WorksheetsPERT/CPM Introduction and Project Networks
Total questions: 88
Worksheet time: 44mins
Which statement best defines PERT/CPM as presented?
A statistical quality control method for manufacturing defects
A project management tool in the construction industry to plan, schedule, and control projects
A financial accounting system for cost allocation
A safety protocol for hazardous materials handling
In a project network, what components form the network used to represent projects?
Tasks and budgets
Nodes and arcs
Teams and milestones
Risks and mitigations
Which item is most directly associated with identifying immediate predecessors in project planning?
Activity Information
Precedence Relationship
Time Information
Resource Allocation
Which description aligns with Time Information in a project's basic information?
Detail of the activity such as excavation, masonry, or finishing
Identification of required resources and costs
Estimate of the activity duration
Definition of the project network topology
A planner lists excavation, masonry, and finishing for a project. Under which category of a project's basic information do these details fall?
Time Information
Risk Register
Activity Information
Precedence Relationship
Which statement best describes the Forward Pass in project scheduling?
It assumes the estimated activity duration is followed and finds early start and early finish times.
It determines resource leveling across all activities.
It calculates only the latest possible finish times.
It identifies activities with zero float only.
In a Backward Pass, what is determined for each activity without delaying the project?
The earliest possible start and finish times
The latest possible start and finish times
Only the earliest finish time
The amount of rework required
Early Start and Early Finish represent which of the following?
The earliest possible start and finish times for a project without delay
The most optimistic resource allocation plan
The dates after applying float to each activity
The latest possible completion dates for noncritical tasks
Late Start and Late Finish represent which of the following?
The dates at which an activity must begin and end to minimize cost
The latest possible start and finish times for a project without delay
The baseline schedule recorded at project kickoff
The earliest feasible times considering only durations
What is the definition of Slack or Float?
Time added to critical activities to ensure on-time completion
Allowable time for an activity to delay without delaying the overall project duration
Extra time available only at the end of the project
Time gained by running activities in parallel
Which statement about the Critical Path is correct?
It consists of activities that have maximum float.
It has zero slack or float; any delay on it will delay the overall project duration.
It is the path with the greatest number of activities regardless of duration.
It contains only activities scheduled with the Forward Pass.
Which statement best characterizes PERT in project management?
A deterministic, activity-oriented method emphasizing fixed durations
A probabilistic, event-oriented method that considers time uncertainty
A cost-only scheduling method without timing aspects
A technique focused exclusively on crashing activities
In CPM, which assumption about activity durations is emphasized?
Durations vary randomly and must be modeled probabilistically
Activities are defined only by events, not tasks
Each activity follows its estimated duration deterministically
Uncertainty is captured via optimistic and pessimistic estimates
Which trio of time estimates is associated with PERT to capture uncertainty?
Early Start, Late Start, Early Finish
Crash time, Normal time, Free float
Most likely, Optimistic, Pessimistic
Budgeted cost, Actual cost, Earned value
Which orientation correctly matches each method?
PERT is activity oriented; CPM is event oriented
Both PERT and CPM are event oriented
PERT is event oriented; CPM is activity oriented
Both PERT and CPM are activity oriented
In CPM, what does the term crashing most closely mean?
Eliminating non-critical activities without cost
Reducing activity duration at a cost
Estimating optimistic duration only
Re-sequencing activities to remove uncertainty
A project manager needs to analyze the probability of finishing a project by a certain time. Which technique is more appropriate based on the comparison?
CPM, because it assumes fixed durations
PERT, because it uses probabilistic time estimates
Either PERT or CPM; both are equally probabilistic
Neither; this requires only earned value analysis
According to the definition, what is a Constructor’s Performance Evaluation System primarily used for?
Scheduling activities along the critical path
Grading a constructor’s performance for specific projects using set criteria
Estimating probabilistic durations for events
Calculating the time–cost tradeoff for crashing
Which credential is explicitly required for a CPE to meet the minimum qualification?
Certified Project Manager (PMP)
Licensed Engineer or Architect
Licensed Surveyor
Registered Environmental Planner
Certified Safety Professional
According to the CPES minimum qualification, what is the minimum industry experience required for a CPE?
