structural framework onto which pallets or other materials are placed?

a)

Pallet storage

b)

Solid piling

c)

Rack storage

d)

Loose piling

23.

Rack storage has the most challenging fire protection problem because _______.

a)

it exposes more surface area to a fire

b)

it exposes less surface area to a fire

c)

it limits the air space between the fuel units

d)

the materials on pallets are completely encapsulated

24.

Inspectors should review _____ before conducting an inspection at a storage facility or retail outlet.

a)

storage documentation

b)

architect blueprints

c)

building plans

d)

manufacturer's recommendations

25.

When should the inspector conduct warehouse inspections?

a)

Once every 6 months

b)

If requested by the manufacturer

c)

If there is a pattern of higher activity or when higher-risk materials are stored

d)

Every scheduled shipment

26.

It is critical that inspectors diligently inspect a warehouse's:

a)

Ownership Documentation

b)

Automatic Sprinkler System

c)

Product supply

d)

Architect blueprints

27.

What is the primary hazard associated with lumberyards?

a)

Size of a lumberyard

b)

Rack storage

c)

Unpredictable staff presence

d)

High fuel load

28.

Fires involving tires produce intense heat, smoke, and __________.

a)

toxic oil

b)

white steam

c)

short ignition

d)

carbon dioxide

29.

Where do inspectors usually encounter outside tire storage?

Select all that apply

a)

junkyards

b)

scrap tire storage facilities

c)

indoor storage units

d)

landfills

30.

What are the two main hazards associated with recycling plants?

a)

Bulk storage and hazardous processes

b)

Hazardous processes and high fuel loads

c)

Bulk storage and limited staff presence

d)

High fuel loads and improper storage

31.

What material-handling equipment should inspectors verify that it is properly maintained and operated? Select all that apply.

a)

Waste chutes

b)

Shredders

c)

Extruders

d)

Conveyor belts

e)

Compacting machines

32.

Which facility involves the disposal of municipal trash and hazardous or biological materials?

a)

Waste-handling

b)

Pallet Storage

c)

Recycling

d)

Lumberyard

33.

Which facilities present unique challenges due to the quantity of materials, the presence of untreated and untreated materials, and the processes used on those materials?

a)

Warehouses

b)

Waste-handling facilities

c)

Lumberyards

d)

Recycling facilities

34.

Which waste disposal option can reduce the bulk of waste as much as 95 percent?

a)

Incineration

b)

Compaction

c)

Burial

d)

Landfill

35.

When inspecting incinerators, inspectors should look for the following:

Select all that apply.

a)

Fuel-fired incinerators are pre-heated for 30 minutes

b)

Trained personnel operate the unit at all time

c)

The feed door is fully closed

d)

The waste material ash compartment is cleaned on a regular basis

e)

Accumulation of creosote in flues and chimneys as applicable

36.

What are the primary fire hazards of HVAC systems?

a)

Inadequate clearances and improper limit controls

b)

Heating appliances and the spread of fire through the air handling system

c)

Buildup or leakage of gases

d)

Careless handling of ashes and accumulation of creosote

37.

Which furnace operates primarily by convection and the circulation of air without the use of fans?

a)

Gravity

b)

Forced-air

c)

Room Heater

d)

Unit Heater

38.

Which furnace relies on a fan to move heated air through the system?

a)

Gravity

b)

Forced-air

c)

Unit heat

d)

Room heater

39.

Furnaces must be properly vented so they cannot contribute to ________ build up.

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

sulphur dioxide

d)

titanium monoxide

40.

Which furnace should inspectors warn individuals to not cover the register or attempt to dry wet items?

a)

Wall furnace

b)

Floor furnace

c)

Gravity furnace

d)

Forced-air furnace

41.

Which furnace are found in residential occupancies and small office spaces?

a)

Wall furnace

b)

Floor furnace

c)

Gravity furnace

d)

Forced-air furnace

42.

A _____ is a pressure vessel that is used to generate steam to power machinery.

a)

boiler

b)

heat element

c)

HVAC system

d)

gravity furnace

43.

What will automatically turn off fuel sources when a problem occurs with boilers?

a)

interlock

b)

power switch

c)

breaker box

d)

fusible link

44.

Inspectors should verify a boiler's code compliance by performing the following:

(select all that apply)

a)

Check for ASME nameplate

b)

Verify inspection history

c)

Note the pressure relief device

d)

Document whether it is a fire-tube or water-tube boiler

e)

Check the temperature

45.

The combustion gases pass through tubes that are immersed in circulating water in what type of boiler?

a)

Fire-tube

b)

Water-tube

c)

Coal-tube

d)

Natural Gas-tube

46.

In what kind of boiler does steam and water circulate through a series of small drums and tubes while combustion gases pass over the outside?

a)

Water-tube

b)

Fire-tube

c)

Coal-tube

d)

Natural Gas-tube

47.

