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Worksheets

bank 4

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The flight crew opens or closes the crew shut-off valves through:

a)

The CREW SUPPLY P/B SW installed on the overhead panel

b)

The ON/OFF lever on the reservoir

c)

The P/B SW on the oxygen storage compartment

2.

The crew oxygen system has:

a)

Two independent subsystems

b)

Four independent subsystems

c)

One systems

3.

Which component control and monitor the Crew oxygen system?

a)

No controller

b)

By Oxygen System control and Monitoring applications (OSCM)

c)

Monitor by SDAC

4.

Which the function of the Low Pressure Switch in Crew Oxygen System?

a)

Detected Low Pressure in oxygen distribution line

b)

Detected discharge status of the oxygen cylinder

c)

Detected Low Pressure in oxygen distribution line and confirm the position of the shut off valve

5.

How many input signal for start of the passenger oxygen system?

a)

One input from CPCS, one from the atmospheric pressure transducer and one from MASK MAN ON

b)

One input from CPCS only

c)

One input from MASK MAN ON P/B only

6.

During disconnection/reconnection of an oxygen line connector, you use:

a)

One wrench

b)

Two wrenches: one for the nut and one for the counter nut to avoid force onto the material

c)

Two wrenches: one for the nut and bolt to avoid force onto the material

7.

The crew oxygen system has:

a)

One system for the CAPT, F/O, Third Occupant and Fourth Occupant

b)

Two subsystems: Left hand oxygen subsystem for the CAPT, Fourth Occupant and right hand oxygen subsystem for the F/O, the Third Occupant

c)

Two subsystems: Forward oxygen subsystem for the CAPT, F/O and aft oxygen subsystem for the

8.

How to check the status of the passenger oxygen generator?

a)

By an indicator dot on its starter side

b)

By a pressure switch on generator

c)

Can not check its status

9.

Memos displayed on the WD are:

a)

OXY PAX SYS ON (green) when the cabin oxygen is activated by the CPCS cabin low pressure data

b)

OXY PAX SYS ON (amber) when the cabin oxygen is activated by the atmospheric transducer (TPA) or the "Mask Man On" P/B Switch (CPCS data not available)

c)

Both answers are correct

10.

A reset of the passenger oxygen system

a)

Can only be done on ground (or if the cabin altitude is below 12000ft)

b)

Can only be done in flight (the cabin altitude is above 12000ft)

c)

Can be done on ground or in flight at any time

11.

When working on gaseous oxygen system, you must: (A, B1, B2)

a)

Stop all refueling, all repairs on fuel and hydraulic systems, all procedures that use flammable material

b)

Do not operate external lightings

c)

Do not operate HF system and carry out maintenance on HF system

12.

Overboard discharge indicator shows the overpressure that occurs: (A, B1, B2)

a)

In the oxygen cylinder

b)

In the oxygen distribution manifold

c)

In the oxygen cylinder or in the oxygen distribution manifold

13.

Where is the location of crew oxygens? (A, B1, B2)

a)

In the avionic compartment

b)

In the forward cargo compartment

c)

In the aft cargo compartment

14.

The crew oxygen bottlle pressure indication on door oxy page show: (A, B1, B2)

a)

The Pressure that not temperature compensate

b)

The Pressure that temperature compensate by CRDC

c)

The Pressure that altitude compensate by CRDC

15.

The flight crew oxygen system supplies the flight crew members with oxygen in case of: (A, B1, B2)

a)

Loss of cabin pressure altitude.

b)

Emission of smoke or toxic gas.

c)

All of above

16.

The crew oxygen system has: (A, B1, B2)

a)

One system for the CAPT, F/O, Third Occupant and Fourth Occupant

b)

Two subsystems: Left hand oxygen subsystem for the CAPT, Fourth Occupant and right hand oxygen subsystem for the F/O, the Third Occupant

c)

Two subsystems: Forward oxygen subsystem for the CAPT, F/O and aft oxygen subsystem for the

17.

Which component control and monitor the Crew oxygen system? (A, B1, B2)

a)

No controller

b)

By Oxygen System control and Monitoring applications (OSCM).

c)

Monitor by SDAC

18.

