wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

BOE'21 (85-200 Q) & BOE'24 CEBE (1-18 Q)

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the algorithmic cusum for monitoring the process mean, ‘K’ refers to

a)

Upper limit

b)

Reference value

c)

Lower limit

d)

One sided upper and lower cusums

e)

Answer not known

2.

The primary planning tool that translates the voice of the customer into design requirements that meet specific value is

a)

Kaizen

b)

Kanban

c)

House of quality

d)

Poka Yoke

e)

Answer not known

3.

The employee problem solving group to improve product quality is known as

a)

Quality group

b)

Quantity circle

c)

Quality circle

d)

Group circle

e)

Answer not known

4.

Which does not consist in the rules for the construction of Fishbone Diagram?

a)

Everyone should participate in sequence of opportunity

b)

Everyone has to get equal opportunity

c)

Criticize persons or ideas

d)

Make sure each cause is understood by all the concerned persons

e)

Answer not known

5.

‘Seiso’ in 5 ‘S’ practice means

a)

Structurise

b)

Systematise

c)

Sanitise

d)

Standardise

e)

Answer not known

6.

Match the following : Award Year of establishment - (a) Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award (b) Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award (c) Deming prize (d) European Quality Award

a)

4 2 1 3

b)

2 3 1 4

c)

3 2 1 4

d)

Answer not known

7.

Which department is having primary responsibility for qualification testing of prototype to assess its functional efficiency, reliability and maintainability?

a)

Research and development

b)

Production

c)

Quality control

d)

Service marketing

e)

Answer not known

8.

Which is concerned with the assurance of maintenance of the specified quality of design?

a)

Quality of performance

b)

Quality of design

c)

Quality of conformance

d)

Quality of control

e)

Answer not known

9.

The most common impacts of radioactive pollutants, which appear late in life are

a)

Shortened life span and increased probability of developing cancers and cataracts

b)

Damage of genes

c)

Both (A) and (B)

d)

Damage of teeth

e)

Answer not known

10.

Radiation sickness may be produced by radiation dose of about

a)

100 rem

b)

50 rem

c)

20 rem

d)

5 rem

e)

Answer not known

11.

The combined discharge of waste water from residential and industrial zones are called as

a)

Domestic sewage

b)

Combined sewage

c)

Sanitary sewage

d)

Industrial sewage

e)

Answer not known

12.

Septic tank is

a)

an aerobic attached growth treatment system

b)

an aerobic suspended growth biological treatment system

c)

an anaerobic attached growth biological treatment system

d)

an anaerobic suspended growth treatment system

e)

Answer not known

13.

Which one of the following tests, the organic matter in the wastewater is used as food by micro-organisms?

a)

BOD

b)

Most probable number

c)

COD

d)

Chlorine demand

e)

Answer not known

14.

The particles in cigarette smoke are usually smaller than

a)

1 micron

b)

10 micron

c)

25 micron

d)

100 micron

e)

Answer not known

15.

The device, which can be used to control gaseous as well as particulate pollutants in the industrial emission, is known as

a)

Cyclone

b)

Scrubber

c)

Dynamic precipitator

d)

Fabric filter

e)

Answer not known

16.

The secondary pollutant among the following is

a)

Sulphur dioxides

b)

Methane

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Peroxyl acetyl nitrate

e)

Answer not known

17.

Inversions occur, when atmosphere is

a)

Slightly stable

b)

Stable

c)

Unstable

d)

Neutral

e)

Answer not known

18.

The international protocol to protect the Ozone layer is

a)

The Montreal protocol

b)

The Vienna protocol

c)

Kyoto protocol

d)

Cartagena protocol

e)

Answer not known

19.

Match the following Laplace Transforms with its function

a)

e^(-2t)

b)

g(t)

c)

u(t-a)

d)

S(t-a)

e)

Answer not known

20.

The value of the integral ∫_0^1 e^(-t) dt is using Laplace transform method.

a)

125

b)

4/25

c)

1/125

d)

225

e)

Answer not known

21.

Which one of the following statement is correct?

a)

L(f(t)) = L(f(t))

b)

L(f(t)) = g(t)

c)

L(f(t)) = L(g(t))

d)

L(f(t)) - g(t) = L(F)

e)

Answer not known

22.

The work done when a force E=(x^2-y+x)i - (2xy+y)j moves a particle in the xy-plane from (0,0) to (1,1) along the curve y=x is

4 lines
23.