Which boiler fuel is atomized at the burner?

a)

Natural gas

b)

Coal

c)

Oil

d)

Diesel

48.

Which type of heating device is hazardous because they can easily be misused?

a)

Room heaters

b)

Gravity furnaces

c)

Unit heaters

d)

Temporary/portable heaters

49.

Heating devices that require nearby floors and walls be properly protected are called:

a)

boilers

b)

gravity furnaces

c)

room heaters

d)

elements

50.

Which of the following is a self-contained device that is thermostatically controlled?

a)

boiler

b)

gravity furnace

c)

HVAC system

d)

unit heater

51.

Which heater is a free-standing appliance that vents to the exterior of the building and are designed to burn coal or wood?

a)

Solid-fuel room heater

b)

Room heater

c)

Unit heater

d)

Temporary/Portable heater

52.

Most commercial refrigerants have a classified level of flammability and ______ as defined in American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

a)

toxicity

b)

combustibility

c)

dependability

d)

structurability

53.

An example of a mechanical air-moving or air-distribution system is a:

a)

Boiler

b)

Furnace

c)

Ventilation system

d)

Room heater

54.

Which class filter will not contribute fuel to a fire and they will emit small quantities of smoke?

a)

Class 1

b)

Class 2

c)

Class 3

d)

Class 4

55.

Which type of hood are placed over grease-producing equipment?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

56.

What is the primary fire safety concern associated with ventilation systems?

a)

Potential for the transmission of fire, smoke, and combustion

b)

Potential for autoignition with combustible materials

c)

Potential for the transmission of black smoke

d)

Potential for complications with structural support

57.

What should inspectors verify with ventilation-hood systems?

Select all that apply.

a)

General cleanliness

b)

Nozzles are properly oriented

c)

Check the maintenance tag

d)

Check pressure gauges and fusible link

e)

Check the grease removal systems

58.

Solid-fuel cooking equipment, such as wood-fired brick ovens and meat grilling equipment, can only have ______ day(s) supply of solid fuel in the same room.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

0

59.

Which class of industrial ovens and furnaces operate at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatile or combustible materials are being heated?

a)

Class B

b)

Class C

c)

Class A

d)

Class D

60.

Many commercial cooking establishments utilize _____ for fire suppression.

a)

dry-chemical systems

b)

no specific systems

c)

wet-chemical systems

d)

water-based systems

61.

Which system should be used to control Class K fires?

a)

dry-chemical systems

b)

no specific systems

c)

wet-chemical systems

d)

water-based systems

62.

Which inspection item is NOT part of fire suppression systems in commercial cooking equipment?

a)

Cooking appliances protected by the system have not been changed or switched out

b)

An instruction sign for manual system operation is present

c)

Employees have been trained to perform manual operations

d)

System has been maintained per NFPA standards

e)

Pressure gauges read their operable ranges

63.

Which class of industrial ovens and furnaces operate at approximately atmospheric pressure where flammable volatile or combustible materials are being heated?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

64.

Which class of industrial ovens and furnaces operate at a special temperature and includes integral quench furnaces?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

65.

Which class of industrial ovens and furnaces operate above 5,000 degrees and includes the use of special processing atmospheres?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

66.

Industrial furnaces and ovens must have a(n) _______ system so the equipment will deactivate and remove the remaining fuel from the system.

a)

interlock

b)

power

c)

generator

d)

oxygen

67.

The most common type of powered industrial truck is the:

a)

ambulance

b)

fire apparatus.

c)

forklift.

d)

dump truck.

68.

What is the NFPA standard for grandstands, folding seating, tents, and membrane structures?

a)

NFPA 102

b)

NFPA 701

c)

NFPA 86

d)

NFPA 505

69.

Tents must be made of ______ materials and the materials inside the tent must be made of _______ material.

a)

flame-resistant, flame retardant

b)

fireproof, fire-rated

c)

industrial, sturdy

d)

flame retardant, flame-resistant

70.

Combustible vegetation must be cleared both inside a test and up to _____ around the outside of the tent.

a)

5 feet (1.5 m)

b)

1 foot (.3 m)

c)

10 feet (3 m)

d)

25 feet (7.5 m)

71.

Which one is NOT an operation that generate ignition sources or hazardous atmospheres?

a)

Welding

b)

Cutting

c)

Grinding

d)

Spray Painting

e)

Tents

72.

True or False:

Inspectors should check to be sure that shop rags or towels are kept in approved plastic containers with lids at all times.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Which hazardous process is considered hot work?

a)

Welding or thermal cutting

b)

Auto paint shops

c)

Dry cleaning operations

d)

Quenching operations

74.

Workers must maintain a fire watch for at least _____ after any welding or thermal cutting operation.

a)

15 minutes

b)

45 minutes

c)

30 minutes

d)

60 minutes

75.

