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BOE_2021_ADBE (114-200 Q)

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A He-Nw layer emits light at a wave length of 632.8nm and has an output power of 2.3 mw. The no of photons emitted per minute, Given h = 6.625 x 10^-34 SI units.

a)

4.4x10^6 Photons/minute

b)

1.7x10^5 Photons/minute

c)

1.4x10^7 Photons/minute

d)

5.5x10^6 Photons/minute

e)

Answer not known

2.

Two sources of waves are called coherent if

a)

Both have the same amplitude and vibration

b)

Both produce waves of the same wave length

c)

Both produce waves having the same velocity

d)

Both produce waves of the same wave length having a constant phase difference

e)

Answer not known

3.

The colours exhibited by a soap bubble is due to

a)

Reflection of light

b)

Refraction of light

c)

Interference of light

d)

Diffraction of light

e)

Answer not known

4.

The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related as

a)

Isothermal curve slope = Adiabatic curve slope

b)

Adiabatic curve slope = y x Isothermal curve slope

c)

Isothermal curve = y x Adiabatic curve slope

d)

Adiabatic curve slope = k x Isothermal curve slope

e)

Answer not known

5.

The first law of thermodynamics is a special case of

a)

Law of conservation of momentum

b)

Law of conservation of energy

c)

Law of heat exchange

d)

Charle’s law

e)

Answer not known

6.

If T is the reverberation time of an auditorium of volume V' then

a)

T = 0.161V/A

b)

T = 0.5V/A

c)

T = 0.3V/A

d)

Answer not known

7.

The reciprocal of bulk modulus is called

a)

Modulus of elasticity

b)

Hooke’s law

c)

Compressibility

d)

Poisson ratio

e)

Answer not known

8.

The bulk modulus is a proportionality constant that relates the pressure acting on an object

a)

The shear

b)

The fractional change in volume

c)

The fractional change in length

d)

Young’s modulus

e)

Answer not known

9.

1 horse power is equal to

a)

1736W

b)

716 W

c)

1726 W

d)

746 W

e)

Answer not known

10.

The law of inertia is related to

a)

Newton’s first law of motion

b)

Newton’s second law of motion

c)

Newton’s third law of motion

d)

Law of conservation of momentum

e)

Answer not known

11.

Which of the following chemical formula represents tobermorite gel formed during hardening of cement?

a)

3CaO·2SiO2·3H2O

b)

3CaO·Al2O3·4-6H2O

c)

3CaO·Fe2O3·H2O

d)

3CaO·Al2O3·CaSO4·7H2O

e)

Answer not known

12.

Identify the metal pairs which are suitable for hot dipping.

a)

Cr and Pb

b)

Pb and Sn

c)

Sn and Zn

d)

Cr and Zn

e)

Answer not known

13.

The atomic weight of Al is 27 and its density is 2.70 g/cc. Similarly the molecular weight of Al2O3 = 102 and its density is 3.70 g/cc. The pilling bedworth ratio of Al2O3 is

a)

2.74

b)

0.63

c)

1.535

d)

0.79

e)

Answer not known

14.

A natural abrasive which has hardness 10 in Moh's scale is

a)

Corundum

b)

Topaz

c)

Diamond

d)

Gypsum

e)

Answer not known

15.

Arrange the following abrasives in increasing order of hardness: Norbide, Carborundum, Corundum, Garnet

a)

Garnet < Norbide < Corundum < Carborundum

b)

Carborundum < Corundum < Norbide < Garnet

c)

Corundum < Norbide < Garnet < Carborundum

d)

Garnet < Norbide < Carborundum < Corundum

e)

Answer not known

16.

The electrolyte in the hydrogen — oxygen fuel cell consists of

a)

25% KOH

b)

25% NaOH

c)

85% KOH

d)

85% NaOH

e)

Answer not known

17.

The theoretical cell voltage that can be obtained from a H2 — O2 fuel cell is

a)

0.80V

b)

0.90V

c)

1.0V

d)

1.23V

e)

Answer not known

18.

Choose the best option: is a record of declaration of one's objectives, interest and skills.

a)

Resume

b)

Letter

c)

Interview

d)

Case study

e)

Answer not known

19.

Rearrange the sentences: Milton said that 1 Those persons 2 Would be condemned 3. ‘Who do not obey 4 God's commands

a)

1,3,4,2

b)

4,1,2,3

c)

1,2,3,4

d)

3,2,1,4

e)

Answer not known

20.

Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the statement I don't think that my team is likely to win

a)

My team always wins

b)

My team likes to win

c)

I didn't know my team was so successful

d)

My team will probably lose

e)

Answer not known

21.

Choose the correct suffix to form a meaningful word to the following word Way

a)

-let

b)

-some

c)

-en

d)

-ward

e)

Answer not known

22.

Choose the best synonym of the underlined word. Fashion is volatile and has its impact in every walk of life in the globalized world of hybridity.

a)

Constant

b)

Changeable

c)

Converge

d)

Complex

e)

Answer not known

23.

Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the underlined word Safety is the drastic need of the residents of sea side villages.

a)

Severe

b)

Moderate

c)

Mandatory

d)

Basic

e)

Answer not known

24.

Choose the correct connective and fill in the blanks. Plastics tend to be resistant to inorganic acids ————— can be dissolved by solvents like carbon tetra chloride.

a)

but

b)

yet

c)

while

d)

whereas

e)

Answer not known

25.

Spot the error: No sooner/had he heard/the news, then/he wept.

a)

No Sooner

b)

Had he heard

c)

The news then

d)

He wept

e)

Answer not known

26.

————— liquid sample assumes the shape of its container.

a)

The

b)

A

c)

An

d)

By

e)

Answer not known

27.

Choose the correct passive voice of the given sentence: He showed me how to do the work.

a)

He is showed by me how to do the work

b)

The work was showed by him to me

c)

I was showed how to do the work

d)

He was showed how to do the work by me

e)

Answer not known

28.

Fill in the blank with suitable verb: Next week by now, I ——————— my holidays.

a)

Will enjoy

b)

Will be enjoying

c)

Would enjoy

d)

Would have been enjoying

e)

Answer not known

29.

Complete the following, using the past perfect continuous/Frame a past perfect continuous question from the words given in brackets. (You have/a party?)

a)

Had you been in a party?

b)

Had you been having a party?

c)

Have you been having a party?

d)

Have you been in a party?

e)

Answer not known

30.

Which of the following is not considered under Business to Business e-commerce?

a)

Direct selling and support to business

b)

Industry portals

c)

Information sites about an industry

d)

Buying a product through Web Site

e)

Answer not known

31.

Data Communication Network within a building or campus

a)

WAN

b)

LAN

c)

MAN

d)

CAN

e)

Answer not known

32.

Piggybacking communication are mostly

a)

Full — duplex

b)

Half — duplex

c)

Simplex

d)

Multi — directional

e)

Answer not known

33.

A variable is an

a)

Constant

b)

Identifier

c)

Identity

d)

Operator

e)

Answer not known

34.

——— stores many data values under the same variable name.

a)

List

b)

Table

c)

Array

d)

Tree

e)

Answer not known

35.

Shell is a component of

a)

DOS

b)

UNIX

c)

System software

d)

Application software

e)

Answer not known

36.

‘A’ throws an apple vertically upwards from the ground to ‘B’ standing near the window of a room 30m above. The apple was caught by ‘B’ 2 sec later by her outstretched hand. The final velocity of the apple just before it was caught is

a)

5.19 m/sec

b)

22.31 m/sec

c)

8.27 m/sec

d)

20.34 m/sec

e)

Answer not known

37.

A particle moves along a straight line so that its displacement in metre from a fixed point is expressed as s = 3 + 3t^2 + 4t + 5. The velocity of the body at 4 seconds is

a)

76 m/s

b)

66 m/s

c)

60 m/s

d)

4 m/s

e)

Answer not known

38.

A body is rotating with an angular velocity of 5 radians/s. After 4 seconds the angular velocity of the body reaches 13 radians/s. The angular acceleration of the body is

a)

8 rad/s²

b)

4 rad/s²

c)

2 rad/s²

d)

1 rad/s²

e)

Answer not known

39.

The centre of gravity of a hemisphere of radius 8 cm from its base measured along vertical radius is

a)

32/3 cm

b)

12 cm

c)

3 cm

d)

32/7 cm

e)

Answer not known

40.

A ladder of length 4 m, weighing 200 N is placed against a vertical wall as shown. The coefficient of friction between the wall and the ladder is 0.2 and that between the floor and the ladder is 0.3. In addition to self weight, the ladder has to support a man weighting 600 N at a distance of 3m from A. What is the frictional force developed at B?

a)

50 N

b)

53 N

c)

62 N

d)

Answer not known

41.

Limiting friction is the maximum value of static friction that occurs when

a)

the body is at rest

b)

the motion is impending

c)

the body is moving at constant speed

d)

the motion is periodic

e)

Answer not known

42.

