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Worksheets

SYS 5 - 2

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

SATCOM is used to.

a)

Monitor aircraft

b)

Relay transmissions to and from the aircraft

c)

Determine the position of the aircraft

2.

121.5 MHz is what frequency?

a)

VOR.

b)

VHF.

c)

ILS.

3.

Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?

a)

HF.

b)

VHF.

c)

VHF and UHF.

4.

Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band

a)

75 KHz

b)

50 KHz

c)

25 KHz

5.

In Europe, each VHF communication channel is separated into:

a)

8.33 KHz

b)

2 KHz

c)

25 KHz

6.

VHF frequency is.

a)

108 – 136.975 MHz.

b)

108 - 112 MHz.

c)

108 - 118 MHz.

7.

A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for.

a)

weather radar.

b)

marker beacons.

c)

HF communications

8.

The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a.

a)

horn.

b)

hi tone chime.

c)

two tone chime.

9.

The range of HF signal is between:

a)

3 to 50 HHz

b)

2 to 25 MHz

c)

108 to 117.975 MHz

10.

The range of HF signals:

a)

beyond line-of-sight

b)

within line-of-sight

c)

About 25 NM

11.

Service interphone system allows

a)

communication between the flight deck and some areas on the aircraft.

b)

communication to other aircraft

c)

Communication to ATC

12.

An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:

a)

right drift

b)

left drift

c)

zero drift

13.

Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?

a)

255 - 455 kHz

b)

200 - 1750 kHz

c)

300 - 3000 kHz

14.

In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

a)

signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials

b)

sense aerial must be tuned separately

c)

mode selector should be switched to “loop”

15.

An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:

a)

a beam rotating at 30 Hz

b)

bi-lobal circular

c)

omnidirectional

16.

The ADF reception loop is always used so that the electromotive force (EMF)

a)

induced is zero

b)

induced is maximum

c)

is zero

17.

A loop aerial, as used in the ADF, will

a)

Always rotate at constant speed before locking on to a signal from an NDB

b)

Will provide the most accurate bearing when it is aligned in the direction resulting in highest signal strength to the ADF receiver

c)

Receive a minimum or null signal from a transmitter when the plane of the loop is at right angles to the direction of the transmitter

18.

The basic information given by the ADF is

a)

The relative bearing from the aircraft to the NDB

b)

The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB

c)

The true great circle track from the NDB to the aircraft

19.

The combination of the polar diagrams of the loop and the sense aerial results in:

a)

A cardoid polar diagram, having only one null or minimum

b)

A figure-of-eight diagram in the vertical plane

c)

A pencil-beam polar diagram

20.

Of the bearing indicators available for use on ADFs, the most sophisticated one is:

a)

The Relative Bearing Indicator

b)

The Radio Magnetic Indicator

c)

The Deviation Indicator

21.

Using an ADF indicator of the manually rotateable card type:

a)

Relative bearing is normally indicated under the pointer needle

b)

May be combined with a VOR indicator

c)

The card should be rotated so that the aircraft heading is at the top of the indicator

22.

The heading read on a standard RMI is

a)

The magnetic heading

b)

The relative heading

c)

The compass heading

23.

The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:

a)

find the loop 'null' position

b)

hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON

c)

hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal

24.

r is used to:

a)

find the loop 'null' position

b)

hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON

c)

hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal

25.

The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:

a)

beat frequency discrimination

b)

envelope matching

c)

phase comparison

26.

Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

a)

SHF

b)

UHF

c)

VHF

27.

An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?

a)

284° with the FROM flag showing

b)

284° with the TO flag showing

c)

104° with the TO flag showing

28.

An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?

a)

less than 10°

b)

10° or more

c)

1.5° or more

29.

Tune the VOR receivers to the local ground VOR station. A bearing indication difference of

a)

no more than ± 4° is permissible.

b)

no more than ± 6° is permissible.

c)

no more than ± 8° is permissible.

30.

The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:

a)

108 to 117.95 MHz

b)

108 to 111.95 MHz

c)

118 to 135.95 MHz

31.

An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':

a)

left with 'FROM' showing

b)

right with 'TO' showing

c)

left with 'TO' showing

32.

The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR

a)

Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR

b)

Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR

c)

Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication

33.

When the warning flag on a VOR indicator appears, it may indicate

a)

That no signal is received

b)

That the received signal is too weak to be processed in the receiver

c)

Both answers are correct

34.

