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BOE'17 (96-200 Q)

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The scalar ($) lamda is a characteristic root of the matrix A if (A) (A~ Al) is non-singular d (A - AI) is singular (C) A is non-singular (D) A is singular

a)

(A~ $l) is non-singular

b)

(A~ $l) is singular

c)

A is non-singular

d)

A is singular

2.

The solution of the initial value problem y"+y'-2y=0, given y(0)=3, y'(0)=0 is

a)

(A) y=e+2e%

b)

(C) y=2i

c)

(D) y=2e-e*

d)

3.

Choose the mismatch of the following

a)

(A) Oildag — Internal combustion epginés

b)

(B) Molybdenum disulphide _ sandwich structure

c)

(C) Hydrocarbon oils — watches

d)

(D) Glycerides of fatty acids — sewing machines

4.

The calorific value of brown coals lie in the range of

a)

(A) 8000~8500 Kcal/kg

b)

(B) 8500~8600 Kcal/kg

c)

(C) 8650 — 8700 Kcal/kg

d)

6500 - 7000 Kcal/kg

5.

Which among the following can withstand upto 2500°C?

a)

(A) High alumina

b)

(B) Dolomite

c)

(C) Chromite

d)

(D) Zirconia

6.

Which one of these following is formed (as a green film) when copper is exposed to moist air containing CO2?

a)

(A) CuCO3+ Cu(OH)2

b)

(B) Cu,CO2 + Cu(OH)

c)

(C) CuCo2 +Cu(OH)

d)

(D) CuS0, +Cu(OH)

7.

What is the gross calorific value of 1 kg of carbon? Given that, fig 1 + Delta (H)= -394kJ/mol. Atomic weight of carbon is 12.

a)

(A) 7,847 kcal/kg

b)

(B) 3,200 kcal/kg

c)

(C) 3,940 kcal/kg

d)

(D) 12,000 kcal/kg

8.

Ground water acquires calcium and magnesium bicarbonate hardness because of

a)

(A) the dissolution of calcium and magnesium carbonates in water containing dissolved co2

b)

(B) the hydrolysis of CaSO4 and MgSO4 with water containing dissolved CO2

c)

(C) the hydrolysis of CaCO3 and MgCO3 by water containing dissolved O2

d)

(D) the reaction of calcium and magnesium silicates with water containing dissolved CO2

9.

Which of the following is not a primary explosive?

a)

(A) Mercury fulminate

b)

(B) Tetracene

c)

(C) Leadazide

d)

(D) TNT

10.

Corundum is made up of

a)

(A) sio2

b)

(B) sic

c)

B4C

d)

Al2O3

11.

The compound, tricresyl phosphate is used in petroleum oil lubricants for reducing

a)

(A) Waxing in oils

b)

(B) Abrasion

c)

(C) Emulsification

d)

(D) Foam formation

12.

Pick out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression given below: rain cats and dogs

a)

(A) Secretly

b)

(B) Rain heavily

c)

(C) Runaway

d)

(D) Very violent

13.

Identify the sentence with the wrong question tag:

a)

(A) Amala plays tennis, doesn’t she?

b)

(B) I am not a boy, am I?

c)

(C) It is a book, is it?

d)

(D) I am reading a book, aren’t I?

14.

Expressions such as Yours faithfully, Yours truly, Yours affectionately are termed as

a)

(A) Salutation

b)

(B) Subscription

c)

(C) Reference

d)

(D) Direction

15.

Choose the correct synonym of the word underlined in the following sentence. Her "Seraphic" semblance was worshipped by one and all.

a)

(A) good

b)

(B) beautiful

c)

(C) augelic

d)

(D) demoniac

16.

Rearrange the jumbled sentences in the following passages.
S1 Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the north of Italy -
S6 This is because Venice has no streets
P. There are about four hundred old stone bridges joining the islands of Venice
Q. In this city there are no motor — cars, no horses and no buses
R. These small islands are near one another
S. It is not one island but a hundred and seventeen islands.

a)

(A) QPRS

b)

(B) SRPQ

c)

(C) SPQR

d)

(D) QSPR

17.

Fill in the blanks with the correct verb forms from the options given: While I __________ at the star-studded sky, my friend arrived.

a)

(A) had been gazing

b)

(B) has been gazing

c)

(C) was gazing

d)

(D) is gazing

18.