If V = 2xy^2 i + x^2 y^2 j + 3x^2 y^2 k, then find ∇·V

4 lines
24.

The value of ∫ cos^2(4x) dx is

a)

0

b)

1

c)

3

d)

5

e)

Answer not known

25.

Given f_x = 2, f_y = 0, f = 2, then at the point (-3,0), f(x,y) attains

a)

maximum

b)

minimum

c)

the value -3

d)

neither maximum nor minimum

e)

Answer not known

26.

If xy^2 - yx^2 = 6 is the equation of a curve, then the slope of the curve at the point (1,2) is

4 lines
27.

The quadratic form corresponding to the symmetric matrix is

4 lines
28.

Electronic Polarization is directly proportional to the

a)

Induced electric dipole moment

b)

Induced electric field

c)

Induced magnetic moment

d)

Induced current

e)

Answer not known

29.

The ferromagnetic materials have

a)

small magnetic susceptibility with temperature independence

b)

large magnetic susceptibility with temperature independence

c)

large magnetic susceptibility with temperature dependence

d)

ability to rotate atomic magnetic moments in the same direction at room temperature

e)

Answer not known

30.

The favourable condition for superconductivity is

a)

a weak electron-phonon interaction

b)

a strong electron-phonon interaction

c)

a weak phonon-phonon interaction

d)

a strong phonon-phonon interaction

e)

Answer not known

31.

The coordination number in case of simple cubic crystal structure is

a)

12

b)

8

c)

2

d)

4

e)

Answer not known

32.

Match the following type of Lasers with its relevant examples

4 lines
33.

When white light is incident on a diffraction grating, the colour that will be more deviated from central image will be

a)

Yellow

b)

Violet

c)

Indigo

d)

Red

e)

Answer not known

34.

Diffraction effects are easier to notice in the case of sound waves than in the case of light waves because

a)

Sound waves are longitudinal waves

b)

Sound waves have longer wavelengths

c)

Light waves are transverse waves

d)

Answer not known

35.

Diffraction effects are easier to notice in the case of sound waves than in the case of light waves because

a)

Sound waves are longitudinal waves

b)

Sound waves are mechanical waves

c)

Sound waves are of shorter wavelength

d)

Sound waves are of longer wavelength

36.

The efficiency of a carnot engine operating between the boiling and Freezing points of water is

a)

54 %

b)

108%

c)

27 %

d)

162 %

37.

Infrasonic sound can be heard by

a)

Dog

b)

Bat

c)

Rhinoceroses

d)

Human beings

38.

The intensity of sound

a)

is directly proportional to square of frequency

b)

is inversely proportional to density of medium

c)

does not depend on speed of sound in the medium

d)

is inversely proportional to frequency of sound

39.

Hooke's law defines

a)

Stress

b)

Strain

c)

Elastic limit

d)

Modulus of elasticity

40.

A bicycle in motion does not fall because one of the following is conserved

a)

linear momentum

b)

angular momentum

c)

kinetic energy

d)

potential energy

41.

Match the following

a)

Linseed oil - Antiskinning agent

b)

Linoleates of metals - Drie

c)

Turpentain - Film forming agent

d)

Phenol - Thinner

42.

The hydrogen over voltage on the following metals is in the order

a)

Pt < Fe < Pb < Zn < Hg

b)

Hg > Zn < Fe < Pb < Pt

c)

Zn < Hg < Pt < Pb < Fe

d)

Fe < Hg < Pt < Pb < Zn

43.

Zirconja bricks are classed as

a)

Neutral Refractories

b)

Basic Refractories

c)

Acidic Refractories

d)

Partially basic Refractories

44.

Name the hardest artificially prepared abrasive

a)

Carborundum

b)

Alundum

c)

Norbide

d)

Garnet

45.

In a copolymer if the branch is of one kind and main chain is of another kind it is known as

a)

Block copolymer

b)

Graft copolymer

c)

Random copolymer

d)

Alternate copolymer

46.

The Quality of diesel fuel is known by its

a)

Octane number

b)

Cetane number

c)

Heptane number

d)

Compression ratio

47.

The lubricants having thixotropic properties and undergo sol-gel transformation during operation and rest at are

a)

Animal oils

b)

Water/oil emulsions

c)

Greases

d)

Silicone oils

48.

Choose the sentences which are false in the following sentences.

a)

Complaint letters should vent anger

b)

An adjustment letter is an attempt to satisfy an aggrieved customer

c)

The letter should be opened with an elaborate statement

d)

The letter may be closed with a good will expression

49.