2 years in any industry
3 years in construction or forestry
5 years in the construction industry
7 years in project management
10 years in public works
Which condition would disqualify a CPE candidate under CPES minimum qualifications?
Refusing overtime work
Conviction of a crime with a penalty of 6 months imprisonment
Holding dual citizenship
Having no prior government experience
Completion of an accreditation course
What does a Corrective Action Request primarily document within CPES?
The constructor’s proposed schedule updates
Validated findings of the constructor’s noncompliance requiring immediate action
Budget overruns and cost control measures
Training needs of the CPE team
Design change approvals
Which statement best describes a Corrective Action Plan in CPES?
A checklist to verify compliance
A proposed plan detailing specific actions and timetable to correct non-conformance findings
A weekly progress report on completed works
A risk register for future projects
A procurement plan for materials
In CPES terminology, what is a Spot?
A defect observed on a finished surface
An area selected from identified locations of ongoing or completed work for evaluation/inspection
A temporary storage area for materials
A contingency fund category
A safety incident recorded on site
During construction, which project category is associated with 60%?
Vertical projects such as buildings
Horizontal projects such as roads and bridges
Power transmission line projects only
Substation and diesel power projects only
Housing projects only
What percentage allocation is given to Horizontal Projects upon completion in CPES evaluations?
20%
30%
40%
50%
Which of the following is categorized under Vertical Projects in the CPES upon-completion allocation list?
Ports and Harbors
Irrigation and Flood Control
Power Transmission Line
Water Supply and Sewerage
During construction, what is the minimum number of CPES site visits required when actual accomplishment is at least 30%?
1 visit
2 visits
3 visits
No visit required
Upon completion, what type of visit is required according to the CPES Number of Visits guidance?
Quarterly audit visit
Final visit for 100% completion
Random spot check
Pre-award inspection
Which criterion increases its weight from during-construction to upon-completion in CPES, doubling from 0.15 to 0.30?
Workmanship
Materials
Time
Facilities
For projects lasting 90 calendar days and below, how many CPES visits are required during construction?
No visits
1 visit
2 visits
3 visits
Which of the following is listed as a Horizontal Project in the CPES upon-completion allocation?
Housing
Building
Road and Bridges
Substation and Diesel Power
What is the weight for Workmanship during construction versus upon completion in CPES criteria?
0.30 during, 0.40 upon completion
0.40 during, 0.50 upon completion
0.50 during, 0.40 upon completion
0.20 during, 0.30 upon completion
What percentage allocation is given to Vertical Projects upon completion in CPES evaluations?
20%
30%
40%
60%
Which criterion has a weight of 0.20 upon completion in the CPES criteria shown?
Materials
Facilities
Environment, Safety & Health
Resource Deployment
According to the CPES scoring remarks, which adjective rating corresponds to a numerical score greater than 96%?
Outstanding
Very Satisfactory
Satisfactory
Unsatisfactory
Poor
Which numerical rating range aligns with the adjective rating "Very Satisfactory" in CPES evaluations?
> 96%
89% - 96%
> 89% - 96%
82% - 89%
75% - 82%
In CPES for the construction industry, what minimum rating must a constructor have for agency shortlisting?
Outstanding
Very Satisfactory
Satisfactory
Unsatisfactory
Poor
Which statement best describes the CPES requirement related to Time during an agency’s post qualification?
A zero rating for Time is acceptable if other criteria are high
At least satisfactory overall rating and no zero rating for Time are required
Only an Outstanding rating for Time is acceptable
Time is not considered during post qualification
Time must be rated above 96%
What is the consequence in CPES if a constructor’s final rating is Poor or Unsatisfactory?
They must reapply after six months
They are given provisional registration
They are blacklisted
They receive a warning but may still be shortlisted
No consequence is specified
Which statement best describes how CPES ratings influence PCAB registration?
A contractor’s CPES rating is unrelated to PCAB licensing eligibility.
CPES ratings serve as part of the evidence considered for PCAB license registration and category.
Only contractors with zero CPES ratings are automatically given the highest PCAB category.
PCAB registration depends solely on project cost and ignores CPES entirely.
For shortlisting by procuring agencies, what minimum CPES performance threshold is typically required?
Unsatisfactory
Satisfactory
Excellent only
Zero in all categories
If a contractor receives a zero rating in the Time performance criterion of CPES, what is the most likely implication?