On an HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator) used in combination with a VOR receiver

a)

A pictorial presentation of aircraft deviation relative to VOR radials is provided

b)

The lubber line will indicate the reciprocal value of the received radial

c)

The lubber line will indicate the selected radial

35.

When using an RMI as an indicator for the VOR receiver

a)

You will read the drift as the angle between the OBS bug and the tip of the VOR needle

b)

You will read the number of the received radial under the tail of the VOR needle

c)

You will read the number of the received radial under the tip of the VOR needle

36.

VOR uses VHF radio waves (108-117.95 MHz) with:

a)

25 kHz separation between each channel.

b)

50 kHz separation between each channel

c)

1 MHz separation between each channel

37.

An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:

a)

Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown

b)

Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°

c)

Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown

38.

A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to.

a)

100 ft.

b)

2500 ft.

c)

2000 ft.

39.

Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?.

a)

103.9 MHz.

b)

127.2 MHz.

c)

114.3 MHz

40.

The manual VOR input is for.

a)

glideslope.

b)

course deviation bar.

c)

RMI.

41.

The VOR system comprises.

a)

reference phase signal.

b)

variable phase signal.

c)

variable and reference phase signals.

42.

If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator would show.

a)

no indication.

b)

from.

c)

to

43.

The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:

a)

962 to 1213 MHz

b)

108 to 118 MHz

c)

329 to 335 MHz

44.

A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:

a)

10 MHz

b)

1000 MHz

c)

100 MHz

45.

The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:

a)

400 Hz, blue

b)

1300 Hz, blue

c)

400 Hz, amber

46.

In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?

a)

VHF

b)

UHF

c)

SHF

47.

Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:

a)

1300 Hz

b)

400 Hz

c)

2000 Hz

48.

What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?

a)

white - amber - blue

b)

amber - white - green

c)

blue - amber – white

49.

An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:

a)

Fly right and fly down

b)

Fly left and fly down

c)

Fly right and fly up

50.

Consider the following statements on ILS:

a)

An ILS-approach may be flown if the localizer, glide path and marker beacons/DME are operational

b)

If the localizer is out of service, an ILS approach with increased decision height (DH) may be carried out

c)

ILS is the primary precision approach facility for civil aviation

51.

The function of a locator beacon in an ILS procedure

a)

Is to give steering information to guide the pilot during the final section of the ILS approach

b)

Is to locate the airfield position

c)

Is to provide a navigation aid that will clearly indicate that the aircraft is within the coverage of the ILS localizer and glide path

52.

The middle marker is identified by

a)

Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 1300 Hz and an amber light

b)

Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 800 Hz and an amber light

c)

Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 800 Hz and a white light

53.

In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar systems operate?

a)

SHF

b)

UHF

c)

EHF

54.

A Surveillance Radar installation will often consist of

a)

A Primary radar and a Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

b)

A primary Radar and a VDF

c)

A Primary Radar and a Precision Radar

55.

Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:

a)

detect the larger water droplets

b)

transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range

c)

obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam

56.

A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:

a)

the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively small

b)

greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets

c)

static interference is minimised

57.

Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?

a)

roll, pitch and yaw

b)

roll and pitch

c)

pitch and yaw

58.

In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:

a)

green to yellow to red

b)

yellow to amber to blue

c)

green to red to black

59.

In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:

a)

permitted anywhere

b)

only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect equipment

c)

totally prohibited

60.

A frequency of airborne weather radar is:

a)

9375 MHz

b)

9375 GHz

c)

9375 kHz

61.

In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:

a)

size of the water drops; wavelength/frequency used

b)

range from cloud; wavelength/frequency used

c)

size of the water drops; diameter of radar scanner

62.

Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?

a)

dry hail; clear air turbulence

b)

Dry air turbulence

c)

clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation

63.

Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?

a)

dry hail; clear air turbulence

b)

Dry air turbulence

c)

clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation

64.

Airborne weather radar uses a particularly high frequency radar signal, at 9 – 12 GHz, in order to

a)

Get the most accurate range and bearing information

b)

Get good returns from droplets of water and other sorts of precipitation

c)

Making it possible to present a colour display of the weather situation

65.

On the airborne weather radar display, different colours are used

a)

To display different intensity of precipitation

b)

High ground

c)

Echoes from other aircraft

66.