The passenger oxygen system possibilities to start automatically: (A, B1, B2)

a)

Through the cabin pressure signal from the CPCS (Cabin Pressure Control System) or the atmospheric

b)

Through the cabin pressure signal from the CPCS (Cabin Pressure Control System) and the OSCM

c)

Through the OSCM (Oxygen System Control Monitoring) and the atmospheric pressure transducer.

19.

How to check the status of the passenger oxygen generator?

a)

By a status indicator on its oxygen generator

b)

By a pressure switch on generator

c)

Can not check its status

20.

What is this mean if you see REGUL PR LO appear amber on Door page?

a)

Crew Shut-off valve close

b)

LP switch senses pressure in the oxygen distribution line is less than the specified value

c)

Both answers are correct.

21.

The cross bleed valve is

a)

Electrically controlled, operated independently by two electrical motors

b)

Solenoid controlled and pneumatically operated

c)

Electrically controlled, operated by one electrical motor

22.

When the XBLEED selector is in the AUTO position, it will be closed automatically in case

a)

Both Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS) are operative in normal configuration, without APU bleed air

b)

Air is supplied from the HP ground cart

c)

No bleed air is available

23.

When all APU and ENGINEs bleed airs are available

a)

APU bleed having priority over engine bleed air

b)

APU bleed will supply bleed air only if the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN

c)

APU bleed will supply bleed air only if the ENG BLEED pushbuttons are selected OFF

24.

The HPGC supply symbol (white GND and green triangle) comes into view in ENG BLEED page

a)

The A/C is on ground (input from LGERS) and there is no APU nor ENG bleed air supply

b)

The bleed ducts are pressurized (pressure above 20 psi)

c)

All of above

25.

Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS) is used for

a)

Bleed air pressure regulation (including HP/Intermediate Pressure (IP) transfer) and bleed air

b)

System monitoring and protections

c)

All of above

26.

The functions of the overheat detection system (OHDS) are

a)

Leak detection and leak isolation

b)

Leak detection and leak location

c)

Leak detection, leak isolation and leak location

27.

The fan air flow exiting the PCE is vented to

a)

The engine core zone and is subsequently vented overboard

b)

Overboard through pylons outlets

c)

None of above

28.

On the BLEED page which valve are not displayed

a)

FAV and OPSOV

b)

MPV and OPSOV

c)

HPV and FAV

29.

In case of overpressure ( the MPV does not operate correctly), the ENGINE BLEED system

a)

Backup a pneumatic protection is done by the overpressure shut-off valve

b)

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated the overpressure shut-off valve

c)

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated the fan air valve

30.

How many pressure sources for potable water pressurization?

a)

Bleed air or compressed air ground cart

b)

Bleed air or compressed air ground cart or A potable water pump

c)

Bleed air or compressed air ground cart or electrical compressor

31.

Can you work on the toilet waste system and the portable system at the same time?

a)

Yes, the two systems are independent

b)

No, it can cause the contamination to the portable water system

c)

No, you can not use water car and waste car at the same time

32.

Can you set the water quantity at FAP at any time?

a)

Only when PWSP access door is closed

b)

Only when PWSP access door is opened

c)

Only when A/C is energized and fill-mode was not started at the PWIP

33.

Which level you can preselection on FAP?

a)

The value in steps of 10% of the total potable-water quantity, between 30% and 100%

b)

The value in steps of 25% of the total potable-water quantity

c)

The value in steps of 20% of the total potable-water quantity

34.

What is aircraft configuration to refill the water tanks?

a)

It does not matter if the aircraft is energized or not

b)

You can not refill the water tanks if A/C have no electrical

c)

You can only refill the water tanks when Preselection unit is energized

35.

When does the vacuum generator operate?

a)

On the ground or during low-altitude flight

b)

Aircraft is on ground and up to 18000 ± 700 ft

c)

Aircraft is on ground and up to 20000± 700 ft

36.

How to preselect the water quantity?

a)

Thought FAP

b)

Thought PWSP

c)

All of above are correct

37.

