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Practice for exam one med surg

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is cancer?

a)

Controlled cell growth

b)

Uncontrolled cell growth

c)

Cell death

d)

Cell repair

2.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of cancer?

a)

Genetics

b)

Cancer treatment

c)

Environmental/toxin exposure

d)

Regular exercise

3.

Which of the following is a process where cells self-destruct when damaged?

a)

Mutation

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Carcinogenesis

d)

Division

4.

Which of the following is a chemical carcinogen that can cause cancer?

a)

UVA and UVB

b)

Arsenic

c)

HIV

d)

Inherited cancer genes

5.

Which of the following is a type of radiation that can cause cancer?

a)

Formaldehyde

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

UVA and UVB

d)

HPV

6.

Which of the following viruses is associated with cancer?

a)

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)

b)

Formaldehyde

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Radiation

7.

Which phase of cancer development involves a mutation in the cell’s genetic structure?

a)

A) Initiation

b)

B) Promotion

c)

C) Progression

8.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a risk factor in the Promotion phase of cancer development?

a)

Obesity

b)

Smoking

c)

Increased tumor growth

d)

Alcohol & drug use

9.

Fill in the blank: The final stage of cancer development is called _________.

a)

Progression

b)

Initiation

c)

Promotion

d)

Regression

10.

Which phase of cancer development is associated with increased tumor growth and possible metastasis?

a)

Progression

b)

Initiation

c)

Promotion

d)

Remission

11.

What does histological grading assess in cancer cells?

a)

The size of the tumor

b)

The severity of cancer cells based on how different they are than normal cells

c)

The location of the tumor

d)

The patient's age

12.

Undifferentiated (poorly differentiated) cancer cells are associated with:

a)

Better prognosis

b)

Worse prognosis

c)

No change in prognosis

d)

Lower risk

13.

Well-differentiated cancer cells are associated with ______ risk.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

no

d)

unknown

14.

Stage 0 in clinical staging of cancer refers to:

a)

Tumor growth limited to original area

b)

Cancer in situ

c)

Extensive local and regional spread

d)

Distant metastasis

15.

Which stage in clinical staging of cancer is characterized by distant metastasis?

a)

Stage 0

b)

Stage I

c)

Stage II

d)

Stage IV

16.

Fill in the blank: Stage III in clinical staging of cancer is characterized by ______ local and regional spread.

a)

extensive

b)

minimal

c)

no

d)

limited

17.

Which stage of cancer is characterized by affected lymph nodes and a tumor size between 3 to 5 cm?

a)

Stage 2

b)

Stage 1

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

18.

In cancer staging, which stage is associated with metastases and a tumor size greater than 7 cm?

a)

Stage 4

b)

Stage 1

c)

Stage 2

d)

Stage 3

19.

In Stage 3 cancer, the tumor is larger than 5 cm and lymph nodes are affected.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Fill in the blank: One way to reduce cancer risk is ________ cessation.

a)

smoking

b)

alcohol

c)

sugar

d)

caffeine

21.

Fill in the blank: Quitting smoking for ________ years can help reduce cancer risk.

a)

15

b)

2

c)

5

d)

25

22.

Which of the following is a warning sign of cancer?

a)

Change in bowel or bladder habits

b)

Headache

c)

Fever

d)

Sneezing

23.

A sore that does not heal can be a warning sign of cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Fill in the blank: Indigestion or ________ can be a warning sign of cancer.

a)

dysphagia

b)

headache

c)

rash

d)

blurred vision

25.

Which of the following is NOT an imaging technique used in diagnosing cancer?

a)

MRI

b)

Xray

c)

CT

d)

CBC

26.

Which diagnostic method gives the most definitive diagnostic information for cancer?

a)

Imaging

b)

Laboratory Studies

c)

Tissue Biopsy

27.

Fill in the blank: ________ is a laboratory study that checks for CEA, AFP, PSA, and CA-125 in diagnosing cancer.

a)

Tumor markers

b)

Blood glucose test

c)

Liver function test

d)

Urinalysis

28.

Endoscopy is a type of imaging technique used in diagnosing cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What is one of the options for cancer treatment? Fill in the blank: _________

a)

Targeted Immunotherapy

b)

Antibiotic Therapy

c)

Physical Therapy

d)

Vitamin Supplementation

30.

What is the goal of Palliative in cancer treatment?

a)

Goal is to decrease distress and discomfort from the cancer

b)

Goal is to completely cure the cancer

c)

Goal is to prevent cancer from ever occurring

d)

Goal is to increase the size of the tumor

31.

Which of the following is NOT a method of chemotherapy administration?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Oral medication

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Inhalation

e)

Topical

32.

Fill in the blank: A partial response to chemotherapy means shrinkage by ________% or more.

a)

30

b)

10

c)

50

d)

70

33.

Which of the following is a type of internal radiation therapy?

a)

External beam radiation

b)

Brachytherapy

c)

Proton beam therapy

d)

Chemotherapy

34.

Which of the following is an example of organ toxicity caused by chemotherapy?

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Pneumonitis

d)

Cystitis

35.

Which of the following is a side effect of radiation therapy?

a)

Telangiectasia

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Hair loss

d)

Neuropathy

36.