Rearrange the jumbled sentences in the following passages:

a)

One thing was clear — unskilled labour didn’t pay, I must learn a trade and I decided on electricity.

b)

But how to become an electrician.

c)

I hadn’t the money to go to a technical school or university besides, I didn’t think much of schools.

d)

I was a practical man in a practical world.

e)

I was still resolved to settle down, and I looked about me.

50.

Identify the correct conjunction from the options given:

a)

and

b)

yet

c)

for

d)

but

51.

Fill in the blank with suitable Article: Varanasi is ————— holy city

(a)  

52.

Find out the correct verb from the following: The growing number of visitors ———— the footprints.

a)

are damaging

b)

is damaging

c)

damage

d)

damages

53.

He works hard so that he ———— get a job.

a)

might

b)

may

c)

should

d)

shall

54.

The OSI Model is composed of ————— ordered Layers.

a)

5

b)

2

c)

1

55.

Data which can be accessed by any function in a program is

a)

local data

b)

global data

c)

variable

d)

string

56.

In the case of the while structure

a)

Condition is checked at the bottom of the loop

b)

Condition is checked at the top of the loop

c)

Condition is checked at the top and bottom of the loop

d)

No condition is checked

57.

Preprocessor of compiler progress deals with

a)

File extension

b)

Macro processing

c)

Augmentation

d)

Micro processing

58.

System software which runs on one machine and generates code for another machine

a)

Bootstrap

b)

cross-compiler

c)

Lexical Analyser

d)

Code Converter

59.

FAT stores

a)

Information about the files

b)

Information about the forms

c)

numbers

d)

characters

60.

The velocity of a body increases from 86 km/hr to 72 km/hr in 10 seconds. the acceleration of the body is

a)

2 m/s²

b)

3 m/s²

c)

4 m/s²

d)

5 m/s²

61.

Centroid of a semicircle of radius 60 mm from the diametral axis is

a)

60/π mm

b)

80/π mm

c)

90/π mm

d)

45/π mm

62.

The resistance of a three dimensional object to rotation is measured by

a)

mass of the body

b)

first moment of area

c)

second moment of area

d)

mass moment of inertia

63.

Determine the maximum height 'h' of the cylindrical portion of the body shown so that it is in stable equilibrium on its hemispherical base of radius 'r'.

4 lines
64.

Assertion (A): A system of couples acting in one plane is in equilibrium if the algebric sum of their moment is equal to zero Reason (R): Resolution of a force into a force and a couple is not possible

a)

(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation

b)

(B) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation

c)

(C) (A) is true, (R) is false

d)

(D) (A) is false, (R) is true

e)

(E) Answer not known

65.

The beam shown must be kept in horizontal position. How far from ‘O’ must the force F be applied?

a)

(A) WL

b)

(B) 2WL

c)

(C) FL

d)

(D) 2FL

e)

(E) Answer not known

66.

Lame’s theorem is stated as follows

a)

(A) Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium

b)

(B) Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force

c)

(C) If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium

d)

(D) If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two

e)

(E) Answer not known

67.

Which of the combinational circuit will yield the output 1 for the following condition. ABC 3 Inputs 1 output (F) The output is 1 when the binary value of the inputs is less than or equal to 3 and output is zero otherwise

a)

(A) F=4a

b)

(B) F=4

c)

(C) F=B

d)

(D) F=B

e)

(E) Answer not known

68.

The simplified version of the expression XY Z+XYZ+XYZ+XYZ is

a)

(A) logic‘0’

b)

(B) logic ‘1

c)

(C) XY

d)

(D) Answer not known

69.

For the Circuit shown in fig, determine the dc output voltage and dc output power.

a)

(A) dc output voltage =414V, dc output power = 17.14 W

b)

(B) dc output voltage = 207.07 V, dc output power = 428.49 W

c)

(C) dc output voltage = 103.53 V, dc output power = 106.64 W

d)

(D) dc output voltage = 29.28 V, dc output power = 8.49 W

e)

(E) Answer not known

70.

In Attraction type moving Iron Ammeters with spring control the instantaneous deflecting torque is proportional to

a)

(A) rms value of the current

b)

(B) square of the current

c)

(C) peak value of the current

d)

(D) average value of the current

e)

(E) answer not known

71.