How to supply water for customer like galley or Lav?

a)

Water pump pressure

b)

Air pressure (Bleed air or compressed air)

c)

All of above are correct

38.

How many vacuum generators?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

39.

Auto flush function of FAP is:

a)

Flush all galley at the same time

b)

Flush all toilets at the same time

c)

Flush all toilets and GWDUs (Galley Waste Disposal Unit) at the same time

40.

In waste system, the Waste Valve, Cap Drain has:

a)

1 lever to open/close the outer cap only

b)

1 lever to open/close the inner flap only

c)

2 levers, one to open/close the outer cap and one lever to open/close the inner cap

41.

The Vacuum Toilet System consists of

a)

Two autonomous subsystems (left and right hand subsystems) with waste balancing

b)

Two autonomous subsystems (left and right hand subsystems) without waste balancing

c)

One subsystem only

42.

The VTS (Vacuum Toilet System) operates in GROUND SERVICING MODE when:

a)

The door switch of waste service door send OPEN signal to the vacuum generators

b)

The door switch of waste service door send CLOSED signal to the vacuum generators

c)

The door switch of waste service door send FAIL signal to the vacuum generators

43.

In the cockpit, the cabin ready signal is: (A, B1, B2)

a)

shown on the FAP.

b)

shown on the CDS.

c)

shown on the FAP and CDS.

44.

The EVAC signaling system can be activated from: (A, B1, B2)

a)

the cockpit

b)

the cabin.

c)

the cockpit or the cabin.

45.

The passengers can make calls from: (A, B1, B2)

a)

their seats and from the lavatories.

b)

their seats only.

c)

the lavatories only.

46.

The status of the IFE system is monitored by: (A, B1, B2)

a)

The Flight Attendant Panel (FAP).

b)

Remote Control Center (RCC).

c)

CIDS

47.

The CIDS has two identical CIDS directors: (A, B1, B2)

a)

they are operation in parallel.

b)

both are active mode.

c)

one is active mode and the other one is in standby mode.

48.

Which gives the address for the location of the DEU-A: (A, B1, B2)

a)

a connection box which has a coding switch.

b)

the address for the location of the DEU-A is done through PIN PROGRAMMING.

c)

the address for the location of the DEU-A is done through software.

49.

The interface between the active CIDS director and the cabin crew related functions is done: (A, B1, B2)

a)

through the Decoder/Encoder Units (DEUs) type A.

b)

through the Decoder/Encoder Units (DEUs) type B.

c)

through the Decoder/Encoder Units (DEUs) type A and type B.

50.

The DEUs-B are connected to the directors through: (A, B1, B2)

a)

a top line data-bus.

b)

a middle line data-bus.

c)

Ethernet bus.

51.

The cockpit crew can make PA announcements through: (A, B1, B2)

a)

the handset only.

b)

the acoustic devices.

c)

the handset and also through the acoustic devices.

52.

The primary parts of the IFE system are: (A, B1, B2)

a)

The In-Flight Entertainment Center (IFEC) rack

b)

The IFE control panel, The cabin distribution network

c)

Both answer are correct

53.

The OMS applications are hosted in: (A, B1, B2)

a)

ASFC.

b)

OSFC.

c)

ASFC and OSFC.

54.

The four OMS applications that are hosted in ASFC are: (A, B1, B2)

a)

CMS-ACD, DLCS-ACD, ACMS, LMF.

b)

ADS, MCA, CMS- ACD, ACMS.

c)

CMS- ACD, DLCS-ACD, ACMS, PDMMF.

55.

Which OMS application computes the A/C PFR? (A, B1, B2)

a)

CMS- ACD.

b)

MCA.

c)

CMS- ACD and MCA.

56.

The data loading application used for field loadable software uploading in the OSFC is:

a)

The Simple Data Loader (SDL)

b)

DLCS-ACD

c)

DLCS_ACD or SDL

57.

1.       The OMS applications can be accessed from the OMT, the CAPT and F/O outer displays of

a)

a)  the optional Portable Multipurpose Access Terminals (PMAT)

b)

b)  the flight attendant panels(FAP) and the airline cabin laptop (decreased functions).

c)

c)  All of above are correct

58.