Immediate upgrade to a higher PCAB category
No impact on agency evaluations
Potential grounds for sanctions such as blacklisting
Automatic award of time extension
Which combination correctly pairs a CPES-related outcome with its likely industry consequence?
High CPES rating → ineligible for shortlisting
Satisfactory CPES rating → considered for agency shortlisting
Zero rating in Time → recommended for acceleration bonuses
No CPES records → automatic Large B PCAB category
Which term refers to the maximum value a contractor can undertake for one project under a specific PCAB license category?
Size Range
Single Large Project
Allowable Range of Contract Cost
Project Duration
A contractor holds a PCAB license category that allows projects only within a specified monetary interval across all contracts in a year. Which label best describes this constraint?
Single Large Project
Size Range
Allowable Range of Contract Cost
Project Aggregation Limit
In the context of PCAB license categories, which item most directly differentiates the breadth of projects a contractor may bid on, regardless of the number of contracts?
Project quality rating
Size Range
Contractor safety record
Number of employees
A forest road improvement contract is valued near the upper boundary of a PCAB category’s monetary band but still below the cap for one project. Which pairing correctly identifies the governing parameters you must verify before bidding?
Project Duration and Safety Rating
Single Large Project and Size Range
Allowable Range of Contract Cost and Single Large Project
Number of Employees and Equipment List
Which step in timber extraction involves cutting down trees?
Felling
Log processing
Skidding
Transportation
In timber extraction, what is the primary purpose of skidding?
Removing bark from logs
Moving logs from the cutting point to the road
Transporting logs from the road to the sawmill
Cutting trees into sections
Which activity is most closely associated with log processing?
Delimbing and debarking
Building forest roads
Planning harvest schedules
Measuring stand volume
Arrange the following timber extraction steps in the correct sequence starting from the forest: Felling, Transportation, Skidding, Log Processing.
Felling → Log Processing → Skidding → Transportation
Felling → Skidding → Log Processing → Transportation
Log Processing → Felling → Skidding → Transportation
Skidding → Felling → Log Processing → Transportation
Which statement best distinguishes clearcutting from thinning?
Clearcutting removes only weaker trees; thinning removes all trees in an area.
Clearcutting removes all or most trees in a specific area at once; thinning selectively removes only some trees.
Both clearcutting and thinning remove only overcrowded trees.
Thinning removes bark and branches; clearcutting transports logs to the mill.
A forest manager wants to reduce competition among trees while maintaining stand cover. Which cutting practice is most appropriate?
Clearcutting
Felling
Thinning
Skidding
Which botanical group do softwood-producing trees belong to?
Angiosperms
Gymnosperms
Bryophytes
Pteridophytes
Which example is correctly identified as a softwood tree?
Oak
Maple
Pine
Teak
Hardwood trees are angiosperms. Which structural feature distinguishes their wood from softwoods?
Presence of cones
Lack of lignin
Vessels that make the structure more complex
Single-celled fibers only
Wood is described as a lignocellulosic material. Which set lists its primary components?
Cellulose, hemicellulose, lignin
Cellulose, keratin, lignin
Chitin, hemicellulose, lignin
Pectin, cellulose, keratin
What role does lignin play in wood according to the material?
It absorbs water to make wood hygroscopic
It binds cellulose to make wood stronger
It forms cones in gymnosperms
It creates vessels in angiosperms
Which statement best explains why wood is termed hygroscopic?
It repels moisture
It contains vessels that transport resin
It tends to absorb or release moisture from the environment
It has simple cell structures only
Which term refers to a processed log or wood?
Lumber
Slab
Timber
Flitch
A slab is best described as which of the following?
Rough lumber cut tangent to the annual ring
Planed lumber smooth on four sides
A piece of lumber less than 4 cm thick and at least 10 cm wide
A piece of lumber 5 inches or larger in its smallest dimension
Which statement correctly defines a plank?
Wide piece of lumber from 4–5 inches thick
Any processed log or wood
Thick unprocessed slab
Smooth lumber on two sides
What defines a board according to the specification provided?
