wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Module 7/1

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A dry powder extinguisher is colored.

a)

Green.

b)

Red.

c)

Blue.

2.

Which type of extinguisher can be used for an electric fire?

a)

Foam.

b)

Water.

c)

CO2.

3.

If welding in the hangar is necessary, no aircraft are to be:

a)

within 5 meters of the welding operation

b)

within 10 meters of the welding operation

c)

within 15 meters of the welding operation

4.

The colour of CO2 type fire extinguisher is.

a)

Red.

b)

Black.

c)

Green.

5.

Which type of extinguisher can be used for engine fire?

a)

CO2.

b)

BCF.

c)

Water.

6.

Fire on landing gear brake should be extinguished with.

a)

Dry powder extinguisher.

b)

Carbon dioxide extinguisher.

c)

Water extinguisher.

7.

The most appropriate fire extinguisher for an aircraft wheel and brake fire would be.

a)

Carbon dioxide.

b)

Dry powder.

c)

Water.

8.

Neither oil nor grease should be used as a lubricant on couplings or pipelines carrying.

a)

Oxygen.

b)

Kerosene.

c)

Nitrogen.

9.

All oxygen lines should be marked and should have

a)

at least 5 cm of clearance from moving parts, electrical wiring, and all fluid lines.

b)

at least 10 cm of clearance from moving parts, electrical wiring, and all fluid lines

c)

at least 15 cm of clearance from moving parts, electrical wiring, and all fluid lines

10.

The colour of vaporizing liquids type fire extinguisher is.

a)

Red.

b)

Black.

c)

Green.

11.

When using a reamer.

a)

Use no lubricant.

b)

Use the same lubricant as was used on the drill bit.

c)

Use lard oil.

12.

The difference between high and low limits of a size for a dimension is known as the.

a)

Deviation.

b)

Tolerance.

c)

Fit.

13.

Vices should be wiped over frequently

a)

with an oily rag.

b)

with an dry rag

c)

with a brush

14.

Metal covered benches should have its surfaces cleaned

a)

with a kerosene rag.

b)

with a dry rag

c)

with a soft brush

15.

Plain wooden benches should be cleaned

a)

with a soft brush

b)

with a dry rag

c)

with a stiff brush

16.

Some materials are flammable must be stored

a)

outdoors or in specially designed cabinets

b)

in a vented room

c)

in a room far from hangar.

17.

Tool calibration for tool takes place per:

a)

the standard specified by the equipment manufacturer, design organization

b)

The maintenance organization

c)

requirement of authority

18.

When using a moving coil as an ammeter the greatest amount of current flows through the.

a)

Bushes.

b)

Coil.

c)

Shunt.

19.

How are files classified?

a)

By length, grade and material

b)

By length, grade, cut and section

c)

By length, grade, cut, section and material.

20.

One megohm is equal to.

a)

1,000 ohms.

b)

1,000,000 ohms.

c)

100,000 ohms.

21.

The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an electrical cable is.

a)

A high tension circuit tester.

b)

An ammeter.

c)

A low reading ohmmeter.

22.

A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing the meter in.

a)

Parallel with the component.

b)

Series with the component.

c)

Series with the power source.

23.

On barrel of micrometer, each of the sections between the tenths divisions (between 1, 2, 3, 4, and so forth) is divided into:

a)

four parts of 0.025 inch each.

b)

four parts of 0.05 inch each.

c)

four parts of 0.02 inch each.

24.

When torque loading, a wrench should be selected where the required value falls.

a)

At the top end of the range.

b)

In the middle of the range.

c)

At the bottom end of the range

25.

Torque loading is determined by multiplying the tangent force applied at the free end of the spanner.

a)

By the dia. Of the bolt and the distance of its point of application.

b)

By the distance moved by the point of application.

c)

By its distance of application from the axis of the bolt.

26.

When tightening a nut on a bolt the torque loading applied is

a)

independent of whether the threads are wet or dry

b)

inversely proportional to the force applied to the spanner

c)

the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular distance from the point of application to the centre of the bolt.

27.

How are taper reamers classified?

a)

Taper and diameter of small end

b)

Length and diameter of large end

c)

Length, diameter of large end, and diameter of small end

28.