Where is the most common place for fires to occur in woodworking operations?

a)

Dust hogger

b)

Bathrooms

c)

Boiler rooms

d)

Closets

76.

In what kind of flammable finishing is the primary hazard coming from a pressurized flammable or combustible liquid?

a)

Spray finishing

b)

Powder Coating

c)

Immersion Coating

d)

Quenching Operation

77.

What involves the suspension of electrically charged combustible powders like polyester resin?

a)

Powder Coating

b)

Spray Finishing

c)

Immersion Coating

d)

Quenching Operations

78.

What is a way to lower the potential of an incident for immersion coating operations?

a)

It should be located away from other process areas and means of egress

b)

It should be equipped with an automatic sprinkler

c)

It should have mechanical ventilation system that is interlocked

d)

It should have a confirmed air exhaust rate

79.

All portions of the quench process should be _______ so that they all stop operating.

a)

interlocked

b)

separated

c)

powered

d)

enclosed

80.

What is a significant issue regarding tanks used for quenching operations?

a)

Overflow

b)

Solvents

c)

Powder Applications

d)

Controlling Dust

81.

What is the primary hazard with dry cleaning?

a)

Presence of all the elements for fire

b)

Solvents

c)

Overflow

d)

Malfunctioning Interlocks

82.

What is a qualified testing agency that should test for combustible dust?

a)

PHA

b)

PHD

c)

NFPA

d)

ASME

83.

What classification of dust includes metal dusts?

a)

Group E

b)

Group F

c)

Group G

d)

Group C

84.

What dust classification group has volatile dust and contains more than 8 percent carbons?

a)

Group E

b)

Group F

c)

Group G

d)

Group C

85.

What is a passive means of dust control?

a)

Conveyor belt enclosures

b)

Air metal separators

c)

Vacuuming systems

d)

Dust collection system

86.

What is an example of an active dust control?

a)

Air metal separator

b)

Enclosures for conveyor belts

c)

Automatic vacuums

d)

Pneumatic system

87.

The keys to preventing fires in materials-handling facilities are controlling ignition sources and ________.

a)

dust

b)

smoke

c)

exhaust

d)

trash

88.

True or False:

Spark-producing portable power tools and propellant-actuated tools should not be used where combustible dust is present.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Fire watch inspected must be conducted for at least __________ after the torch work has been completed and the last torch has been turned off.

a)

2 hours

b)

30 minutes

c)

1 hour

d)

3 hours

90.

The asphalt or tar carried in a trailer-mounted tank using what kind of heating device?

a)

LPG burner

b)

PHA burner

c)

Diesel burner

d)

Coal burner

91.

What is a requirement for asphalt and tar kettles?

a)

At least 1 employee should constantly attend the kettle

b)

LPG burner is visible

c)

Interlocking system

d)

Automatic Sprinkler System

92.

Dry cleaning plants are classified by the type of ______ used in the process.

a)

Solvents

b)

Hazards

c)

Mediums

d)

Classification

93.

The best way to prevent a distillery fire is to:

a)

vent all vapors inside the facility

b)

control flammable vapors and ignition sources

c)

produce only one type of spirit in the distillery

d)

use the smallest tanks and casks possible

94.

In commercial cooking establishments, must of the inspector's attention be focused on:

(select all that apply)

a)

Ventilation hood

b)

Exhaust

c)

Fire protection systems

d)

Filtering devices

e)

Detectors

95.

Inspectors should verify a boiler's code compliance by checking the:

a)

ASME nameplate

b)

Inspection history (tag or certificate)

c)

Pressure Relief Device

d)

Boiler Temperature

e)

Automatic sprinkler system

96.

What are the devices that have an interlock system?

a)

Spray painting

b)

Boiler

c)

Quencher

d)

Furnace

e)

HVAC

97.

Which material is not generally used to construct a pallet?

a)

Wood

b)

Plastic

c)

Metal

d)

Paper

e)

Cardboard

98.

Which standard tests for flame propagation of textiles and films?

a)

NFPA 701

b)

NFPA 102

c)

NFPA 86

d)

NFPA 51

99.

Which fuels are usually used in boilers?

a)

Natural gas

b)

Coal

c)

Oil

d)

Water

e)

Diesel

100.

As an inspector, the proper application of _____ will reduce unsafe conditions.

a)

model codes

b)

industry standards

c)

SOPs

d)

locally adopted codes

101.

What is any operation that requires the use of tools or machines that may produce a source of ignition?

a)

Hot Work

b)

Vessel

c)

Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

d)

Commodity

102.

Which is not an operation that generates ignition sources or hazardous atmospheres?

a)

Welding

b)

Cutting

c)

Grinding

d)

Painting

e)

Solid Piling Storage