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Cardiac Medications

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient taking Digoxin is experiencing severe bradycardia, nausea and vomiting. A lab draw shows that their Digoxin level is 4 ng/mL. What medication do you anticipate the physician to order for this patient?

a)
  • Naloxone

b)

Digibind

c)
  • Angiotensin receptor neprilysin inhibitor (ARNI)

d)
  • No medication needed, continue with Digoxin

2.

What is the formula for finding cardiac output (CO)?

a)
  • CO = Stroke volume/Heart rate

b)
  • CO = Ejection fraction/ Heart rate

c)

CO = Stroke volume x Heart rate

d)
  • CO = Ejection fraction x Heart rate

3.

Which among the following is the expected pharmacological action of cardiac glycosides like digoxin?

a)

Positive inotropic effect and positive chronotropic effect

b)

Positive inotropic effect and negative chronotropic effect

c)

Negative inotropic effect and negative chronotropic effect

d)

Negative inotropic effect and positive chronotropic effect

4.

All of the following must be considered when administering digoxin , EXCEPT

a)

Administer with caution to elderly or clients with renal insufficiency.

b)

Instruct client to eat high potassium foods.

c)

Monitor for digitalis toxicity.

d)

Risk of digitalis toxicity increases if client is hyperkalemic.

5.

A client is receiving digoxin daily. The nurse suspects digoxin toxicity after noting which signs and symptoms? Select all that apply.

a)

Visual disturbances

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Apical pulse rate of 63 beats per minute

d)

Serum digoxin level of 2.3 ng/mL (2.93 nmol/L)

e)

Serum potassium level of 3.9 mEq/L (3.9 mmol/L)

6.

A primary health care provider (PHCP) writes a prescription for digoxin, 0.25 mg daily. The nurse teaches the client about the medication and tells the client that it is important to do which?

a)

Count the radial and carotid pulses every morning.

b)

Check the blood pressure every morning and evening.

c)

Stop taking the medication if the pulse is higher than 100 beats per minute.

d)

Withhold the medication and call the PHCP if the pulse is less than 60 beats per minute.

7.

Comes in pills to be swallowed, chewable tablets and as a topical application (cream).

a)

Beta Blockers

b)

ACE Inhibitors

c)

Vasodilators

d)

Anticoagulants

8.

Slows heart rate and decreases high blood pressure.

Side Effects: Bradycardia, Lethargy, Low Blood Pressure, & Depression

a)

ACE Inhibitor

b)

Anticoagulants

c)

Beta Blockers

d)

Diuretics

9.

What emergency drug is used to treat V-Tach?

a)

Morphine

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Atropine

10.

Increases urine output in patients with hypertension

a)

Diuretic

b)

Thrombolytic

c)

Anticoagulant

d)

Vasopressor

11.

Dilates coronary arteries

a)

Nitrates

b)

Bronchodilator

c)

Beta Blocker

d)

Calcium Channel Blocker

12.

Used for asystole, V-fib, pulseless V-tach, pulseless electrical activity

a)

Atropine

b)

Adenosine

c)

Amiodarone

d)

Epinephrine

13.

Increases heart rate AND renal blood flow

Can also be used in place of the first or second dose of epinephrine during cardiac arrest to increase heart rate and restore heartbeat.

a)

Vasopressin

b)

Atropine

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Adenosine

14.

first-line medication for treatment of ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Adneosine

c)

Sodium Bicarbonate

d)

Epinephrine

15.

Sodium channel blocker

a)

Adenosine

b)

Nitrates

c)

Verapamil

d)

Lidocaine

16.

Calcium channel blocker

a)

Adenosine

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Verapamil

d)

Amiodarone

17.

Potassium channel blocker

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Verapamil

d)

Vasopressin

18.

Beta blocker

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Atenolol

c)

Adenosine

d)

Atropine

19.

Class I antiarrhythmic medications have which effect on action potential?

a)

Decrease calcium's influx into the cardiac cell, slow AV, conduction, decrease contractility

b)

Block sodium’s influx into the cardiac cell, decrease myocardial excitability and contractility

c)

Block the sympathetic nervous system's beta-receptors, slow heart rate

d)

Decrease potassium's movement into the cardiac cell, prolong PR, QRS, and QT intervals

20.

