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Pharmacology and Hypertension Quiz

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a good first-line treatment for hypertension?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Digoxin

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide

d)

Warfarin

2.

Why is potassium given with Lasix (furosemide)?

a)

To lower blood pressure faster

b)

To prevent hypokalemia

c)

To enhance diuretic effect

d)

To increase urine output

3.

What is a difficult, personal side effect of the anti-hypertensive drug Lopressor (metoprolol)?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Hair loss

c)

Erectile dysfunction

d)

Dry mouth

4.

What are indications for using Inderal (propranolol) without hypertension?

a)

Asthma, depression

b)

Headaches, stage fright, aggression

c)

Diabetes, anxiety

d)

Allergies, rashes

5.

Which medications treat coronary artery disease (CAD) without hypertension?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

Diuretics

d)

Beta blockers

6.

Why is angina treatment given sublingually (SL)?

a)

It tastes better

b)

Faster onset of action

c)

Less side effects

d)

Easier to swallow

7.

What is a common medication used to treat heart failure?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Warfarin

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide

d)

Atorvastatin

8.

What foods are encouraged when taking Lanoxin (digoxin)?

a)

High protein foods

b)

Potassium-rich foods like bananas and dark leafy greens

c)

Dairy products

d)

Low sodium snacks

9.

What are signs of warfarin overdose?

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Bleeding, black tarry stools, blood in urine

c)

Muscle cramps

d)

Headache and nausea

10.

Why do we give anti-hypertensive medications?

a)

Increase metabolism

b)

Lower blood pressure and reduce damage to blood vessels

c)

Treat infections

d)

Improve digestion

11.

What is a good and inexpensive over-the-counter anti-platelet?

a)

Tylenol

b)

Aspirin

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Benadryl

12.

Why do patients take anti-cholesterol medications?

a)

Prevent diabetes

b)

Reduce body weight

c)

Prevent coronary artery disease or treat hyperlipidemia

d)

Improve digestion

13.

What is a concern when taking Digoxin with a diuretic?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Anemia

c)

Digoxin toxicity

d)

Liver failure

14.

Can you crush an extended-release medication?

a)

Yes, if mixed with food

b)

Yes, only with water

c)

No

d)

Only under physician orders

15.

What effect does diltiazem (a calcium channel blocker) have on heart rate?

a)

Increases heart rate

b)

Reduces heart rate

c)

No effect on heart rate

d)

Causes irregular heart rate

16.

What labs should be monitored when a client is taking Coumadin (warfarin)?

a)

CBC and BMP

b)

PT/INR

c)

LFTs and AST

d)

WBC and platelets

17.

Which anti-platelet medication is given if the patient cannot tolerate aspirin due to GI bleeding?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Heparin

c)

Plavix

d)

Lisinopril

18.

What are symptoms of rhabdomyolysis?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Chest pain and palpitations

c)

Extreme muscle weakness and dark urine

d)

Dizziness and headache

19.

Which hyperlipidemia medication increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis?

a)

Niacin

b)

Zetia

c)

Lipitor (atorvastatin)

d)

Fenofibrate

20.

When should thrombolytic therapy be administered?

a)

As soon as possible after the event (e.g., stroke)

b)

One week after diagnosis

c)

Only after all other treatments fail

d)

When symptoms stop

21.

What side effect of niacin may lead to non-compliance?

a)

Nausea

b)

Muscle pain

c)

Facial flushing

d)

Insomnia

22.

What is the antidote for warfarin?

a)

Iron

b)

Magnesium sulfate

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Sodium bicarbonate

23.

What does Nitroglycerin do?

a)

Increases heart rate

b)

Lowers cholesterol

c)

Treats angina by dilating coronary arteries

d)

Reduces kidney function

24.

What are examples of anti-hypertensives?

a)

Aspirin, Lipitor

b)

Vasetor, Zestril

c)

Lasix, Coumadin

d)

Tylenol, Motrin

25.

Besides nitroglycerin, what else can be prescribed for angina?

a)

Diuretics

b)

ACE inhibitors

c)

Beta blockers like propranolol, atenolol, metoprolol

d)

Statins

26.

What is the primary action of diuretics?

a)

Increase absorption of calcium

b)

Increase excretion of sodium and fluids from kidneys

c)

Decrease heart rate

d)

Suppress immune response

27.

A common side effect of diuretics is:

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hypertension

28.

What supplementation is required to manage hypokalemia?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Calcium

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Potassium

29.