The purpose of a taper tap is to.

a)

Produce a fine thread.

b)

Start a thread.

c)

Form a tapered thread.

29.

Hammers are classified by

a)

shape of head and length of shaft

b)

weight and length of shaft

c)

weight and type of head

30.

When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed.

a)

In series with the circuit.

b)

In series with the shunt.

c)

In parallel with the circuit.

31.

Scribers are used to

a)

mark guide lines on material

b)

produce an accurate finish

c)

make centre pop marks for drilling

32.

Which electrical measuring device needs a power source?

a)

A voltmeter.

b)

An ohmmeter.

c)

An ammeter.

33.

The main scale of a metric vernier caliper is calibrated in.

a)

Millimetres.

b)

Micro-meters.

c)

Millimetres and half millimetres.

34.

A multiplier resistance is used to extend the working range of the.

a)

Ammeter.

b)

Voltmeter.

c)

Ohmmeter.

35.

An AC voltmeter reads.

a)

Peak value.

b)

Peak to peak value.

c)

Average value.

36.

To measure ac with a moving coil, it.

a)

Can be directly connected.

b)

Is rectified and measures peak value.

c)

Is rectified and measures average value.

37.

When using a reamer, in which direction should it be turned?

a)

Anti-clockwise when Cutting and removing.

b)

Clockwise when cutting and anti-clockwise when removing.

c)

Clockwise when cutting and removing.

38.

When installing a blade in a hacksaw frame, mount the blade with:

a)

the teeth pointing forward

b)

the teeth pointing backward

c)

both of direction are allowed

39.

Crossfiling is a method used for:

a)

filing the edges of metal parts that must fit tightly together.

b)

filling the larger surfaces need to be smoothed and squared

c)

filling the vertical holes

40.

Triangular and three square files are used for:

a)

draw filing and to some extent for filing soft metals

b)

filing slots and key seats, and for surface filing

c)

filing internal angles, clearing out corners, and filing taps and cutters

41.

Burring tools are used to:

a)

remove a burr from round hole

b)

remove a burr from an edge of a sheet or to deburr a hole

c)

remove a burr from the metal surface

42.

Reamers are used to

a)

smooth and enlarge holes to exact size.

b)

make a new thread

c)

remove a stuck bolt in the hole.

43.

A hole that is to be reamed to exact size must be drilled about

a)

0.005 to 0.007 inch under size.

b)

0.002 to 0.006 inch under size.

c)

0.003 to 0.007 inch under size.

44.

A tap is used to

a)

cut threads on the inside of a hole

b)

remove a stuck bolt in the hole

c)

cut the external threads on round stock.

45.

What is third angle projection?

a)

each view represents the side of the object furthest from the adjacent view.

b)

each view represents the side of the object nearest to it in the adjacent view.

c)

each view is at an angle of 30 degrees to the plane of projection.

46.

Which pictorial projection shows one face in true elevation and line of depth normally draw at 30° or 45° to the horizontal?

a)

Oblique.

b)

Perspective.

c)

Isometric.

47.

If a design amendment is made on a drawing.

a)

a new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing.

b)

the old issue number is retained, with the amendment date added.

c)

no change in issue number or date is necessary.

48.

The scale of an engineering drawing is shown as 1:4. This indicates it is.

a)

drawn to a quarter.

b)

drawn to scale.

c)

drawn four times larger.

49.

An orthographic projection usually shows.

a)

one, three-dimensional view of an object.

b)

a pictorial view of the object.

c)

three, two-dimensional views of an object.

50.

10:1 on an engineering drawing indicates.

a)

the drawing is full size.

b)

the drawing is one tenth full size.

c)

the drawing is ten times full size.

51.

Lines known as short dashes (thin) are used on drawings to indicate.

a)

hidden detail.

b)

visible outlines.

c)

cutting revolved.

52.

Drawing numbers are.

a)

the same as serial numbers.

b)

changed after each drawing amended after May 28, 1999.

c)

unique to each drawing.

53.

Break lines are used.

a)

to show where components are expected to break.

b)

in sectional drawing.

c)

where it would be inconvenient (because of limited space) to draw long lengths of the same section.