You want to use your airborne weather radar to detect areas with turbulence. Consider the following statements:

a)

If you are flying at low altitude, the detection of turbulence at levels below the aircraft may difficult because of ground returns

b)

You should select the cosec beam and carefully adjust the aerial tilt

c)

Using the cosec beam, the height of top of clouds, with possible turbulence, may be calculated using the 1 : 60 rule.

67.

Using the airborne weather radar on ground:

a)

The contrast control should be adjusted to maximum contrast

b)

operation of radar should not take place while the radar is pointed toward a building or when refueling takes place.

c)

The antenna tilt control should be set to max negative tilt

68.

The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter Receiver

a)

1090 MHz 1090 MHz

b)

1090 MHz 1030 MHz

c)

1030 MHz 1090 MHz

69.

Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

a)

The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar

b)

The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources

c)

A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns

70.

In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:

a)

7000

b)

7700

c)

7600

71.

In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:

a)

7600

b)

7500

c)

7700

72.

The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:

a)

collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.

b)

continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II

c)

air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability

73.

The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:

a)

phase differences

b)

pulses

c)

frequency differences

74.

Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder malfunction?

a)

7600

b)

0000

c)

4096

75.

What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes?

a)

4096

b)

3600

c)

1000

76.

The frequencies used by SSRs are

a)

Interrogations are transmitted on 1030 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on 1090 MHz

b)

Interrogations are transmitted on 1030 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on 1030 MHz

c)

Interrogations are transmitted on 1090 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on 1090 MHz

77.

What SSR modes are currently in use by ATC?

a)

Mode C and Mode D

b)

Mode A and Mode B

c)

Mode A and Mode C

78.

The transponder code set in an SSR system consists of

a)

2 digits and 2 letters, forming any of 4096 different codes

b)

4 digits, forming any of 9999 different codes

c)

4 digits, forming any of 4096 different codes

79.

When the ATC transponder "IDENT" button is pressed by the pilot

a)

The airplane's identification will be sent to all SSRs within range

b)

The airplane's echo on the controller's display will flash or "fill in"

c)

M

80.

When both SSR and primary radar is presented on the controller's display

a)

The SSR information is more accurate in bearing and distance

b)

The primary radar information is superfluous

c)

The primary radar information is more accurate in bearing and distance

81.

The components of an ILS are.

a)

a localizer and the marker beacons.

b)

a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons.

c)

a localizer and a glide slope.

82.

In ILS, the glideslope provides.

a)

distance checks.

b)

vertical steering.

c)

lateral steering

83.

What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?

a)

90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path.

b)

150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline.

c)

150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway centreline.

84.

Radio altimeter is used primarily during instrument approach and low level or night flight below

a)

2500 feet.

b)

3500 feet

c)

500 feet

85.

a radio altimeter broadcasts a carrier wave at

a)

137 MHz from the aircraft directly toward the ground

b)

4.3 GHz from the aircraft directly toward the ground

c)

1750 KHz from the aircraft directly toward the ground

86.

GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:

a)

Air speed indicator.

b)

Pressure altimeter.

c)

Radio altimeter

87.

What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?

a)

TA.

b)

RA.

c)

either RA or TA.

88.

What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display?

a)

White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.

b)

White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.

c)

White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.

89.

An R.M.I in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?.

a)

Moves left then hard right.

b)

Move left.

c)

Move right.

90.

Track mode of an Radio Altimeter is operational.

a)

above 10,000 feet.

b)

from 1.0 to 100 feet.

c)

from 0 to 2,500 feet.

91.

A decision height window (DH) displays:

a)

the radar altitude

b)

The pressure altitude

c)

The height from sea level

92.

How many aerials are there in a T.C.A.S system?.

a)

1.

b)

2.

c)

3.

93.

Differential G.P.S requires.

a)

4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters.

b)

3 satellites and two ground based transmitters.

c)

4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter.

94.

The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which detects a "traffic" when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a :

a)

SELCAL system

b)

serviceable weather radar

c)

serviceable SSR transponder

95.

The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides : 1- traffic information 2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 4- ground proximity warning The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a)

1

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

1, 2, 3, 4

96.

The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation:

a)

the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board

b)

the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system

c)

the replies from the transponders of other aircraft

97.

Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) :

a)

In one of the system modes, the warning: "TOO LOW TERRAIN" is generated

b)

No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR transponder

c)

In one of the system modes, the warning: "PULL UP" is generated