What is the first-line treatment for mild hypertension?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

Thiazide diuretics (Hydrochlorothiazide)

c)

ACE inhibitors

d)

Calcium channel blockers

30.

Spironolactone (Aldactone) allows for diuresis without:

a)

Loss of fluids

b)

Loss of sodium

c)

Loss of calcium

d)

Loss of potassium

31.

When using beta-blockers, what should be assessed before administration?

a)

Blood glucose

b)

Apical pulse

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Capillary refill

32.

Metoprolol tartrate is used to prevent:

a)

Stroke

b)

Hypertension

c)

Myocardial infarction and angina

d)

Heart failure

33.

Metoprolol succinate is primarily used for:

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Heart failure prevention and angina

c)

Migraine prevention

d)

Bradycardia

34.

Propranolol can be used to treat all of the following except:

a)

Angina

b)

Anxiety

c)

Seizures

d)

Tremors

35.

Calcium channel blockers are often prescribed for hypertension in patients with:

a)

Asthma

b)

Coronary artery disease

c)

Diabetes

d)

Renal failure

36.

Before giving diltiazem (Cardizem), assess for:

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Fever

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypoglycemia

37.

Which calcium channel blocker has a longer half-life?

a)

Diltiazem

b)

Nifedipine

c)

Verapamil

d)

Amlodipine (Norvasc)

38.

Which calcium channel blocker has a shorter half-life?

a)

Nifedipine (Procardia)

b)

Amlodipine

c)

Diltiazem

d)

Felodipine

39.

What is considered a second-line treatment for hypertension?

a)

Diuretics

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

ACE inhibitors (-pril)

d)

Thrombolytics

40.

What is an alternative to ACE inhibitors with a lower risk of angioedema?

a)

Calcium channel blockers

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

Diuretics

d)

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (-artan)

41.

Prior to administering an anti-arrhythmic, assess the:

a)

Respiratory rate

b)

Blood glucose

c)

Apical pulse

d)

Blood pressure

42.

Nitrate anti-anginals work by:

a)

Increasing contractility

b)

Reducing preload

c)

Vasodilation of cardiac muscles

d)

Increasing heart rate

43.

How should nitroglycerin be administered for chest pain?

a)

Once daily

b)

Every 5 minutes up to 3 times

c)

Every 30 minutes for an hour

d)

Every 10 minutes for 3 doses

44.

What is the most serious adverse effect of anticoagulants?

a)

Nausea

b)

Drowsiness

c)

Bleeding/hemorrhage

d)

Hypertension

45.

What is the antidote for enoxaparin (Lovenox)?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Protamine sulfate

c)

Naloxone

d)

Atropine

46.

What lab values are monitored when taking warfarin (Coumadin)?

a)

BUN and creatinine

b)

Troponin and CK

c)

Prothrombin time / INR

d)

Hemoglobin and hematocrit

47.

Thrombolytics are used to:

a)

Prevent arrhythmias

b)

Dissolve blood clots

c)

Lower cholesterol

d)

Treat anemia

48.

Streptokinase is a thrombolytic that:

a)

Is more expensive

b)

Works more quickly

c)

Dissolves clots slower and is lower cost

d)

Is used for hypertension

49.

Alteplase differs from streptokinase in that it:

a)

Costs less

b)

Works slower

c)

Is given orally

d)

Dissolves clots faster and is higher cost

50.

Hypolipidemic drugs function by:

a)

Increasing LDL

b)

Decreasing HDL

c)

Increasing triglycerides

d)

Decreasing LDL and triglycerides, increasing HDL

51.

What is the mechanism of action for nitroglycerin?

a)

Calcium channel blocking

b)

Beta receptor inhibition

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Sodium channel blocking

52.

Which beta blockers treat both hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

a)

Metoprolol and atenolol

b)

Amlodipine and verapamil

c)

Doxazosin (Cardura) and tamsulosin (Flomax)

d)

Enalapril and lisinopril

53.

Drugs ending in “-lol” are typically:

a)

Alpha blockers

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

Beta 1 receptor blockers

d)

ACE inhibitors

54.

Drugs ending in “-osin” are usually:

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

Alpha 1 receptor blockers

c)

Thrombolytics

d)

ACE inhibitors

55.

Drugs with the suffix “-dipine” belong to which class?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

ACE inhibitors

c)

Calcium channel blockers

d)

Thrombolytics

56.

Drugs ending in “-pril” are known as:

a)

ARBs

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

ACE inhibitors

d)

Anticoagulants

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