The internal wireless system has:

a)

the basic architecture gives a wireless access to the cabin crew.

b)

the basic architecture give a wireless connectivity to the passengers.

c)

the basic architecture gives a wireless access to the cabin crew and the optional architecture give a

59.

The ASFC is connected to the SCIs:

a)

only through Ethernet and discrete links.

b)

through AFDX, ARINC 429 or discrete links

c)

through Ethernet, ARINC 429 or discrete links

60.

The OSFC is connected to the SCIs:

a)

only through Ethernet and discrete links.

b)

through AFDX, ARINC 429 or discrete links.

c)

through Ethernet, ARINC 429 or discrete links

61.

The ELB is an optional onboard application:

a)

which can replace the A/C paper logbook.

b)

which can flight document.

c)

which can replace the cabin paper logbook

62.

The electronic logbook application is hosted in:

a)

CPIOM.

b)

the OSFC.

c)

the ASFC.

63.

What is true regarding the APU Starter/Generator supply?

a)

90 KVA , 115 VAC

b)

120 KVA, 115 VAC

c)

150KVA, 230 VAC

64.

What is the APU Starter/Generator duty cycle?

a)

2 attempted starts maximum in any case, then a 1 hour cool down period is required prior to the next

b)

3 attempted starts, then a 1 hour cool down period is required prior to the next attempted start

c)

4 attempted starts totally, then trouble shooting if the last attempt is not successful

65.

What is the ECB location?

a)

Forward Avionic compartment

b)

Aft cargo compartment

c)

Rearward of bulk cargo compartment

66.

From where is the APU emergency shutdown can be manually initiated?

a)

Cockpit Overhead Panel, EXT PWR Receptacle, Integrated Refuel Panel

b)

Cockpit Overhead Panel, NLG Services Panel, Integrated Refuel Panel

c)

Cockpit Overhead Panel, NLG Services Panel, EXT PWR Receptacle

67.

What is true regarding the APU start modes?

a)

APU start sequence is same on ground as in flight

b)

Auto start is initiated by ECB automatically in case of In flight Total Engine Flame Out (TEFO)

c)

APU can be auto or manual start on ground

68.

In which case does the 'FAULT' light illuminate on APU Master Switch?

a)

In the event of a critical failure detected during the B.I.T or a protective shut down

b)

In the event of coming fuel pressure lower than limit

c)

In the event of an oil level lower than limit

69.

What is true regarding APU maintenance?

a)

You could swap DMMs between APUs for trouble shooting

b)

You could replace DMM and ECB at the same time

c)

You could replace DMM with new one

70.

If the advisory'OIL LVL LO' is pulsing on APU page:

a)

It means low oil level condition

b)

The APU canstill operate for another 60hours at normal oil consumption

c)

It means the oil level to be checked

71.

In case of high oil temperature or low oil pressure:

a)

The ECB will generate the maintenance message

b)

The APU will shutdown automatically if a/c on ground

c)

ECB automatically aborts the start sequence

72.

The APU low fuel pressure switch is:

a)

Monitored by the ECB and provide notification of low fuel pressure on the ECAM

b)

Monitored by the ECB and providelow fuel pressure protective shutdown

c)

Monitored by the ECB andrecorded by CMS

73.

What is true regarding the APU shutdown?

a)

In flight, the protective shutdowns are inhibited even in case of major failures

b)

During emergency or protective shut down there is 60 seconds cool down period

c)

In normal shutdown the ECB decreases slowly the APU speed for a cooldown period

74.

How many open positions for APU air intake Flap?

a)

Open at 20 degree in flight and open at 35 degree on ground

b)

Only Fully Open at 45 degree position

c)

Movement during APU operation for regulate air flow

75.

The type of the Air Intake Flap Actuator?

a)

The Hydraulic Actuator

b)

The Electro-mechanical Actuator

c)

The Hydro-Mechanical Actuator

76.

The ignition system is composed of…?

a)

One Ignition Unit, one Ignition Lead, one Igniter Plug

b)

Two Ignition Units, Two Ignition Lead, Two Igniter Plug

c)

One Ignition Unit, Two Ignition Lead, Two Igniter Plug

77.