Which of the following activates one of the registers to load inputs?

a)

(A) Multiplexer

b)

(B) Encoder

c)

(C) Decoder

d)

(D) ALU

19.

The performance of cache memory is frequently measured in terms of

a)

(A) Turn around time

b)

(B) Latency time

c)

(C) Miss ratio

d)

(D) Hit ratio

20.

Stack is a
(i) Storage device that stores information in Last-in-First-out manner.
(ii) Stack is associated with a address register.
(iii) Stack can perform any operation.

a)

(A) (i) only

b)

(B) (i) and (iI) ONLY

c)

(C) (i) and (ii) and (iii)

d)

(D) (i) and (ii) and (iii)

21.
a)

(A) 10000010

b)

(B) 11110000

c)

(C) 10001000

d)

(D) 00011100

22.

For a computer with main-memory capacity of 32 K words (K = 1024), how many bits are needed to specify a physical address in memory?

a)

(A) 20 bits

b)

(B) 15 bits

c)

(C) 32 bits

d)

(D) 16 bits

23.

In Ethernet LAN, NIC stands for

a)

(A) National Interface Card

b)

(B) Node Interface Card

c)

(C) Network Interface Card

d)

(D) Network Internet Card

24.

Cellular phones are working in the band of

a)

(A) High frequency

b)

(B) Very high frequency

c)

(C) Ultra high frequency

d)

(D) Super high frequency

25.

To design a cross-bar switch, how many cross points are required to connect n inputs to m outputs?

a)

n/m

b)

2nxm

c)

n+m

d)

nxm

26.

Which of the following device is a protocol converter?

a)

Bridges

b)

Routers

c)

Switches

d)

Gateways

27.

How many times 'I am Repeated' is printed?

a)

17

b)

13

c)

1

d)

0

28.

Moment of Inertia of solid sphere is

a)

b)

c)

d)

29.

Velocity of a moving body

a)

is a vector quantity

b)

is a scalar quantity

c)

is a constant quantity

d)

involves magnitude only

30.

In which among the following metallic coatings, the coat metal is anodic to the base metal?

a)

Coating of zinc over iron

b)

Coating of copper over iron

c)

Silver over copper

d)

Gold over copper

31.

The acceleration due to gravity of a particle falling towards earth is "FIG 2", Where r the distance from the centre of earth to the particle. ‘R’ is the radius of the earth and ‘¢ is acceleration due to gravity. The escape velocity when the particle is projected from surface of the earth is

a)

b)

c)

d)

32.

A stone is dropped into a well 70.75 m deep. The time after which the sound be heard, if the velocity of sound is 350 m/s is

a)

3sec

b)

4sec

c)

5sec

d)

6sec

33.

The kinetic energy due to rotation of a body is equal to

a)

b)

c)

d)

34.

The conditions of equilibrium for coplanar non-concurrent forces are

a)

b)

c)

d)

35.

With 4 resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 10 W, the total power supplied by the voltage source equals

a)

400w

b)

100W

c)

10w

d)

40w

36.

In general three phases are denoted by R,Y and B. RYB is taken as positive sequence, the negative sequence would be.

a)

BYR

b)

YBR

c)

RBY

d)

BRY

37.

In which type of voltmeter the readings are not affected by the changes in the waveform of the applied voltage?

a)

Permanent magnet moving coil voltmeter

b)

Dynamometer type voltmeter

c)

Repulsion type Moving Iron voltmeter

d)

Attraction type Moving Iron voltmeter

38.

An energy meter makes 100 revolutions of disc for one unit of energy. The no. of revolutions made when connected to load carrying 10 A current at 230 V and unity power factor for 1 hour will be

a)

2.3 revolutions

b)

23 revolutions

c)

230 revolutions

d)

2300 revolutions

39.

The type of DC generator preferred for arc welding applications is

a)

DC series generator

b)

DC shunt generator

c)

DC cumulative compound generator

d)

DC differential compound generator

40.

Two transformers are connected in parallel. They will share their load in the ratio of their KVA ratings provided their per unit impedances (on their KVA) are

a)

purely reactive

b)

equal

c)

in the inverse ratio of their ratings

d)

in the direct ratio of their ratings

41.

At 100% modulation, the power m power-each sideband is of that of carrier.

a)

50%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

25%

42.