Class II antiarrhythmic medications have which effect on action potential?

a)

Block sodium’s influx into the cardiac cell, decrease myocardial excitability and contractility

b)

Block the sympathetic

nervous system’s beta-receptors, slow the heart rate

c)

Decrease potassium's movement into the cardiac cell, prolong PR, QRS, and QT intervals

d)

Decrease calcium's influx into the cardiac cell, slow AV, conduction, decrease contractility

21.

Class III antiarrhythmic medications have which effect on action potential?

a)

Block sodium’s influx into the cardiac cell, decrease myocardial excitability and contractility

b)

Decrease potassium’s movement into the cardiac cell, prolong
PR, QRS, and QT

intervals

c)

Block the sympathetic

nervous system’s beta-receptors, slow the heart rate

d)

Decrease calcium’s influx into the
cardiac cell, slow
AV, conduction,

decrease contractility

22.

Class IV antiarrhythmic medications have which effect on action potential?

a)

Decrease calcium’s influx into the
cardiac cell, slow
AV, conduction,

decrease contractility

b)

Block sodium’s influx into the cardiac cell, decrease myocardial excitability and contractility

c)

Decrease potassium’s movement into the cardiac cell, prolong
PR, QRS, and QT

intervals

d)

Block the sympathetic

nervous system’s beta-receptors, slow the heart rate

23.

Digitalis is classified as what kind of medication?

a)

Sodium Channel Blocker

b)

Cardiac Glycoside

c)

Nitriate

d)

Class II antiarrythmic

24.

The nurse is planning to administer hydrochlorothiazide to a client. Which are concerns related to the administration of this medication?

a)

Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy

c)

Hypokalemia, increased risk of osteoporosis

d)

Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

25.

A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide has also been prescribed triamterene. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. Which response is the most accurate to give to the client?

a)

Both are weak potassium-excreting diuretics.

b)

The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide is an expensive medication, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.

d)

Triamterene is a potassium-retaining (sparing) diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-excreting diuretic.

26.

Which class of medications is commonly used to treat high blood pressure?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Antiarrhythmics

c)

Beta Blockers

d)

ACE Inhibitors

27.

Which of the following medications is a calcium channel blocker?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Verapamil

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Hydrochlorothiazide

28.

Which of the following medications is an ACE inhibitor?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Warfarin

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Amlodipine

29.

Which class of medications is commonly used to treat heart failure?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Antiarrhythmics

c)

Beta Blockers

d)

ACE Inhibitors

30.

Which of the following medications is a beta blocker?

a)

Diltiazem

b)

Enalapril

c)

Atenolol

d)

Losartan

31.

Which class of medications is commonly used to treat angina?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Antiarrhythmics

c)

Beta Blockers

d)

Calcium Channel Blockers

32.

Which of the following medications is a calcium channel blocker?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Verapamil

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Hydrochlorothiazide

33.

Which class of medications is commonly used to lower blood pressure?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Antiarrhythmics

c)

Beta Blockers

d)

ACE Inhibitors

34.

Which of the following medications is an ACE inhibitor?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Warfarin

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Amlodipine

35.

Which class of medications is commonly used to treat arrhythmias?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Antiarrhythmics

c)

Beta Blockers

d)

Calcium Channel Blockers

36.

Which of the following medications is a beta blocker?

a)

Diltiazem

b)

Enalapril

c)

Atenolol

d)

Losartan

37.

A patient who has been taking a thiazide diuretic is hypokalemic. The nurse should instruct the patient to increase dietary intake of which foods?

a)

green leafy vegetables.

b)

canned vegetables

c)

low fat dairy products

d)

bananas and citrus fruits.

38.

Diuretics can be used for the following conditions EXCEPT

a)

Heart Failure

b)

Edema

c)

Fluid in the lungs

d)

Diabetes

39.

HTN: Which combination should not be given together?

a)

Beta blocker and HCTZ

b)

HCTZ and CCB

c)

ACEI and CCB

d)

ACEI and ARB

40.

HTN: An African American male presents with 3 separate readings of elevated blood pressure. You anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe which medication?

a)

Beta blocker

b)

HCTZ

c)

ACEI

d)

ARB

41.

Beta-blockers are contraindicated with which disease process?

a)

Asthma

b)

Palpitations

c)

Atrial fibrillation

d)

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

42.

