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bone disorders

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is osteomyelitis?

a)

Severe infection of bone, bone marrow, and surrounding soft tissue

b)

Inflammation of the skin

c)

Infection of the lungs

d)

Infection of the liver

2.

Which microorganism is most commonly associated with osteomyelitis?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

3.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteomyelitis in adults?

a)

A) Age

b)

B) Debilitation

c)

C) Hemodialysis

d)

D) High blood pressure

4.

Direct entry of microorganisms in osteomyelitis can occur through which of the following?

a)

Open wound or foreign body

b)

Inhalation

c)

Ingestion

d)

Skin rash

5.

What is the result of increased pressure inside the bone during osteomyelitis?

a)

Bone growth

b)

Ischemia and vascular compromise

c)

Muscle hypertrophy

d)

Joint flexibility

6.

What is a sequestrum in the context of osteomyelitis?

a)

A) New bone formation

b)

B) Actual dead bone

c)

C) Area of bone growth

d)

D) Blood clot in bone

7.

What is an involucrum?

a)

Area of dead bone

b)

New bone in area of periosteum with blood supply

c)

Infection in the bone marrow

d)

Loss of bone density

8.

Which of the following is a local clinical manifestation of acute osteomyelitis?

a)

Fever

b)

Bone pain

c)

Night sweats

d)

Nausea

9.

Which of the following is a systemic clinical manifestation of acute osteomyelitis?

a)

Swelling

b)

Tenderness

c)

Night sweats

d)

Warmth

10.

Sequestrum can develop drainage anywhere without injury.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

What is the definition of chronic osteomyelitis?

a)

Infection lasting less than 1 month

b)

Infection with immediate response to antibiotics

c)

Infection lasting more than 1 month or no response to initial antibiotics (ABX)

d)

Infection only in children

12.

Which of the following is the most common local clinical manifestation of chronic osteomyelitis?

a)

Fever

b)

Constant bone pain

c)

Nausea

d)

Septicemia

13.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of chronic osteomyelitis?

a)

Septicemia

b)

Septic arthritis

c)

Diabetes

d)

Pathologic fractures

14.

What is the definitive diagnostic study for osteomyelitis?

a)

X-ray

b)

Blood culture

c)

Bone or soft tissue biopsy

d)

MRI

15.

Which inflammatory markers are elevated in acute osteomyelitis?

a)

C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

b)

White blood cell count and hemoglobin

c)

Platelet count and sodium

d)

Potassium and calcium

16.

CT, MRI, or bone scans are used in osteomyelitis to:

a)

Show extent of infection and edema earlier than x-ray

b)

Diagnose diabetes

c)

Measure blood pressure

d)

Detect heart disease

17.

Which of the following is a common antibiotic classification used in the treatment of acute osteomyelitis?

a)

Oxacillin & nafcillin (penicillin family)

b)

Amoxicillin (penicillin family)

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Erythromycin

18.

Vancomycin is used in the treatment of acute osteomyelitis. What should be monitored when administering this antibiotic?

a)

Signs of ototoxicity (monitor hearing) and nephrotoxicity (monitor BUN/creatinine); assess IV site

b)

Liver function tests

c)

Blood glucose levels

d)

Platelet count

19.

Which fluoroquinolone is commonly used in the treatment of osteomyelitis?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Azithromycin

20.

What is the primary surgical intervention for chronic osteomyelitis?

a)

Surgery to remove dead bone (debridement) or infected devices

b)

Amputation of the limb

c)

Bone marrow transplant

d)

Joint replacement

21.

Extended antibiotic therapy for chronic osteomyelitis usually involves which class of antibiotics?

a)

Fluoroquinolones

b)

Penicillins

c)

Macrolides

d)

Tetracyclines

22.

Amputation may be considered with extensive bone damage in chronic osteomyelitis.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What is the purpose of a drainage/irrigation system in the treatment of chronic osteomyelitis?

a)

Local antibiotic administration after surgical debridement

b)

Pain management

c)

Bone strengthening

d)

Blood pressure control

24.

Which therapy seals the wound bed and removes drainage in chronic osteomyelitis?

a)

Negative pressure wound therapy (VAC)

b)

Hyperbaric oxygen

c)

Bone grafts

d)

Casts or braces

25.

Which of the following is a goal in the planning of nursing management for osteomyelitis?

a)

Satisfactory pain relief

b)

Increased blood pressure

c)

Weight loss

d)

Decreased appetite

26.

Which of the following is NOT a goal in the planning of nursing management for osteomyelitis?

a)

Fever management

b)

Free of complications

c)

Adhere to treatment plan

d)

Increase in cholesterol

27.