The moving iron instrument connected through a current transformer is used to

a)

(A) DC quantities measurements

b)

(B) AC quantities measurements

c)

(C) DC and AC quantities measurements

d)

(D) Cannot be used for measurements

e)

(E) Answer not known

72.

In an electrodynamometer type of wattmeter

a)

(A) The current coil is made fixed

b)

(B) The pressure coil is fixed

c)

(C) Only of the two coils i.e. current coil or pressure coil can be made fixed

d)

(D) Both the coils should be movable

e)

(E) Answer not known

73.

In a certain ac circuit, the complex power, S is given as S =P - jQ. This indicates that circuit has

a)

(A) More resistive load

b)

(B) More inductive load

c)

(C) No resistance load

d)

(D) More capacitive load

e)

(E) Answer not known

74.

A voltage V =15 sin100z¢ is applied to a 3Q resistor. The value of current flowing through the resistor and frequency are, i, and f.

a)

(A) 5sin33.337¢, 100Hz

b)

(B) 5sinzt, 50Hz

c)

(C) 3.53sin1007zt, 33.33 Hz

d)

(D) sin100 zt, 50 Hz

e)

(E) Answer not known

75.

The organisation brings together and co-ordinates the activities of the sub systems to achieve —————— objectives.

a)

(A) Basic

b)

(B) Common

c)

(C) Two or more objectives

d)

(D) Functional

e)

(E) Answer not known

76.

Which leadership style is most suitable when the sub-ordinates are well trained, highly knowledgeable, self-motivated and ready to assume responsibility?

a)

(A) Autocratic leadership

b)

(B) Free-rein leadership

c)

(C) Democratic leadership

d)

(D) Participative leadership

e)

(E) Answer not known

77.

The contingency theory of leadership was suggested by

a)

(A) Robert. J. House

b)

(B) Fred. E. Fiedler

c)

(C) Rensis Likert

d)

(D) David. A. Kenny

e)

(E) Answer not known

78.

Which is the oldest and simplest method of performance appraisal system?

a)

(A) Rating — Scale

b)

(B) Ranking

c)

(C) 360 Degree Appraisal

d)

(D) Field Review

e)

(E) Answer not known

79.

The delegation of authority results in 1. decentralisation of branches at places 2. avoiding responsibility by top management 3. delegation of authority by top management without avoiding responsibility

a)

(A) 1 and 3

b)

(B) 1, 2 and 3

c)

(C) 2 only

d)

(D) 1 and 2

e)

(E) Answer not known

80.

————— are responsible for the efficiency and effectiveness of an area such as accounting or marketing.

a)

(A) Functional Managers

b)

(B) Top Managers

c)

(C) Supervisory Managers

d)

(D) Staff Managers

e)

(E) Answer not known

81.

The process of delegation involves in the following activities such as -

a)

(A) Determination of results, assignment of tasks, exaction of responsibility

b)

(B) Manpower planning, Manpower policy, Manpower

c)

(C) Organisation, Department, Authority

d)

(D) Planning, Directing, Staffing

e)

(E) Answer not known

82.

Stoner and others have shown how groups can make decisions that are much less, or much more cautious than any member would take alone. What are these changes called?

a)

(A) Intensified predispositions

b)

(B) Polarisation

c)

(C) Risk and cautious shift

d)

(D) Decision arrangement

e)

(E) Answer not known

83.

The “desire to become more and more what one is to become everything that one is capable of becoming” is a case of which of the following needs in Maslow’s theory of motivation

a)

(A) Physiological needs

b)

(B) Social needs

c)

(C) Esteem needs

d)

(D) Self actualisation needs

e)

(E) Answer not known

84.

The scientific management developed largely after the —————— revolution which established the factory system.

a)

(A) Green

b)

(B) Russian

c)

(C) Industrial

d)

(D) Blue

e)

(E) Answer not known

85.

“Human Relations Approach” to management was originated by

a)

(A) Henry Fayol

b)

(B) Winslow Taylor

c)

(C) Elton Mayo

d)

(D) Peter F. Drucker

e)

(E) Answer not known

86.

———— is the art of getting things done by and with the help of others.

a)

(A) Management

b)

(B) Soft science

c)

(C) Administration

d)

(D) Profession

e)

(E) Answer not known

87.

Management is essential

a)

(A) Everywhere

b)

(B) Somewhere

c)

(C) Only in the factory

d)

(D) In industry only

e)

(E) Answer not known

88.