54.

An oblique projection.

a)

is the same as an isometric projection.

b)

has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing depth drawn at 90°.

c)

has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing depth drawn at a constant angle.

55.

A drawing in which the subassemblies or parts are shown as brought together on the aircraft is called.

a)

an installation drawing.

b)

a detail drawing.

c)

a sectional drawing.

56.

A line used to show an edge which is not visible is a.

a)

break line.

b)

phantom line.

c)

hidden line.

57.

One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the.

a)

size and shape of components within a system.

b)

functional location of components within a system.

c)

physical location of components within a system.

58.

In a first angle orthographic projection the plan view is placed.

a)

above the front elevation.

b)

below the side elevation.

c)

below the front elevation.

59.

Which of the following is a 'Bilateral Tolerance'?

a)

2 inches -0.002.

b)

2 inches +0.002.

c)

2 inches ±0.002.

60.

Which of the following is checked when using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge?

a)

Clearance.

b)

Tolerance.

c)

Allowance.

61.

Which of the following shafts would you use to obtain a clearance fit in a bush 0.750 inch diameter?

a)

0.752 inch.

b)

0.748 inch.

c)

750 inch.

62.

What is the maximum bow allowed in a strut?

a)

1 in 200.

b)

1 in 500.

c)

1 in 600.

63.

A tolerance is.

a)

a permitted difference between new and worn dimensions.

b)

a permitted variation on a dimension to allow for inaccuracy of equipment.

c)

a required difference in dimension between mating parts to obtain a certain class of fit.

64.

A transition fit is one in which the shaft is.

a)

larger than the hole.

b)

smaller than the hole.

c)

the same size as the hole.

65.

If there is a positive allowance between the smallest possible hole and the largest possible shaft, the fit is known as.

a)

a transition fit.

b)

a clearance fit.

c)

an interference fit.

66.

The British Standards System provides for:

a)

21 types of holes designated by small letters a, b, c, d, etc., and 21 types of shaft designated by capital letters: A, B, C, D, etc.,

b)

21 types of holes designated by capital letters A, B, C, D, etc., and 21 types of shaft designated by small letters: a, b, c, d, etc.,

c)

25 types of holes designated by capital letters A, B, C, D, etc., and 25 types of shaft designated by small letters: a, b, c, d, etc.,

67.

Which of the following is a "Unilateral Tolerance"?

a)

5.325 inches +0.002 /-0.002 inches

b)

5.325 inches +0.1/-0.002 inches

c)

5.325 inches +0.00/-0.002 inches

68.

Bow in a shaft can be determined in a workshop by utilizing

a)

T blocks, a surface gauge and a dial indicator.

b)

V blocks, a surface gauge and a dial indicator.

c)

H blocks, a surface gauge and a dial indicator.

69.

A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other end should have a bend radius of no less than.

a)

3 times the diameter of the wire.

b)

5 times the diameter of the wire.

c)

10 times the diameter of the wire.

70.

What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic insert/extract tool be used on?

a)

16 - 14.

b)

12 - 10.

c)

22 - 18.

71.

What gauge of pin would a red plastic insert/extract tool be used on?

a)

12 - 10.

b)

22 - 18.

c)

16 - 14.

72.

What gauge of pin would a blue plastic insert / extract tool be used on?

a)

12 - 10

b)

16 - 14

c)

22 - 18

73.

To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out.

a)

a milli-volt drop test.

b)

a continuity check.

c)

a bonding check.

74.

The maximum bonding resistance on an aircraft primary structure should normally not exceed

a)

0.003 ohm

b)

0.01 ohms.

c)

0.001 ohms.

75.

A hole is placed in the lowest point of electrical cable conduit.

a)

to allow for pull-through of the cables.

b)

to secure the conduit to a piece of aircraft structure.

c)

to allow for drainage of moisture.

76.

Splices should not be used within

a)

30 cm of a termination device.

b)

3 inches of a termination device

c)

0.5 feet of a termination device

77.

Forward release electrical connectors are removed by the wire being.

a)

pushed forwards.

b)

twisted to the right.

c)

pulled backwards.

78.