A piece of lumber less than 4 cm thick and at least 10 cm wide
A wide piece of lumber 4–5 inches thick
A piece of lumber 5 inches or larger in its smallest dimension
Rough lumber cut tangent to annual rings
Dressed lumber is described as planed lumber having at least one smooth side. Which designation means smooth on four sides?
S1S
S2S
S3S
S4S
Which option correctly defines timber in this context?
Any planed lumber
A piece of lumber 5 inches or larger in its smallest dimension
A wide piece of lumber 4–5 inches thick
A piece of lumber less than 4 cm thick
Which term refers to a thick piece of lumber or thick slab that is unprocessed?
Board
Plank
Flitch
Dressed lumber
Which pairing is correct based on the definitions?
S2S — smooth on four sides
Board — less than 4 cm thick and at least 10 cm wide
Plank — 2–3 inches thick
Timber — smaller than 5 inches in all dimensions
Which wood defect is defined as a radial crack originating from the heart of the tree?
Heart shakes
Star shakes
Wind shake or Cup shake
Knot
Star shakes are best described as which of the following?
Cracks or breaks across annual rings due to wind pressure
A single radial crack from the tree’s center
Several heart shakes
A defect at the starting point of a limb or branch
Wind shake, also called Cup shake, occurs as cracks or breaks across annual rings of the wood during its growth. What is identified as the cause?
Temperature fluctuation
Improper seasoning
Fungal attack
Wind pressure
Which defect occurs at the starting point of a limb or branch?
Heart shake
Star shake
Knot
Radial shake
Which wood product is made from chips, sawdust, and shavings, and is characterized as low density?
Plywood
Particle board
Fiberboard
Glulam
Glulam is best defined as which of the following?
Thin layers of wood veneers glued with grains perpendicular
Fine wood fibers pressed to medium to high density
Engineered wood made by gluing layers of lumber to create stronger and larger pieces than solid wood
Solid timber cut directly from logs with no adhesive
Which category of lumber is typically used for light construction and finishing work?
Yard lumber
Shop lumber
Structural lumber
Reclaimed lumber
Shop lumber is most commonly intended for which applications?
Roof trusses and floor joists
Doors, cabinets, and furniture
Exterior siding and shingles
Beams and columns
Structural lumber is best described as lumber used for which of the following?
Decorative trim and molding
Beams and columns
Cabinet carcasses
Outdoor decking only
Which engineered wood product consists of thin layers of wood veneers glued together with adjacent layers having their wood grain rotated up to 90 degrees to one another?
Plywood
Particle board
Fiberboard
Glulam
Which product is formed by bonding small wood particles with resin under heat and pressure?
Glulam
Plywood
Particle board
Solid sawn lumber
Glulam refers to a structural member made by which process?
Compressing wood fibers into dense panels
Laminating dimension lumber with adhesives to form beams or columns
Slicing veneers for decorative overlays
Extruding wood-plastic composite profiles
In the context of exterior finishes, what does cladding mean?
A structural shear wall panel
A nonstructural covering material applied to the exterior of a building for protection and aesthetic finish
An interior vapor barrier to control moisture
A method of joining beams to columns
Identify the flooring/cladding profile shown as (a) in the diagram: boards interlock using a projecting tongue on one edge and a matching groove on the other.
T&G
Rectangular
Featheredge
Shiplap
V-rustic
Which profile is shown as (b): simple blocks with flat sides and no interlocking features?
Shiplap
Rectangular
Featheredge
Parallelogram
V-rustic
Which profile is shown as (c): boards with a tapered section producing thin and thick edges for overlapping cladding?
Featheredge
V-rustic
Parallelogram
Shiplap
Rectangular
Identify the profile shown as (d): boards overlap with a recess and rebate forming a horizontal lap joint along their edges.
T&G
Shiplap
V-rustic
Parallelogram
Rectangular
Which profile is shown as (e): boards cut with parallel sloped faces forming a consistent angled section?
Parallelogram
Featheredge
Rectangular
V-rustic
T&G
In the warping diagram, which defect shows curvature along the length of the board without edge bending?
Cup
Bow
Twist
Kink
Crook
A board shows a V-shaped groove between adjacent faces when installed to emphasize the joint line. Which profile typically creates this visual effect?
V-rustic
Rectangular
Parallelogram
Shiplap
Featheredge