If ‘Ty’ is the tension in the slack side of the belt, ‘μ’ is the coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley, ‘θ’ is the angle of contact between the belt and pulley, Tension ‘T1’ in the tight side of the belt is expressed as

a)

T1 = T2 e^(μθ)

b)

T1 = T2

c)

T1 = T2 e^(-μθ)

d)

T1 = T2 e^(μ/θ)

e)

Answer not known

43.

Modulation is used to

a)

reduce bandwidth

b)

reduce power

c)

separate different transmission

d)

increase power

e)

Answer not known

44.

For the following circuit, the input clock frequency is 10 KHz, then the output frequency at Q is

a)

5 KHz

b)

10 KHz

c)

20 KHz

d)

2.5 KHz

e)

Answer not known

45.

Which of the following statements are valid

a)

(1) When a pn junction is heavily doped, its breakdown voltage will increase

b)

(2) The avalanche breakdown and zener breakdown are the same mechanisms by which a pn junction breaks

c)

(3) Zener diode can be used for meter protection and for wave shaping

d)

(4) Zener diode can be used for meter protection but cannot be used for wave shaping

e)

Answer not known

46.

The ripple factor of a full wave rectifier is

a)

1.21

b)

1.707

c)

0.48

d)

1.414

e)

Answer not known

47.

The barrier voltage at a pn junction for germanium is about

a)

0.35V

b)

3V

c)

Zero

d)

0.3V

e)

Answer not known

48.

The KVA rating of an ordinary two winding transformer increases considerably when connected as an auto transformer because

a)

Secondary voltage is increased

b)

Secondary current is increased

c)

Energy is transferred both inductively and conductively

d)

Transformation ratio is increased

e)

Answer not known

49.

Rotational losses in a dc machine consist of

a)

Magnetic and copper losses

b)

Magnetic and mechanical losses

c)

Mechanical and copper losses

d)

Copper losses only

e)

Answer not known

50.

The power dissipated in 6 Q resistor of the given circuit will be

a)

6 W

b)

12 W

c)

24 W

d)

28 W

e)

Answer not known

51.

The ratio of maximum value to r.m.s value of an alternating quantity is called

a)

Form factor

b)

Mean value

c)

Effective value

d)

Crest factor

e)

Answer not known

52.

In a 3-phase balanced system the phasor sum of 3-phase voltages, V1, V2 and V3 are

a)

Zero

b)

15V

c)

BV

d)

Answer not known

53.

When the instantaneous applied voltage across a capacitor is zero, the instantaneous current through the capacitor will be

a)

zero

b)

minimum

c)

no current flow

d)

maximum

e)

Answer not known

54.

What is the weakest form of control?

a)

Pre control

b)

Simultaneous control

c)

Post control

d)

Duel control

e)

Answer not known

55.

Arrange in the order of selection process

a)

Physical examination

b)

Reference checking

c)

Selection tests

d)

Employment interview

e)

Answer not known

56.

———— training is provided by special instructors, away from the shop floor.

a)

Induction

b)

Apprenticeship

c)

Refresher

d)

Vestibule

e)

Answer not known

57.

The kind of interview in which, the standard questions to be put to a candidate are framed in advance is called

a)

Patterned interview

b)

Direct interview

c)

Stress interview

d)

Panel interview

e)

Answer not known

58.

—————— is a statement of minimum acceptable qualities required in a job incumbent for the effective performance of the job.

a)

Job specification

b)

Job analysis

c)

Job description

d)

Man power planning

e)

Answer not known

59.

If a general manager asks sales manager to recruit executives on his behalf, it is an instance of

a)

Centralisation of authority

b)

Decentralisation of authority

c)

Delegating responsibility

d)

Delegating authority

e)

Answer not known

60.

SMART is an acronym for ——————— in planning.

a)

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic and Time-related

b)

Simple, Mission, Achieve, Reply and Time

c)

Solution, Method, Action, Reply and Time

d)

System, Method, Activities, Report and Time

e)

Answer not known

61.

provides the basis for control.

a)

Planning

b)

Co-ordination

c)

Directing

d)

Organisation

e)

Answer not known

62.

Henry Fayol laid down

a)

10 principles

b)

12 principles

c)

14 principles

d)

15 principles

e)

Answer not known

63.

Peter has suggested the factors for evaluating alternative course of action.

a)

Peter Drucker

b)

F.W. Taylor

c)

Henry Fayol

d)

George Terry

e)

Answer not known

64.