What is the quality control system used to ensure that the proportion of the defective items in the manufactured product is not beyond a certain limit?

a)

(A) Process control

b)

(B) Systems control

c)

(C) Product control

d)

(D) Systematic control

e)

(E) Answer not known

89.

———— is a management system which enables an organisation to assess its performance from a “360 degree” perspective.

a)

(A) Balanced score card

b)

(B) Bin card

c)

(C) Agility

d)

(D) CSR

e)

(E) Answer not known

90.

Which company holds the registered trade mark of six sigma?

a)

(A) INTEL

b)

(B) Motorola

c)

(C) Toyota

d)

(D) GEC

e)

(E) Answer not known

91.

Defects can be found early in

a)

(A) Person orientation

b)

(B) Product orientation

c)

(C) Process orientation

d)

(D) Principle orientation

e)

(E) Answer not known

92.

Benchmarking exercise requires which of the following teams?

a)

(A) Lead team, Preparation team, Visit team

b)

(B) Lead team, Preparation team

c)

(C) Lead team, Visit team

d)

(D) Preparation team, Visit team

e)

(E) Answer not known

93.

which of the following teams?

a)

A,ead team, Preparation team, Visit team

b)

Lead team, Preparation team

c)

Lead team, Visit team

d)

Preparation team, Visit team

e)

Answer not known

94.

Employee Training costs is a part of /

a)

Cost of quality

b)

Prevention cost

c)

Appraisal cost

d)

Failure cost

e)

Answer not known

95.

Which of the following is not a part of Deming’s philosophy?

a)

Constancy of purpose

b)

Management by objectives

c)

Drive out fear

d)

Abolish quotas

e)

Answer not known

96.

‘Quality is Free’ and ‘Quality without Tears’ are the books authored by

a)

Edward Deming

b)

Joseph Juran

c)

Phillip Crosby

d)

Walter A. Shewhart

e)

Answer not known

97.

“The breakthrough concept concerns two areas. The journey from symptom to cause and the journey from cause to remedy”. Who has contributed the above concept?

a)

Deming

b)

Philip Crosby

c)

Juran

d)

Flippo

e)

Answer not known

98.

Match the following :

a)

Dr. Deming believes 1. Common causes

b)

Ishikawa development 2. To prevent defect

c)

Type of variation is due to 3. Cause and effect diagram

d)

Crosby’s objective of quality 4. Histogram

e)

Answer not known

99.

The maximum average permissible noise level during day time hours (6 am to 10 pm) in silence zone, according to specified ambient air quality standards laid down under the Environment Protection Act in India, is

a)

50 dB

b)

45dB

c)

40dB

d)

35dB

e)

Answer not known

100.

Acceptable noise level for residential and business urban areas as per IS : 4954-1968 is

a)

25-35dB

b)

40-50dB

c)

50-60dB

d)

70-80dB

e)

Answer not known

101.

The maximum sound level beyond which it is certainly regarded as a pollutant, is

a)

20dB

b)

40dB

c)

45dB

d)

50dB

e)

Answer not known

102.

Leachate is a coloured liquid, that comes out of

a)

Septic tanks

b)

Sanitary landfills

c)

Compost plants

d)

Aerated lagoons

e)

Answer not known

103.

Use of fertilizers and pesticides will contaminate the soil by

a)

Infiltration of organic pollutant

b)

Infiltration of inorganic pollutant

c)

Infiltration of both organic and inorganic pollutant

d)

Infiltration of Heavy metals

e)

Answer not known

104.

What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?

a)

1.0 milligram per liter

b)

1.25 milligram per liter

c)

1.50 milligram per liter

d)

1.75 milligram per liter

e)

Answer not known

105.

The photochemical reaction leading to smog formation, NO2 —> NO + O, takes place in the radiation wave length of

a)

190 - 260 nm

b)

100-190 nm

c)

200 — 400 nm

d)

700 - 800 nm

e)

Answer not known

106.

The ozone layer thickness is measured in

a)

Decibels (db)

b)

Dobson Units (DU)

c)

Becquerel (Bq)

d)

Hertz (Hz)

e)

Answer not known

107.

The international treaty which aims at controlling global warming and climate change is

a)

Montreal Protocol

b)

Kyoto Protocol

c)

Ramsar convention

d)

CITES

e)

Answer not known

108.

The most common method for controlling gaseous pollutants is

a)

Settling chamber

b)

Activated sludge

c)

Condensation

d)

Venturi scrubbers

e)

Answer not known

Similar Resources on Wayground

LF (1)

105 questions

LF (1)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University