In case of the air intake flap actuator failure:

a)

You must declare the APU as inoperative

b)

You can de-activate the intake flap in open position and continues the APU using within limit time

c)

You can de-activate the intake flap in close position and continues the APU using within limit time

78.

Basic functions of lining panels in LDCC are: (A, B1, B2)

a)

To protect surrounding structures/systems against temperature and handling loads.

b)

To seal the LDCC adequately to make a fully air tight compartment for fire containment and fire

c)

Both are correct.

79.

Rapid decompression panels: (A, B1, B2)

a)

They equalize the pressure in both sections. (blow-in and blow-out).

b)

Only blow-out: in case of decompression in the cabin.

c)

Only bow-in in case of decompression in the LDCC.

80.

In cargo loading system (CLS), the joystick of outside control panel gives: (A, B1, B2)

a)

IN/OUT commands.

b)

FWD/AFT commands.

c)

IN/OUT/FWD/AFT commands.

81.

In cargo loading system (CLS), the joystick of inside control panel gives: (A, B1, B2)

a)

IN/OUT commands.

b)

FWD/AFT commands.

c)

IN/OUT/FWD/AFT commands.

82.

How to install the lining panels into the A/C structure? (A, B1, B2)

a)

With quick-release fasteners.

b)

With screws.

c)

With sealed strap and tape.

83.

The cargo loading system (CLS) is energized: (A, B1, B2)

a)

If all the door sill latches are in UP (locked) position.

b)

If all the door sill latches are in DOWN (lowered) position.

c)

If all the door sill latches are in DOWN (lowered) position or in UP (locked) position.

84.

The self erecting PDU (Power Drive Unit) are installed: (A, B1, B2)

a)

Only installed in the ball mat area.

b)

Only installed in the longitudinal area.

c)

Installed in all area in LDCC.

85.

The door sill latches hold the ULDs in the: (A, B1, B2)

a)

X and Z direction.

b)

X and Y direction.

c)

Y and Z direction.

86.

How many person can operate the CLS (Cargo Loading System)? (A, B1, B2)

a)

One single person.

b)

At least two persons.

c)

At least three persons.

87.

What happen when a XZ latch raises up? (A, B1, B2)

a)

The PDUs after a raised latch operates in brake mode.

b)

All PDUs after a raised latch in load direction are inactive.

c)

The PDUs before a raised latch operates in brake mode.

88.

The skin panels in fuselage is made of:

a)

Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CFRP).

b)

Alluminum alloy.

c)

Quartz Fiber Reinforced Plastic (QFRP).

89.

Purpose of MBN & ESN:

a)

Lightning strikes protection, Electrostatic protection.

b)

Electrical current path (bonding), Connection to the earth when the A/C is on the ground.

c)

All of above.

90.

Windshields are replaced from:

a)

Inside of cockpit.

b)

Outside of cockpit.

c)

Both side can replace.

91.

Pylons primary structure (pylon box) are made of:

a)

Titanium.

b)

CFRP.

c)

Alluminum.

92.

MBN (Metallic Bonding Network):

a)

In the pressurized arear.

b)

In the unpressurized areas.

c)

In all of aircraft areas.

93.

The cabin windows are: (level 1)

a)

installed and removed from the inside and outside of the aircraft.

b)

installed and removed from the outside of the aircraft.

c)

installed and removed from the inside of the aircraft.

94.

Radome made from (level 1)

a)

aluminum alloy

b)

QFRP composite

c)

CFRP composite

95.

Composite material CFRP means: (level 1)

a)

Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic.

b)

Composite Fiber Reinforced Plastic.

c)

Carbon Fiber Reinforced Product.

96.

The load in THS is mainly held by

a)

Spar box

b)

Attach fittings

c)

Aprons

97.

The vertical stabilizer leading edge

a)

Gives protection against damage to structural parts, the HF antenna and the ETACS (External and

b)

Gives protection to structural parts, the HF antenna, the ETACS camera, the VOR antenna.

c)

Gives protection to the HF antenna, the ETACS camera, the VOR antenna

98.