Why are copper wires used in electrical systems?

a)

They have high permeability.

b)

They do not give off a magnetic field.

c)

They have a low resistance to current.

79.

When crimping wires, the wire should.

a)

be flush with the crimp.

b)

extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp.

c)

be beneath the crimp.

80.

A white/blue insertion-extraction tool would be used on a cable of what size

a)

10

b)

22

c)

16

81.

An in-line splice should be positioned on the.

a)

terminal of the loom.

b)

outside of the loom.

c)

outer surface of the loom for easy inspection.

82.

A cable loom should be protected by conduit when fed through the.

a)

main equipment centre.

b)

wheel well door.

c)

cargo compartment ceiling.

83.

The size of proper conduit for electrical wires must be.

a)

75% larger than the maximum diameter of wires.

b)

25% larger than the maximum diameter of wires.

c)

100% larger than the average diameter of wires.

84.

Blue metal extract tool would be used with contacts sized.

a)

16.

b)

12.

c)

22.

85.

Dielectric strength is:

a)

the ability of the insulator to withstand current difference

b)

the ability of the insulator to withstand potential difference

c)

the ability of the insulator to withstand resistance difference

86.

Maximum dielectric strength values can be measured by:

a)

raising the current of a test sample until the insulation breaks down

b)

raising the frequency of a test sample until the insulation breaks down

c)

raising the voltage of a test sample until the insulation breaks down

87.

In hightemperature, applications, the terminal temperature rating must be:

a)

lower than the ambient temperature plus current related temperature rise.

b)

greater than the ambient temperature plus current related temperature rise.

c)

equal to the ambient temperature plus current related temperature rise.

88.

Hydraulic crimping tools are used for crimping:

a)

terminal wire sizes 4, 6, 12 and 16

b)

terminal wire sizes 8, 6, 4, and 2

c)

terminal wire sizes 6, 8, 12 and 14

89.

Identification markings should be placed at each end of the wire and at:

a)

38 inchs maximum intervals along the length of the wire.

b)

38 cm maximum intervals along the length of the wire.

c)

3.8 feet maximum intervals along the length of the wire.

90.

When riveting, the distance from the edge to the rivet (land) should not be less than.

a)

1D

b)

2D

c)

4D

91.

The average rivet pitch usually ranges:

a)

from 4 to 6 rivet diameters

b)

from 6 to 8 rivet diameters

c)

from 8 to 10 rivet diameters

92.

Transverse pitch is usually:

a)

65 percent of the rivet pitch

b)

75 percent of the rivet pitch

c)

85 percent of the rivet pitch

93.

The smallest allowable transverse pitch is

a)

2 1/2 rivet diameters.

b)

3 1/2 rivet diameters

c)

4 1/2 rivet diameters

94.

The minimum spacing between flush head rivets

a)

shall not be less than 2 times the diameter of the rivet.

b)

shall not be less than 4 times the diameter of the rivet.

c)

shall not be less than 6 times the diameter of the rivet.

95.

The minimum edge distance for universal rivets is

a)

1 times the diameter of the rivet

b)

2 times the diameter of the rivet

c)

3 times the diameter of the rivet

96.

The countersunk head angle can vary

a)

from 40° to 80°

b)

from 60° to 120°

c)

from 80° to 140°

97.

Rivets most commonly chosen in the assembly and repair of aircraft range:

a)

from 1/32 inch to 1/8 inch in diameter.

b)

from 3/16 inch to 3/16 inch in diameter

c)

from 3/32 inch to 3/8 inch in diameter

98.

Metal tubing is sized by:

a)

outside diameter (o.d.)

b)

inside diameter (i.d)

c)

circumference of the tube

99.

The wall thickness is typically printed on the tubing in:

a)

Tens of an inch

b)

Hundreds of an inch

c)

Thousands of an inch

100.

A number 10 piece of tubing with a wall thickness of 0.063" has an inside diameter of:

a)

0.399"

b)

0.499"

c)

0.599"

101.

Tube forming consists of four processes:

a)

Bending, flaring, beading and cutting

b)

Beading, bending, cutting, and flaring.

c)

Cutting, bending, flaring, and beading.

102.

