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WorksheetsARC 1471 - Planning 3 - Special Exam
Total questions: 96
Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following best defines "Human Ecology"?
a)
The study of the interrelationships between the social system and the ecosystem.
b)
The study of biological organisms and their purely physical environment.
c)
The analysis of economic systems independent of natural resources.
d)
The study of human internal biological processes and genetics.
e)
The preservation of built structures within an urban setting
2.
Which category of ecosystem services includes non-material benefits such as recreation, spiritual enrichment, and a sense of place?
a)
Cultural Services
b)
Provisioning Services
c)
Regulating Services
d)
Supporting Services
e)
Administrative Services
3.
In the context of ecosystem services, "nutrient cycling" and "soil formation" are classified as which type of service?
a)
Supporting Services
b)
Provisioning Services
c)
Regulating Services
d)
Cultural Services
e)
Economic Services
4.
Which of the following best illustrates the "social response" component of the human-ecosystem feedback loop?
a)
Public awareness campaigns and UN resolutions pressuring governments to ban drift nets.
b)
The immediate entanglement of dolphins and seals in the nylon nets.
c)
The natural migration of fish populations away from the fishing zones.
d)
The biological adaptation of seabirds to avoid baited hooks.
e)
The increase in algae blooms due to overfishing.
5.
Which theoretical concept suggests that the physical environment (climate, landforms) strictly dictates human culture and societal development?
a)
Environmental Determinism
b)
Environmental Possibilism
c)
Cultural Ecology
d)
Political Ecology
e)
Behavioral Ecology
6.
How does the concept of "Possibilism" differ from "Environmental Determinism"?
a)
Possibilism argues that nature provides opportunities and limitations, but humans choose their cultural path.
b)
Possibilism suggests that human culture is genetically determined rather than environmentally determined.
c)
Possibilism claims that the environment has zero impact on human development.
d)
Possibilism focuses strictly on the political power dynamics of resource distribution.
e)
Possibilism posits that technology is the only factor that shapes culture.
7.
In the "5 Ps" framework of sustainable development mentioned in the lecture, which of the following is NOT one of the five components?
a)
Profit
b)
People
c)
Planet
d)
Prosperity
e)
Peace
8.
According to Leslie White’s theory on energy transformation (1943), what is the primary driver of cultural evolution and social complexity?
a)
The ability of a society to harness and control energy.
b)
The abundance of fresh water in a specific region.
c)
The genetic diversity of the human population.
d)
The presence of democratic political institutions.
e)
The development of artistic and religious expression.
9.
Which of the following is considered an "abiotic" component of an ecosystem?
a)
Climate and soil minerals
b)
Microorganisms and fungi
c)
Human populations
d)
Forest vegetation
e)
Marine wildlife
10.
According to the "Brundtland Report" (1987), sustainable development is defined as:
a)
Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
b)
Prioritizing economic growth above all else to ensure rapid industrialization.
c)
Preserving the environment in its pristine state by banning all human interaction.
d)
Ensuring that the population growth rate reaches zero by the next century.
e)
The exclusive use of renewable energy sources for all industrial activities.
11.
In the feedback loop between social systems and ecosystems, which of the following is an example of an "Information" flow from the social system to the ecosystem?
a)
The application of specific farming practices and fishing technologies.
b)
The extraction of timber and fresh water.
c)
The release of carbon emissions into the atmosphere.
d)
The consumption of biomass for energy.
e)
The harvesting of fish for protein.
12.
Which Human Ecological Concept, associated with Marvin Harris, divides culture into "Infrastructure," "Structure," and "Superstructure"?
a)
Cultural Materialism
b)
Environmental Determinism
c)
Possibilism
d)
Behavioral Ecology
e)
Environmental History
13.
Who coined the term "Ekistics" and founded the Athens Center of Ekistics?
a)
Constantinos A. Doxiadis
b)
Le Corbusier
c)
Frank Lloyd Wright
d)
Ebenezer Howard
e)
Lewis Mumford
14.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental elements of Ekistics?
a)
Economy
b)
Nature
c)
Anthropos
d)
Shells
e)
Networks
15.