The cockpit door can be kept electrically unlocked for maintenance

a)

By keeping the cockpit door toggle switch in the unlock position

b)

By using the deadbolt to prevent door from closing

c)

By pushing the maintenance switch on overhead panel

99.

The cockpit door strikes are immediately de-energized to unlock the door when decompression is

a)

By pressure sensors of ISIS system

b)

By pressure sensors of CPCS (cabin pressure control system)

c)

By pressure sensors integrated in CDLCU (cockpit door locking control unit)

100.

The status cockpit door 'closed and locked' on the cockpit door panel

a)

Sent from micro-switch that attached to each electrical strike

b)

Sent from the switch in center strike

c)

Based on voting logic of status of three electrical strikes

101.

Decompression Deceleration Device decrease the speed of the cockpit door movement

a)

When cockpit door is opened rapidly

b)

When shear pin of the device break to activate brake assembly

c)

Both of above

102.

Cabin Decompression and Evacuation Panel integrated in cockpit door

a)

Will open into the direction of the cockpit when rapid cabin decompression occurred

b)

For evacuation of the cockpit when cockpit door is blocked

c)

Both of above

103.

The escape hatch can be

a)

Opened from inner side only

b)

Opened/Closed from outside and inside

c)

Opened/Closed from inner side and Opened from outside

104.

The passenger door bumper

a)

Stops the door to prevent it from crashing on A/C skin

b)

Absorbs the movement of the door while it opens or closes

c)

Opens the door in emergency operation

105.

The passenger door cannot be opened in flight due to

a)

The design profile of guide roller brackets and door stop fittings to prevent the relative movement between guide rollers and guide roller brackets as well as door stop fittings and door frame stop fittings

b)

Under cabin pressure the guide roller brackets lock the guide roller from moving away

c)

Under cabin pressure the door stop fittings cannot move away from door frame stop fittings

106.

When the door moved away from the door-frame

a)

The inner and outer handles cannot operate due to the anti-lowering lever fully locks the internal door

b)

The inner handle can be operated

c)

The slide selector lever can be operated

107.

When the Slide Selector Lever moves to the DISARMED position

a)

The girt bar disengages from the floor fittings

b)

The girt bar stays connected to the fuselage floor fittings

c)

The girt bar disengage from the slide pack

108.

Checking the DEOA (Damper and Emergency Operation Actuator) serviceable by

a)

Checking the bottle pressure status on FAP

b)

Checking a pressure gauge installed on the cylinder in green band

c)

Checking a pressure gauge installed on the cylinder and checking indication on FAP

109.

After the passenger door open in emergency mode

a)

The door can be closed after acting on safety exhaust plug to release pressure in DEOA (Damper and

b)

The DEOA can be charged with gas on wing for serviceability

c)

Both of above

110.

The latched and locked of cargo door is checking by

a)

Eight locking cam windows show green painted surface

b)

An aft hook indicator flag does not protrude

c)

Both of above

111.

At starting of cargo door normal closure

a)

Hydraulic pressure is sent to the actuator extension chamber

b)

Hydraulic pressure is sent to both chambers of actuator to prevent the free fall of cargo door

c)

Hydraulic pressure is sent to actuator retraction chamber

112.

1.       The red warning light on DIP( door indication panel) will flash

a)

a)  When the A/C on ground and pressure inside A/C is 2.5 mbar higher than pressure outside

b)

b)  When the A/C on ground, pressure inside A/C is 2.5 mbar higher than pressure outside, the slide lever

c)

c)  When the A/C on ground, parking brake on, pressure inside A/C 2.5 mbar higher than pressure outside, the slide lever is in the disarmed position

113.

1.       When water form faucet in LAV can not stop and we close the SOV

a)

a)  Water flows from faucet stop so we can use toilet in that LAV normally

b)

b)  All the water supply to that LAV stop and the LAV is considered inoperative

c)

c)  Water stops flowing to faucet and still supply to toilet line

114.

1.       Two Bleed Air System (BAS) applications

a)

a)  Changeover After each flight or after failure

b)

b)  Changeover Only after failure

c)

c)  They work simultaneously