The assembly can be formed by hand bending during installation, if:

a)

the tube diameter is 1⁄2"

b)

the tube diameter is 1⁄4"

c)

the tube diameter is 1⁄6"

103.

A wear check on a cylinder head valve spring should include.

a)

length under load.

b)

diameter and length.

c)

length off-load.

104.

Overheating is evidenced as:

a)

Blistering of the surface protection

b)

A change of color of the metal due to the loss of temper.

c)

Blistering of the surface protection and/ or a change of color of the metal due to the loss of temper.

105.

Springs are manufactured from.

a)

high carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements.

b)

low carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements.

c)

high carbon alloy steel with low strength requirements.

106.

Needle roller bearings.

a)

are susceptible to brinelling.

b)

can accept a small amount of misalignment.

c)

are designed to carry axial loads.

107.

When rotating a ball bearing by hand, a regular click indicates.

a)

damage to the balls.

b)

intergranular corrosion in the outer ring.

c)

a cracked ring.

108.

Brinelling of a wheel bearing could be caused by.

a)

rotation of the outer race in the wheel housing.

b)

heavy landing.

c)

overheating of the brakes.

109.

Brinelling of a bearing is.

a)

bluing of the bearing due to overheating.

b)

shallow smooth depressions caused by the rollers being forced against the cup, due to overtorquing.

c)

indentations in the race surface caused by continual static vibration.

110.

A tapered roller bearing is designed to take.

a)

radial loads only.

b)

both radial and axial loads.

c)

axial loads only.

111.

An aircraft control chain is connected using.

a)

nuts and bolts.

b)

quick release pins.

c)

a split link and spring clip.

112.

The initial lubricant on a new chain.

a)

must be replaced with grade altitude grease.

b)

should be removed and replaced with the approved oil.

c)

should not be removed.

113.

If a control chain can be lifted clear of a tooth, it should be.

a)

rejected as unserviceable.

b)

removed and an elongation check carried out.

c)

cleaned, re-tensioned and inspected after a period of time.

114.

A typical percentage limit of elongation could be:

a)

2% when the clean and dry chain is loaded with the correct tension.

b)

2% when the grease-applied chain is loaded with the correct tension.

c)

5% when the clean and dry chain is loaded

115.

Backlash is a type of wear associated with.

a)

gears.

b)

rivets.

c)

bearings.

116.

If corrosion is found on a chain.

a)

replace the chain.

b)

clean off the corrosion and if acceptable re-fit the chain.

c)

lubricate the chain.

117.

Pushpull tubes are generally made in short lengths

a)

to save the space

b)

to prevent vibration and bending under compression loads.

c)

to install/remove easily

118.

A control cable that has been contaminated with acid should be.

a)

cleaned.

b)

rejected.

c)

cleaned, inspected, and reinspected after a period of time.

119.

Check the swaged fitting with:

a)

a "go no-go" gauge

b)

a tensionmeter

c)

a vernier caliper

120.

How would you inspect a cable for fraying?

a)

Run your fingers the full length of the cable.

b)

Operate the controls and feel for stiffness.

c)

Run a rag the full length of the cable.

121.

The check for a cable pulling out of a swaged fitting is by.

a)

seeing that the cable is still past the safety holes in the swage.

b)

looking for a shiny surface on the cable near the fitting.

c)

seeing that there are no broken wires near the fitting.

122.

A cable is replaced.

a)

when a shiny portion is found.

b)

when each strand is worn to limits.

c)

if a chemical spillage is suspected.

123.

The best way to check control cables for broken wires is to.

a)

run a rag along the cable in both directions.

b)

examine them visually.

c)

increase the tension and check with a magnifying glass.

124.

Examine cable routing at fairleads to ensure that deflection angles are:

a)

no greater than 2° maximum.

b)

no greater than 3° maximum.

c)

no greater than 4° maximum.

125.

A cable should be replaced when individual wires are worn greater than.

a)

40%.

b)

60%.

c)

20%.

126.

When mooring an aircraft what type of rope should be used?

a)

Nylon.

b)

Fibre, tied tight due to stretch when wet.

c)

Fibre, with some slack due to shrinkage when wet.