Drucker emphasized that “three ways to determine the kind of structure needed in a specific enterprise”! They are

a)

Activities Analysis, Decision Analysis and Relation Analysis

b)

Relation Analysis, Job Analysis and Person Analysis

c)

Decision Analysis, Job Analysis and Evaluation Analysis

d)

Job Analysis, Evaluation Analysis and Relation Analysis

e)

Answer not known

65.

Fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes is known as

a)

Business Process Reengineering

b)

Quality Function Deployment

c)

Reverse Engineering

d)

Total Productive Maintenance

e)

Answer not known

66.

When a measuring instrument is calibrated, the objective is to reduce:

a)

Accuracy

b)

Bias

c)

Repeatability

d)

Reproducibility

e)

Answer not known

67.

Zero accident, zero defect, zero breakdown and zero losses are the major objectives of

a)

KAIZEN

b)

TPM

c)

QFD

d)

BPR

e)

Answer not known

68.

“Voice of Customer (VOC)’ is an quality development process used in

a)

Design of six sigma

b)

Poka-Yoke

c)

DMAIC

d)

Lean Management

e)

Answer not known

69.

Approximately what area is covered under the normal distribution curve between +3 standard deviations?

a)

95.40%

b)

88.00%

c)

99.73%

d)

68.00%

e)

Answer not known

70.

Which one of the following is correctly matching the six-sigma state?

a)

Measure — Define — Analyse — Improve — Control

b)

Improve — Measure — Define — Analyse — Control

c)

Define — Measure — Analyse — Improve — Control

d)

Measure — Analyse — Control — Define — Improve

e)

Answer not known

71.

Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

a)

SEIRI - SORTING

b)

SEITON - DEVELOP

c)

SEISO - SHINE

d)

SEIKETSU — STANDARDISE

e)

Answer not known

72.

Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of quality circle?

a)

The membership consists of departmental work leaders and line operators

b)

Membership is compulsory

c)

Compensation for out of working hours from full time to nothing

d)

Each activity should have its own group of employees or workers

e)

Answer not known

73.

The four primary continuous process improvement strategies are

a)

rework, refinement, redefine, renovation

b)

repair, refinement, renovation, reinvention

c)

repair, reengineer, redefine, renovation

d)

rectify, refinement, redefine, reinvention

e)

Answer not known

74.

Costs that are incurred to ensure that bad quality does not occur in manufactured goods are

a)

Appraisal costs

b)

Failure costs

c)

Hidden costs

d)

Prevention costs

e)

Answer not known

75.

Who stated that 80% of the problem are found in 20% of the work?

a)

Philip Crosby

b)

Joseph Juran

c)

Pareto

d)

Edward Deming

e)

Answer not known

76.

What are the core principles of the TQM in a company wide effort?

a)

Customer and process orientation only

b)

Continuous improvement only

c)

Process orientation and continuous improvement only

d)

Continuous improvement process and customer orientation

e)

Answer not known

77.

“ Poor Quality loses” are

a)

Process non-conformities

b)

Scrap

c)

Slowdown

d)

Coffee and lunch breaks

e)

Answer not known

78.

Noise is called as

a)

loud noise

b)

constant sound

c)

unwanted sound

d)

sound of high frequency

e)

Answer not known

79.

The intensity (I) and power (W) of sound wave are related by the equation.

a)

I=Wl/a

b)

I=W+a

c)

I=W+a

d)

I=W-a

e)

Answer not known

80.

Noise is measured in units of

a)

hertz

b)

decibel

c)

doboson

d)

bacqueral

e)

Answer not known

81.

The phenomenon by virtue of which a soil is clogged with sewage matter, is?

a)

Sewage farming

b)

Sewage sickness

c)

Sewage bulking

d)

Sewage loading

e)

Answer not known

82.

If a 2% solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C, and the dissolved oxygen depletion is 10 mg/l, then the BOD of the sewage would be

a)

50 mg/l

b)

200 mg/l

c)

500 mg/l

d)

5000 mg/l

e)

Answer not known

83.

Arrange these green house gases according to relative contribution for global warming

a)

CH4

b)

N2O

c)

CO2

d)

O3

e)

CFC

84.

The Chloro Fluoro Carbons (CFCs) are released into the environment by humans, as they are largely used

a)

in refrigeration and air conditioning

b)

as cleaning solvent in factories

c)

in aerosol sprays

d)

all of the above

e)

Answer not known