In the Ekistics framework, what does the element "Shells" represent?
a)
The built environment, such as houses, buildings, and other structures.
b)
The natural landscape and topography.
c)
The social laws and cultural traditions of a community.
d)
The transportation and communication systems connecting spaces.
e)
The individual human being as a biological unit.
16.
According to the hierarchy of human settlements, which term describes the theoretical future "world city" with a population of approximately 50 billion?
a)
Ecumenopolis
b)
Megalopolis
c)
Eperopolis
d)
Metropolis
e)
Cosmopolis
17.
Which Ekistic principle suggests that humans arrange their settlements to balance safety, security, and psychological comfort?
a)
Optimization of Man’s Protective Space
b)
Maximization of Human Potentials
c)
Minimization of Efforts
d)
Optimization of Man’s Relationship with his Environment
e)
Maximization of Economic Output
18.
What historical context primarily drove the emergence of Ekistics in the mid-20th century?
a)
Post-World War II reconstruction challenges and global urbanization trends.
b)
The Industrial Revolution and the invention of the steam engine.
c)
The collapse of the Roman Empire and the rise of feudalism.
d)
The discovery of the Americas and subsequent colonization.
e)
The digital revolution and the rise of the internet.
19.
In Doxiadis’s scale of settlements, which unit immediately follows the "Metropolis" and represents a population of approximately 25 million people?
a)
Small Megalopolis
b)
Eperopolis
c)
Polis
d)
Small Metropolis
e)
Ecumenopolis
20.
In the context of the "Three-Folding Image of Society," which sphere is primarily concerned with the production of goods, jobs, and income, but often neglects non-profit land uses?
a)
The Market/Business Sector
b)
The State
c)
Civil Society
d)
The Academe
e)
The Religious Sector
21.
In the Philippine definition of an "Urban Place," a barangay with at least 1,000 inhabitants is considered urban if it meets specific conditions. Which of the following is NOT one of those conditions?
a)
The residents must be engaged primarily in fishing and farming.
b)
It has a street pattern (grid or parallel).
c)
It has at least 6 establishments (commercial, manufacturing, services).
d)
It possesses at least 3 specific public facilities (e.g., town hall, church, market).
e)
It is a poblacion or central district with a high population density.
22.
Which "School of Thought" in planning views the process as a dialogue and consensus-building exercise, focusing heavily on stakeholder engagement to address power imbalances?
a)
Communicative Action
b)
Instrumentalist View
c)
Systems Theory
d)
Rational Adaptive Planning
e)
Traditional Master Planning
23.
In the analysis of a Local Economy, a Location Quotient (L.Q.) greater than 1 (>1) indicates what about a specific industry?
a)
The town is specialized in that industry, and it likely exports goods/services.
b)
The town has a deficiency in that industry and must import goods.
c)
The industry is non-existent in the local area.
d)
The industry is purely for local consumption with no surplus.
e)
The industry is shrinking and losing money.
24.
Which document is considered the "skeletal-circulatory framework" of a territory’s physical development and is typically implemented through a Zoning Ordinance (Volume 3)?
a)
Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP)
b)
Comprehensive Development Plan (CDP)
c)
Executive and Legislative Agenda (ELA)
d)
Annual Investment Plan (AIP)
e)
Ecological Profile (EP)
25.
The "Ridge-to-Reef" planning approach is best described as:
a)
An integrated approach recognizing ecological linkages between uplands, lowlands, and coastal/marine ecosystems.
b)
A tourism strategy focused solely on developing beach resorts.
c)
A mining policy that allows extraction only in mountain ridges.
d)
A transportation plan connecting mountain roads to sea ports.
e)
A housing strategy for coastal informal settlements only.
26.
In the "Three-Folding Image of Society," which sphere is described as the domain of government, power, and policy?
a)
The State
b)
The Market
c)
Civil Society
d)
The Church
e)
The Academe
27.