What does the top number stand for?

a)

Systolic Blood Pressure

b)

Diastolic Blood Pressure

43.

You should avoid excessive exposure to sunlight while taking what type of medication?

a)

Thiazides

b)

ACE Inhibitors

c)

CCBs

d)

Beta Blockers

44.

A patient who has been taking antihypertensive drugs for a few months complains of having a persistent dry cough. The nurse knows that this cough is an adverse effect of which class of antihypertensive drugs?

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

c)

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)

d)

Calcium channel blockers

45.

When the nurse is administering topical nitroglycerin ointment, which technique is correct?

a)

Apply the ointment on the skin on the forearm.

b)

Apply the ointment only in the case of a mild angina episode.

c)

Remove the old ointment before new ointment is applied.

d)

Massage the ointment gently into the skin, and then cover the area with plastic wrap.

46.

A calcium channel blocker (CCB) is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Chew the tablet for faster release of the medication.

b)

To increase the effect of the drug, take it with grapefruit juice

c)

If the adverse effects of chest pain, fainting, or dyspnea occur, discontinue the medication immediately.

d)

A high-fiber diet with plenty of fluids will help prevent the constipation that may occur.

47.

A patient about to receive a morning dose of digoxin has an apical pulse of 53 beats/min. What will the nurse do next?

a)

Administer the dose.

b)

Administer the dose, and notify the prescriber.

c)

Check the radial pulse for 1 full minute.

d)

Withhold the dose, and notify the prescriber.

48.

A code has been called for the client experiencing ventricular fibrillation. Which medication should you prepare to administer to the client?

a)

Epinephrine, an adrenergic agonist, intravenous push.

b)

Lidocaine, an antidysrhythmic, intravenous push.

c)

Atropine, an antidysrhythmic, intravenous push.

d)

Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, intravenous push.

49.

The client in cardiogenic shock is receiving Dopamine. Which priority intervention should be implemented while administering this medication?

a)

Monitor the client's blood pressure continuously.

b)

Do not abruptly discontinue the medication.

c)

Administer medication on an infusion pump

d)

Check the client's creatinine level and BUN.

50.

You are completing an assessment on a client who has been prescribed the cardiac glycoside digoxin (Lanoxin) for congestive heart failure (CHF). Which data indicates the medication has been effective?

a)

The client has clear breath sounds bilaterally.

b)

The client's heart rate is 78 beats per minute.

c)

The client has 2 pitting edema of the sacrum.

d)

The client's sputum is pink and frothy.

51.

You are teaching the client diagnosed with angina about sublingual nitroglycerin (NTG), a coronary vasodilator. Which statement indicates the client needs more medication teaching?

a)

"I should expect to get a headache after taking my nitroglycerin."

b)

"If I have chest pain, I will put a tablet underneath my tongue."

c)

"If my pain is not relieved with three tablets, I will get medical help."

d)

"I will always carry my nitroglycerin in a dark-colored bottle."

52.

Which instruction should be given to a patient who is taking nitroglycerin?

a)

Nitroglycerin should be stored in a tightly capped dark container.

b)

To prevent from developing the tolerance, the nitroglycerin patch should be applied to the patient continuously around the clock (all the time).

c)

The patient taking nitroglycerin tablet should swallow the medication because of the first pass loss (effect).

d)

The side effect of nitroglycerin includes hypertension.

53.

Which statement is true about class 1a antiarrhythmic (antidysrhythmic) drugs?

a)

They are calcium channel blockers

b)

They are used to treat ventricular arrhythmias only

c)

The side effects are hypertension and arrhythmias

d)

They are a membrane stabilizer that decrease excitability of the heart muscle and slow electrical conduction in the heart

54.

The drugs that are ONLY used to treat ventricular arrhythmias are:

a)

Class Ia antiarrhythmics

b)

Class Ib antiarrhythmics

c)

Class II or beta blockers

d)

Class III antiarrhythmics

55.

______ is more likely to have the following side/adverse effects: hyperkalemia, dry cough and angioedema.

a)

amiodarone (Cordarone)

b)

Propranolol (Inderal)

c)

Captopril (Capoten)

d)

Amlodipine (Norvasc)

56.

Diltiazem (Cardizem) and amlodipine (Norvasc) could be most likely to have opposite effects on

a)

Heart rate

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Oxygen saturation