Adhering to the treatment plan is a goal in the nursing management of osteomyelitis.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Which of the following is NOT a pain management option for osteomyelitis?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Opioids

c)

Muscle relaxants

d)

Antihistamines

29.

Vitamin D deficiency leads to bones losing calcium and becoming soft.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Which of the following is a consequence of Vitamin D deficiency?

a)

A) Bones become stronger

b)

B) Bones lose calcium and become soft

c)

C) Increased absorption of calcium

d)

D) None of the above

31.

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of osteomalacia?

a)

A) Bone pain

b)

B) High blood pressure

c)

C) Skin rash

d)

D) Cough

32.

Osteomalacia especially affects which weight-bearing bones?

a)

Pelvis, femur, tibia

b)

Skull, ribs, humerus

c)

Spine, scapula, ulna

d)

Radius, fibula, mandible

33.

Which of the following is a common diagnostic finding in osteomalacia?

a)

Increased serum calcium

b)

Decreased serum vitamin D

c)

Increased serum potassium

d)

Decreased serum sodium

34.

X-ray findings in osteomalacia show bone demineralization and deformity.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Which enzyme is increased in the serum of patients with osteomalacia?

a)

Amylase

b)

Alkaline phosphatase

c)

Lipase

d)

Lactate dehydrogenase

36.

Which vitamin deficiency is corrected in the interprofessional care of osteomalacia?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin K

37.

Which of the following foods is a higher source of vitamin D recommended for osteomalacia?

a)

Eggs

b)

Oily fish (salmon, tuna)

c)

Milk & cereal fortified with vitamin D

d)

All of the above

38.

Osteoporosis is a bone disease characterized by which of the following?

a)

High bone mass and improvement

b)

Low bone mass and deterioration

c)

High bone mass and deterioration

d)

Low bone mass and improvement

39.

Women are at greater risk for osteoporosis compared to men.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

How many women over age 50 sustain an osteoporosis-related fracture?

a)

1 in 2 women

b)

1 in 4 women

c)

1 in 10 women

d)

1 in 20 women

41.

How many men over age 50 sustain an osteoporosis-related fracture?

a)

1 in 2 men

b)

1 in 4 men

c)

1 in 10 men

d)

1 in 20 men

42.

Bone resorption starts earlier in women due to calcium loss with pregnancy and breastfeeding.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

a)

Female gender

b)

Male gender

c)

High body weight

d)

African genetics

44.

Over age 65 is a risk factor for osteoporosis.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which lifestyle habit increases the risk of osteoporosis?

a)

Regular exercise

b)

Sedentary lifestyle

c)

High calcium intake

d)

Low vitamin D intake

46.

Smoking is associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?

a)

Alcohol use (>2 drinks/day)

b)

Family history

c)

High body weight

d)

Low body weight

48.

Which genetic backgrounds are associated with a higher risk of osteoporosis?

a)

Caucasian or Asian genetics

b)

African or Hispanic genetics

c)

Native American genetics

d)

Pacific Islander genetics

49.

Long-term use of which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

a)

Thyroid hormone

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antihistamines

d)

Insulin

50.

Diabetes is listed as a risk factor for osteoporosis.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Bone loss occurs due to:

a)

Suppression of bone formation by osteoblasts

b)

Increased bone resorption by osteoclasts

c)

Increased intestinal absorption of calcium

d)

Decreased release of PTH

52.

Osteopenia may be a precursor to osteoporosis.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which areas are most often affected by osteoporosis?

a)

Spine, hips, & wrists

b)

Skull, ribs, & pelvis

c)

Arms, legs, & feet

d)

Hands, feet, & neck

54.

Early clinical manifestations of osteoporosis include:

a)

Back pain due to vertebral fractures

b)

Loss of height

c)

Kyphosis

d)

All of the above

55.

Later clinical manifestations of osteoporosis include loss of height and kyphosis.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

According to current guidelines, at what age should all women have an initial bone density test?

a)

50

b)

55

c)

65

d)

75

57.

According to current guidelines, at what age should all men have an initial bone density test?

a)

60

b)

65

c)

70

d)

75

58.

What is the gold standard for bone mineral density (BMD) measurement in osteoporosis diagnosis?

a)

Quantitative ultrasound (QUS)

b)

Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA scan)

c)

MRI

d)

CT scan

59.

Bone mineral density (BMD) is determined by peak bone mass and amount of bone loss.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Which of the following is NOT a site commonly affected by osteoporosis?

a)

Spine

b)

Hips

c)

Wrists

d)

Knees

61.

What physical changes are depicted in the older woman?

a)

Wedged upper vertebrae

b)

Crushed lower vertebrae

c)

Kyphosis

d)

All of the above