Which of the following is a side effect common to both chemotherapy and radiation therapy?

a)

Cognitive changes

b)

Pneumonitis

c)

Extravasation

d)

Telangiectasia

37.

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of chemotherapy?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Neuropathy

c)

Dry to moist desquamation

d)

Telangiectasia

38.

Fill in the blank: ______ is a side effect of both chemotherapy and radiation that affects the mouth and digestive tract lining.

a)

Mucositis/stomatitis

b)

Alopecia

c)

Leukopenia

d)

Peripheral neuropathy

39.

Fill in the blank: ______ is a side effect of chemotherapy involving the leakage of drugs into surrounding tissue.

a)

Extravasation

b)

Alopecia

c)

Neutropenia

d)

Mucositis

40.

Which of the following is a side effect of both chemotherapy and radiation that involves a decrease in platelets?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Telangiectasia

d)

Cognitive changes

41.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of extravasation?

a)

Warmth

b)

Coldness

c)

Numbness

d)

Itching

42.

What is the immediate intervention for extravasation?

a)

Apply heat

b)

Continue the infusion

c)

Stop the infusion immediately

d)

Elevate the limb

43.

Which of the following is the first stage of dry to wet desquamation?

a)

Skin becomes dry and flaky

b)

Redness/erythema

c)

Weeping, sloughing, pain

d)

Ulceration

44.

During admission of a patient diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer, what should the nurse assess for as a key indicator of clinical depression related to terminal illness?

a)

Frustration

b)

Anorexia

c)
Persistent feelings of hopelessness or worthlessness.
d)

Pain

45.

A patient with terminal cancer tells the nurse, “I know I am going to die pretty soon, perhaps in the next month.” What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

a)
I'm here for you. Can you share more about how you're feeling?
b)
It's not the end; you have more time.
c)
Don't think about it; just stay positive.
d)
You should focus on fighting the cancer instead.
46.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted to the hospital while receiving home hospice care. How would the nurse interpret the general prognosis time to live?

a)
Six months or less.
b)
Nine months or more.
c)
Three months or less.
d)
One year or more.
47.

A patient has been receiving palliative care for the past several weeks in light of a worsening condition after a series of strokes. The caregiver has rung the call bell, stating that the patient now “stops breathing for a while, then breathes fast and hard, and then stops again.” What should the nurse document that the patient is experiencing?

a)
Kussmaul breathing
b)
Apnea
c)
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
d)
Biot's respiration
48.

What are the most important reasons for considering the use of palliative care in patient care management? Select all that apply.

a)

Patients live with multiple chronic diseases several years before dying.

b)

Patients live with debilitating symptoms that interfere with the quality of life.

c)

Palliative care is reserved for those patients who are considered terminally ill.

d)

Palliative care is used to reduce the symptoms associated with chronic disease.

e)

Palliative care is recommended until cures for illnesses are discovered.

49.

End-of-life care is most synonymous with which of the following types of care?

a)

Palliative care

b)

Hospice care

c)

Supportive care

d)

Quality of life

50.

Optimal symptom management is primarily based upon which type of care?

a)

Physician-directed care

b)

Nurse-directed care

c)

Evidence-based practice

d)

Hospice-directed care

51.

Palliative care can be used to promote which of the following items? Select all that apply.

a)

Physical functioning

b)

Reduction in disease exacerbations

c)

Improved quality of life

d)

Discussion on advance directives

e)

Surgical treatment plans versus medical

52.

How should the nurse provide appropriate cultural and spiritual care for the patient and family to best be able to help them when nearing the end of the patient’s life?

a)

Do not insult African Americans by suggesting hospice care.

b)

Assess the individual patient’s wishes.

c)

Assess the beliefs and preferences of the patient and family.

d)

Call a pastor or priest for the family to help them cope.

53.

When the nurse assesses the patient, what manifestation indicates to the nurse that the patient is very near death?

a)

The patient’s skin is mottled and wax-like.

b)

The patient responds to noises.

c)

The heart rate and blood pressure increase.

d)

The patient is reviewing his life with his family.

54.

The nurse is evaluating whether a hospice referral is appropriate for a patient with end-stage liver failure. What is one of the two criteria necessary for admission to a hospice program?

a)

The physician guarantees the patient has less than 6 months to live.

b)

The patient has completed both advance directives and a living will.

c)

The patient wants hospice care and agrees to terminate curative care.

d)

The hospice medical director certifies admission to the program.

55.

A patient near death from metastatic cancer becomes restless and confused. What interventions would be the most appropriate for the nursing management of these symptoms?

a)

Avoid administering pain medication until the patient is calm and alert.

b)

Stay physically close to the patient and use a soothing voice and soft touch.

c)

Turn on the television to provide a distraction and contact the hospital chaplain.

d)

Restrain the patient to prevent injury and ask family and visitors to leave the room.

56.

A patient admitted for pneumonia informs the nurse that no one is to attempt CPR. What is important for the nurse to verify in the medical record related to the patient’s directive?

a)

The living will is signed by the patient and two witnesses.

b)

There is an advance directive related to artificial nutrition and hydration.

c)

The physician has written and signed the DNR order.

d)

The patient’s durable power of attorney agrees with the decision.