Worksheets4Y0X1-P: Book 2
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins
What is the definition of malpractice?
A legal term used to refer to the negligence of a professional person.
A legal term used to refer to the negligence of a patient
A legal term used to refer to the appropriate treatment of a patient.
A legal term used to refer to the patient and the appropriate team.
What element of negligence is performed if you stray from the standards of care?
Malpractice
Breach of duty
Proper practice
Professionalism
Who owns medical records?
The patient
The agency that created the record.
The doctor
The staff
As a military dental assistant, where are your duties summarized and the tasks identified that you are trained and certified from?
CDC's
AFI
The little brown book
In CFETP 4Y0X1 Part 1. Part 2 is used to identify the tasks that you are trained and certified to perform.
What is the best way to avoid violating privileged communication?
Only text important information
Refrain from talking about patients.
Send protected emails.
Talk in a low voice in patient care areas.
What could the dentist be charged with if a patient is injured because of faulty equipment?
Malpractice
Court Martial
Negligence
Favoritism
Why are using proper aseptic techniques important?
To avoid patient contamination and liability.
To avoid getting sick
To make the patient feel better
To protect the environment
At a minimum, what should the AFDRAP include?
A type 2 examination
A review of dental health records
Intraoral exam only
A type 2 examination and a review of dental health records.
Who coordinates with the squadron health monitors when scheduling an active duty member for an annual Type 2 exam?
The UTM
The AFDRAP monitor
The supervisor
The Member
Who is responsible for monitoring compliance of AFDRAP appointment attendance?
The AFDRAP monitor
The Front Desk NCOIC
The Supervisor
The Member
Who establishes and enforces the procedures and policies necessary to make sure that each member is scheduled for and receives an examination?
Each Squadron
The Squadron Commander
Each squadron and squadron commander
The supervisors
What Air Force form is used to identify personnel on the SDP?
623A
797
1418
745
What individuals develop a written memorandum of understanding covering the notification procedure and preparation and follow-up of AF Form 438, Medical Care-Third Party Notification?
The Dental Squadron commander
The MTF commander or director of Base Medical Services and base staff judge advocate.
The MTF commander
The supervisor
What area of the dental service provides patients with a first impression of the type of treatment they will receive?
Reception
Oral Surgery
Flight NCOIC
Dental Squadron Commander
What type of examination may include a generalized examination of all hard and soft tissues?
Type 3
Type 2
Type 1
Type 4
When is a type 5 examination performed?
For an annual exam
For separation
For retirement
To initiate a member's dental record
What dental readiness classification disqualifies a patient from a remote clearance?
Type 1
Type 3
Type 4
Type 2
Where are PSR scores and/or indices documented?
In item 9 of SF 603/603A
In item 10 of SF 603/603A
In item 8 of SF 603/603A
In item 7 of SF 603/603A
What is the purpose of DEERS?
To show peoples ssn
To see if someone is married
To reflect eligible beneficiaries and related privileges.
To sign people out of VMPF
Who makes the final decision regarding the availability of treatment based on staffing, facilities, and mission?
Dental superintendent.
Command dental surgeon.
Dental squadron commander.
Director of base medical services or medical facility commander.
The correct priority of dental care is
active duty, family members of active duty, family members of members who died while on serving on active duty, retired members, family members of retirees, and family members of deceased retirees.
active duty, retired members, family members of active duty, family members of members who died while serving on active duty, family members of retirees, and family members of deceased retirees.
active duty, retired members, family members of members who died while serving on active duty, family members of active duty, family members of retirees, and family members of deceased retirees.
active duty, retired members, family members of active duty and members who died while serving on active duty, family members of retirees and deceased retirees.
When canceling a patient’s appointment, what must you not include in the “Reason for Cancellation” dialog?
Protected Health Information (PHI).
Patient’s name and organizational information.
Occupational Safety and Health (OSHA) Information.
Air Force Dental Readiness Assurance Program (AFDRAP) Information.
When changing the category of a patient’s appointment, you would find the appointment you want to change then
click on appointment.
click on appointment and enter the reason.
right click on appointment.
right click on appointment and select change status.
What is the second step when searching for an open time to schedule a patient?
Right click on scheduler grid.
Click open time tab.
Select next–10 box.
Click clinic view.
The primary custodian of dental records is the
NCOIC of the clinic.
dental superintendent.
dental squadron commander (DSC).
NCOIC of the records and reception area.
How are the dental records of Navy, Marine Corps, and Army active duty personnel handled?
Same as Air Force records.
Same as field group records.
According to the standards of each service.
According to Department of Defense standards.
Why are dental treatment records color coded?