The frequency of the Stereo Subcarrier Signal in FM broadcasting is

a)

19KHz

b)

38 KHz

c)

50KHz

d)

76KHz

43.

The IF is 455 KHz, If the radio receiver is tuned to 855 KHz, the local oscillator frequency is

a)

455KHz

b)

1310KHz

c)

1500 KHz

d)

1520KHz

44.

In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions?

a)

Organising, Planning, Controlling, Leading

b)

Organising, Leading, Planning, Controlling

c)

Planning, Organising, Leading, Controlling

d)

Planning, Organising, Controlling, Leading

45.

Decentralization is a fundamental aspect of

a)

Authority

b)

Responsibility

c)

Duty

d)

Delegation

46.

What is the Guiding principle of Scientific Management?

a)

Experimentation

b)

Fluid working relationships

c)

Freedom of Association

d)

One best way to do a job

47.

Job Analysis, Job description, Job specification and Job evaluation are the major activities of

a)

Organizational Planning

b)

External Planning

c)

Manpower Planning

d)

Importance of Planning

48.

Organisation’s activities involve a variety of

a)

People, tasks, resources and technologies

b)

Timing, directions and resources

c)

Team, work and strategy

d)

Objectives, goals and Mission

49.

Efficiency can be expressed as

a)

b)

c)

d)

50.

Organisation chart shows only relationships.

a)

Informal

b)

Formal

c)

Sideward

d)

Downward

51.

Match the following:
Names - Year
(a) F.W. Taylor born in (1) 1771
(b) Robert Owen born in (2)1841
(c) Henry Fayol born in (3)1880
(d) Elton Mayo born in (4)1856

a)

2 3 4 1

b)

4 1 2 3

c)

1 2 3 4

d)

3 4 1 2

52.

The ability to work well with other people both individually and in a group is called

a)

Technical skill

b)

Human skill

c)

Conceptual skill

d)

Behavioural skill

53.

The Quality Assurance Manual that specifies standards for Quality Management and Quality Assurance in Design / Development production, installation and servicing is

a)

ANSI/ASQC 9001 - 1994

b)

ANSI/ASQC 9002 - 1994

c)

ANSI/ASQC 9003 - 1994

d)

ANSI/ASQC 9014 - 1994

54.

Assertion (A): The international standard will facilitate trade and will remove trade barriers and will build consensus on the need for environmental management and common terminology for EMS.

Reason (R): ISO 14000 provides the framework whereby its successful adoption and promotion in the world can lead to progress that will reassure the worldwide community.

a)

Both (A) and (R) are correct : (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b)

Both (A) and (R) are correct : (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

d)

Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

55.

Diagnose the causes and providing remedies to improve the gaps in the process efficiency is a measure of

a)

Product development

b)

Quality planning

c)

Quality Improvement

d)

Quality control

56.

Diagnose the causes and providing remedies to improve the gaps in the process efficiency is a measure of

a)

Product development

b)

Quality planning

c)

Quality control

d)

Quality improvement

57.

In R and R study, Measurement variation due to equipment is called

a)

Bias

b)

Reproducibility

c)

Linearity

d)

Repeatability

58.

P-D-C-A stands for

a)

Plan, Do, Correct, Action

b)

Plan, Do, Check, Action

c)

Process, Do, Correct, Action

d)

Process, Do, Check, Action

59.

Sequential Sampling is an extension of which of this sample plan

a)

Single sampling plan

b)

Double sampling plan

c)

Multiple sampling plan

d)

Blind sampling plan

60.

360 degree performance appraisals refer to

a)

Non-monetary forms of recognition to acknowledge achievement of quality improvement goals

b)

Individual based performance system

c)

Quality based performance appraisals

d)

Feedback from coworkers, subordinates or customers is incorporated into performance appraisals

61.

The total quality management philosophy that focuses on the components planning, control and improvement was developed by whom?

a)

Edward Dening

b)

Joseph M. Juran

c)

Walt S. Shewhart

d)

David Ricardo

62.

Which of the following is NOT a prevention cost?

a)

Design review

b)

Final inspection

c)

Purchase order review

d)

Capability review

63.

DMAIC is a problem solving approach used in which of these?

a)

Kaizen

b)

5S model

c)

Six sigma

d)

Fishbone model

64.

Which of the following is the initiator for formation of photo-chemical smog?

a)

Ozone

b)

Nitrogen oxide

c)

Volatile hydrocarbons

d)

Sunlight

65.