To match the base medical filing system.
Helps keep the dental records in their social security number (SSN) series.
Indicates the month the patient entered the Defense Eligibility Enrollment Reporting System (DEERS).
To separate foreign national, allied, retiree, family member, and active duty dental records.
Dental treatment folders of flying personnel are identified by placing the word “FLY” in the front upper-left-hand corner of the folder and
marking the “R” block with green tape.
blocking out the “S” block on the right edge of the folder.
placing the word “Aircrew” in the miscellaneous block of the folder.
placing a strip of black tape on the right edge of the folder extending from immediately below block “9” to the bottom of the folder.
The correct descending order of forms and documents on the right side of the dental treatment folder is
an envelope for radiographs opening to the left, active treatment plans, AF Forms 966, 745, and FORM 696.
DD Form 2005, conscious sedation records, tissue examination reports, SF 603/603A, SF 513, AF IMT 1418 and AF Form 490.
AF Form 745, AF Form 966, AF Form 696, active treatment plans, and envelope for radiographs opening to the left.
AF Form 490, AF IMT 1418, SF 513, AF Form 570, SF 603/603A, tissue examination reports, conscious sedation records, and DD Form 2005.
The correct descending order of forms and documents on the left side of the dental treatment folder is
an envelope for radiographs opening to the left, active treatment plans, AF Form 966, AF Form 696, and AF Form 745.
AF Form 745, AF Form 966, AF Form 696, active treatment plans, and envelope for radiographs opening to the left.
DD Form 2005, conscious sedation records, tissue examination reports, SF 603/603A, SF 513, AF IMT 1418, and AF Form 490.
AF Form 490, AF IMT 1418, SF 513, AF Form 570, SF 603/603A, tissue examination reports, conscious sedation records, and DD Form 2005.
Dental records are filed according to a special system called the
tertiary number, color-coded, and blocked filing.
terminal digit, color-coded, and blocked filing.
tertiary number filing.
terminal digit filing.
What is used as a first reference to locate a filed dental health record?
Patient’s last name.
Patient’s organization.
Color of the patient’s folder.
Sponsor’s social security number.
A properly developed and maintained terminal, digit-color-coded, and blocked filing system for dental records makes it easier to
group records according to primary borrower.
file the forms in an outpatient record.
identify a misfiled record.
distribute the workload.
What guideline is not used for maintaining dental health records?
Enter clinical evidence of unrecorded dental treatment received by military personnel.
Use of locally approved designations and abbreviations are authorized to document treatment.
Enter all findings and abnormalities found by clinical, microscopic, and radiographic examinations.
Enter authenticated information received from another department of the federal government or a civilian agency.
Which is not a reason to perform an annual inventory of dental health records?
Verify dental classification and date of last update information of assigned AF members.
Identify and forward retained records of departed personnel.
Determine the status of non-active duty records.
Locate misfiled records.
When are the dental health records of retired members retired?
3 years after the year of last recorded treatment.
2 years after the year of last recorded treatment.
4 years after the member's retirement date.
5 years after the member's retirement date.
Upon proper request, who is authorized to furnish dental information concerning personnel of other uniformed services directly to the responsible agencies of other services?
Military personnel flight (MPF).
Dental squadron commander (DSC).
Medical treatment facility (MTF) registrar.
Director of base medical services (DBMS) or MFC.
What is the best action to take if an individual refuses to sign DD Form 2005?
Notify the attending dentist.
Notify the dental superintendent.
Indicate the refusal in the dental health record.
Indicate the refusal on the form, sign, and date it.
Where is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement-Health Care Records, placed in the dental treatment folder?
Bottom document on the right side.
Bottom document on the left side.
Top document on the right side.
Top document on the left side.
Name the special kind of involuntary muscle that is both smooth and striated?
Involuntary
Voluntary
Neither
Cardiac
Which type of muscle controls the heart, via the autonomic nervous system?
Involuntary
Voluntary
Neither
Efferent neurons carry impulses
from the periphery to the spine and brain.
from the brain and spine to the periphery.
away from the cell body.
toward the cell body.
Which function is not part of the brain stem?
Pons.
Midbrain.
Cerebellum.
Medulla oblongata.
Why is the brain and spinal cord covered by meninges?
To maintain vital body processes.
A place for an exit of cranial nerves.
Provides a protective cushion to the body structures.
To carry voluntary and involuntary impulses throughout the body.
The peripheral nervous system is made up of both cranial and spinal nerves which total
12 pairs.
21 pairs.
31 pairs.
43 pairs.
What part of the upper respiratory system is an example of the pharynx?
Adenoids.
Bronchi.
Pleurae.
Lungs.
What part of the lower respiratory system is a cylindrical tube composed of 16 to 29 C-shaped cartilage rings and lined with cilia and mucous glands which help entrap dust and foreign matter?
Pharynx.
Trachea.
Bronchi.
Larynx.
Why is the pleurae important within the respiratory system?
Conveys air into the lungs.
Exchanges oxygen for carbon dioxide.
Reduces friction between the two layers lining the chest during respiration.
Increases friction between the two layers lining the chest during respiration.
The process of breathing is a harmonious interplay of nerve impulses, muscular activity, and mechanical pressure changes, all influenced by chemical changes in the
blood.
brain.
lungs.
air.
During inspiration, what forces the air through the conducting passages?
Decreased thorax.
Atmospheric pressure.
Upward movement of the diaphragm.
Pressure increase in the intrathoracic space.
After the muscles of inspiration relax, and the chest wall and lungs recoil,
the ribs move forward and upward.
the intercostal muscles contract.
increased thorax occurs.
expiration occurs.
The bile and pancreatic ducts that bring secretions from the liver, pancreas, and gallbladder open into the
duodenum
jejunum
cecum
ileum
Material that cannot be digested or absorbed in the small intestine will pass through the ileocecal valve directly into the
anus.
oblique colon.
anal sphincter.
large intestine.
What part of the large intestine extends across the abdominal cavity turning into the descending colon?
Sigmoid.
Appendix.
Ascending colon.
Transverse colon.
Which best describes the function of the liver?
Helps maintain proper blood sugar levels.
Keeps food particles together.
Provides hormone insulin.
Reservoir for storing bile.
What action is performed when food arrives in the duodenum?
Aids in the metabolism.
Aids digestion by producing pancreatic juices.
Gallbladder contracts and sends bile through the cystic duct.
Saliva moistens and lubricates the mouth making swallowing easier.
One function of the pancreas is to
secrete bile.
store vitamins.
produce the hormone insulin.
detoxify harmful substances.
One function of the salivary glands is to
store vitamins.
provide insulin.
secrete antibodies.
initiate the digestive process.
Which of the following is the largest cranial bone?
Frontal
Parietal
Occipital
Temporal
Which of the following describes cranial bones?
Forms the eye socket.
Forms the bridge of the nose.
Largest portion of the nasal septum.
Connect the brain with the spinal cord through the occipital.
With the exception of lungs, which part of the circulatory system includes blood flow to all parts of the body?
Pulmonary Circulation
Systemic Circulation
Closed loop circulation
Deoxygenated circulation
What type of fluid is lymph fluid?
Blood fluid
Oxygenated fluid
Tissue fluid
None of the above
Which of the following is NOT an organ of the lymphatic system?
Heart
Spleen
Thymus
Tonsils
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Efferent neurons carries impulses from the periphery toward the spine and brain.
Afferent carries impulses from the periphery toward the spine and brain
Afferent carries impulses from the spine and brain to the periphery.
Efferent and afferent perform the same job when located in the brain.
Which two items compose the central nervous system?
Brain and lungs
Spinal cord and heart
Heart and lungs
Brain and spinal cord
Which lobe of the cerebrum is the motor area?
Parietal Lob
Occipital lobe
Frontal lobe
Temporal lobe
What is the second largest part of the brain?
Cerebellum
Cortex
Pons
Frontal Lobe
What makes up the middle part of the brain stem?
Pons
Cerebellum
Cortex
Frontal Lobe
How many pairs of nerves are contained in the spinal cord?
28
29
30
31
What function do the cilia and mucous glands, located in the trachea, perform?
Entrap dust and foreign matter
Push materials through the trachea
Provide lubrication
All of the above
What is reversible pulpitis?
When the pulp dies
When the pulp is pushed down too far
When the pulp will recover
When the pulp is pushed down and THEN dies
Where are apical granulomas usually located?
On the lingual side of the tooth
On the Apex of the root
On the occlusion of the tooth
On the posterior side of the root
What usually causes an inflammatory cyst?
An irritant that can be easily identified.
An irritant that cannot be easily identified
Smoking
All of the above
What happens to pus trapped inside a cyst?
It gradually turns to a clear liquid.
It destroys all tissue
It turns bright yellow and green
It is absorbed into the body.
Developmental cysts are composed of what?
Cells that are pre cancerous
Cells that were left behind after performing a particular function.
Cells that will turn into pus.
Cells that have started uncontrollably dividing
Under what conditions is alveolar osteitis likely to occur?
After an extraction if a normal blood clot fails to form or is dislodged.
After an extraction if a normal blood clot is dislodged only.