Gaseous pollutants are Gaseous in nature.

a)

at low temp and low pressure

b)

at boiling point and high pressure

c)

at normal temperature and high pressure

d)

at normal temperature and pressure

66.

Darkening effect of ‘Taj Mahal’ is due to __________________________________________________. Select your answer accordingly to the coding scheme given below

a)

1 and 2 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

Only 3 is correct

d)

Only 4 is correct

67.

The automobile exhaust consists excess of gas

a)

CO2

b)

O2

c)

CO

d)

CH4

68.
a)

NO

b)

c)

d)

69.

The biological process among the waste water treatment methods is

a)

Coagulation process

b)

Neutralisation process

c)

Activated sludge process

d)

Adsorption

70.

Consider the following statements:
(A) The ratio of carbon to nitrogen in settled domestic sewer is always much higher than that of industrial wastes
(R) Because they contribute much organic matter.
select the correct answer according to the coding scheme given below

a)

(A) is true but (R) is false

b)

(A) is false but (R) is true

c)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

d)

Both (A) and (R) are false and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

71.

Rice processing industry waste contains a high level of

a)

Proteins

b)

Amino acids

c)

Starch

d)

Alkali metals

72.

Choose the correct answer :
Normal human body has about ———— mg of silver,
excess of Ag ————— mg in human body causes changes in blood cells, fall in blood pressure etc

a)

1, 100

b)

5, 2500

c)

10, 150

d)

5, 150

73.

Which among the following is correct.
Permissible limits of radio active nuclides in water as recommended by the international commission on Radiological protection

a)

10 PCi/L- a- activity

b)

8 PCA- B -activity

c)

5 PC; /- Rodium 226

d)

5 PC/- a- activity

74.

Assertion:(A) Flooding may not destroy the nature of the soil
Reason: (R) Flooding of rivers and seas is not major routes of soil pollution.
select your answer according to the coding scheme given below

a)

(A) is false but (R) true and (A) is the correct explanation for (R)

b)

(A) is true but (R) is false and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

c)

Both (A) and (R) are false

d)

Both (A) and (R) are true

75.

For the nuclear fusion reaction to take place

a)

High temperature of the order of 10°K is required

b)

High pressure of the order of 100 atm is required

c)

High electric field of the order of 10° V/m is required

d)

High voltage of the order of 10* V is required

76.

The coordination number for "face centered cubic" (FCC) lattice is

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12

77.

Super conductors are used to make

a)

Permanent magnets

b)

Electronic devices

c)

Diodes

d)

Electromagnets

78.

Polar dielectric materials which have permanent dipole moments are used in making

a)

Capacitors

b)

Resistors

c)

Inductors

d)

PN junction diode

79.

In semi conductors, the forbidden band is

a)

Very small

b)

Very large

c)

Zero

d)

Overlap each other

80.

The overall enterprise objective is achieved through

a)

Organisation

b)

Staffing

c)

Co-ordinating

d)

Leadership

81.

When the frequency of the voltage applied across a capacitor is increased

a)

Current remains unchanged

b)

Current increases

c)

Current decreases

d)

Voltage is maximum

82.

Ultrasonic waves are those waves which have

a)

Frequencies less than 20 Hz

b)

Frequencies between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz

c)

Frequencies much higher than 20,000 Hz

d)

Frequencies equal to the frequencies of visible light

83.

Water has the density maximum at the temperature equal to

a)

-4° C

b)

0° C

c)

4 K

d)

4° C

84.

The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of

a)

Conservation of universe

b)

Conservation of mass

c)

Conservation of momentum

d)

Conservation of energy

85.

Assertion (A): For optical interference to take place monochromatic light is to be used
Reason (R): The light source used should be coherent in nature

a)

(A) is false and (R) is correct

b)

(A) is correct and (R) is false

c)

Both (A) and (R) are correct

d)

Both (A) and (R) are false

86.

The condition for diffraction to take place is

a)

The size of the obstacle should be less than intensity of light

b)

The size of the obstacle should be comparable to the wavelength of light

c)

Both the sizes of the obstacle and the wavelength are not related

d)

The size of the obstacle should be greater than the size of the wavelength of light

87.

The substance that rotate the plane of polarisation are said to be

a)

Optically active

b)

Optically inactive

c)

Opaque

d)

Polaroids