After an extraction the Oral Surgeon doesn’t provide medication.
After an extraction the patient doesn’t ask enough questions.
Who should provide treatment for the predisposing and systemic factors related to marginal gingivitis?
Any technician
A dentist only.
A physician only.
A dentist and/or a physician.
What drug could cause gingival hyperplasia and why is it taken?
Lisinopril; High Blood pressure
Lovastatin; High Cholesterol
Metformin; diabetes
Dilantin; epilepsy
What is pericoronitis?
Inflammation of the hard tissue of the tooth
Inflammation of the soft tissue around the crown of the tooth
Inflammation of the soft tissue around the apex of the tooth.
Inflammation of perigingival tissues.
What causes the pain, pus formation, and swelling associated with pericoronitis?
As the bacteria divide; an infection is prevented.
Not flossing in the area of pain
As the bacteria multiply, an infectious process is initiated.
An Incision and Drainage is not performed in time.
What may develop as a result of pericoronitis?
Blood disease and possible death.
Fever and generalized cellulitis.
Fever and blood disease.
Possible death and generalized cellulitis.
A dark pigmented lesion of the oral mucosa caused by the accidental implantation into the tissue or prolonged contact of the tissue with a filling material describes a
mucocele.
lichen planus.
Fordyce granules.
an amalgam tattoo.
Which type of hepatitis is known as infectious hepatitis and is usually acquired by ingestion of contaminated food or water?
Hepatitis A (HAV)
Hepatitis B (HBV)
Hepatitis C (HCV)
Hepatitis Delta (Delta)
Which type of hepatitis, known as serum hepatitis, is transmitted by contact with body fluids?
Hepatitis A (HAV)
Hepatitis B (HBV)
Hepatitis C (HCV)
Hepatitis Delta (Delta)
What condition is marked by watery blisters on the skin and mucous membranes and often called shingles?
Mumps.
Candidiasis.
Herpes zoster.
Aphthous stomatitis.
What disease is caused by the treponema pallidum bacteria?
Syphilis.
Candidiasis.
Tuberculosis.
Infectious mononucleosis.
What lesion is found in the oral cavity during the second stage of syphilis?
Mucous patch.
Chancre.
Gumma.
Canker.
What noninfectious lesion is produced during the third stage of syphilis?
Canker.
Gumma.
Chancre.
Mucous patch.
Malformed teeth in a patient who had congenital syphilis are referred to as
microdontia.
macrodontia.
Supernumerary.
Hutchinson’s incisors.
What disease exhibits multiple oral lesions and consists of many pinpoint, purplish-red spots (petechiae) and is attended by fever, malaise, sore mouth, lymph gland enlargement, and loss of appetite?
Infectious mononucleosis.
Tuberculosis.
Measles.
Mumps.
A benign lesion of the gingiva that develops from the connective tissue or the periodontal ligament best describes a
fibroma.
granuloma.
hemangioma.
papilloma.
What type of tumor is made up of small blood vessels and usually appears on the cheek, tongue, or lip as an elevated lesion with a smooth surface and is somewhat red or blue in color?
Pyogenic granuloma.
Irritation fibroma.
Hemangioma.
Papilloma.
What is the most common malignant tumor of the oral cavity and what areas of the oral cavity are more vulnerable?
Adenocarcinoma arising from the salivary glands.
Squamous cell carcinoma arising from the salivary glands.
Adenocarcinoma arising from the soft palate, lateral and ventral tongue mucosa and floor of the mouth.
Squamous cell carcinoma arising from the soft palate, lateral and ventral tongue mucosa and floor of the mouth.
Careless manipulation of dental materials, such as impression waxes, cavitron devices and endodontic instruments could result in a.
a traumatic ulcer.
a chemical burn.
a thermal burn.
hyperplasia.
The most notable sign or symptom in a patient with a condylar fracture is
pain.
malocclusion.
abnormal movements.
abnormal appearance.
Anything that occupies space and has weight or mass is an example of
energy.
gravity.
matter.
volume.
The degree to which the particles are packed together and, therefore, are almost free to move about determines the
physical changes.
identity of matter.
properties of matter.
physical state of matter.
Which form of matter has a definite volume at a given temperature, but not a fixed shape?
Gas.
Solid.
Liquid.
Energy.
What substance is classically defined as containing hydrogen and donating hydrogen ions in a solution?
Salts.
Acids.
Bases.
Hydroxyls.
A lesion consisting of two or more flaps of soft tissue separated by the central groove into which an overextended denture border fits describe
angular cheilitis
angular cheilosis
epulis fissuratum
papillary hyperplasia