What is the traditional "Old Planning" sequence attributed to Patrick Geddes?
a)
Survey - Analysis - Plan
b)
Guess - Build - Regret
c)
Plan - Implement - Monitor
d)
Design - Construct - Sell
e)
Debate - Delay - Cancel
28.
Which document is described as the "skeletal-circulatory framework" of a territory’s physical development, identifying where development can and cannot be located?
a)
Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP)
b)
Annual Investment Plan (AIP)
c)
Executive Legislative Agenda (ELA)
d)
Project Feasibility Study
e)
Building Permit
29.
Who is recognized as the "Father of American Landscape Architecture" and argued that a park was not just an ornamental addition but an integral part of the city's social and economic fabric?
a)
Frederick Law Olmsted Sr.
b)
Daniel Hudson Burnham
c)
Ebenezer Howard
d)
Frank Lloyd Wright
e)
Lewis Mumford
30.
Which movement was a direct reaction to the "City Beautiful Movement," shifting the focus from aesthetic grandeur to government efficiency, utility infrastructure, and land use zoning?
a)
The City Functional Movement
b)
The Garden City Movement
c)
The New Urbanism Movement
d)
The Radiant City Movement
e)
The Environmental Planning Movement
31.
What was the central concept of Sir Ebenezer Howard’s "Garden City" as a solution to the ills of the industrial city?
a)
A polycentric settlement where a central city is surrounded by smaller garden cities separated by greenbelts.
b)
A massive high-rise metropolis that concentrates population to clear up open space.
c)
A linear city built along a major transportation spine stretching across the continent.
d)
A suburban landscape where every family owns exactly one acre of land.
e)
A completely paved urban core with no vegetation to maximize industrial efficiency.
32.
Which legal case in the United States upheld the constitutionality of zoning, leading to the widespread adoption of "Euclidean Zoning"?
a)
Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Company
b)
The People v. The City of New York
c)
Brown v. Board of Education
d)
Burnham v. The Zoning Commission
e)
Olmsted v. The Park Service
33.
Clarence Perry’s "Neighborhood Unit" (1929) was designed to be a self-contained residential quarter. Which of the following is NOT one of its six core principles?
a)
It should be centered around a large industrial factory to provide local jobs.
b)
It should be sized to support an elementary school.
c)
Its boundaries should be arterial streets to discourage through-traffic.
d)
It should dedicate about 10% of its area to parks and open spaces.
e)
Local shops should be located at the circumference at traffic junctions.
34.
Don Arturo Soria y Mata proposed the "Linear City" (Ciudad Lineal). What was the primary logic behind this urban form?
a)
The city should expand along a spine of transport and utility lines to link distant regions efficiently.
b)
The city should be a perfect circle to symbolize democratic equality.
c)
The city should be built vertically to minimize its footprint on the earth.
d)
The city should follow a gridiron pattern to maximize real estate sales.
e)
The city should be organized around a central cathedral and plaza.
35.
Who is considered the "Father of American City Planning" and is famous for the quote "Make no little plans"?
a)
Daniel Hudson Burnham
b)
Ebenezer Howard
c)
Le Corbusier
d)
Frederick Law Olmsted
e)
Patrick Geddes
36.
What specific term describes the low-density, fragmented, and formless expansion of cities into the countryside?
a)
Urban Sprawl
b)
Gentrification
c)
Urban Renewal
d)
New Urbanism
e)
Conurbation
37.
The "City Beautiful Movement" drew heavy inspiration from the classical architecture and grand perspectives of which historical style?
a)
Beaux Arts
b)
Brutalism
c)
Minimalist
d)
Gothic
e)
Deconstructivism
38.
Which famous park in New York City was designed by Frederick Law Olmsted Sr.?
a)
Central Park
b)
Hyde Park
c)
Golden Gate Park
d)
Millennium Park
e)
Burnham Park
39.
What was the name of the movement started by Ebenezer Howard that proposed self-contained communities surrounded by greenbelts?
a)
Garden City Movement
b)
City Functional Movement
c)
City Beautiful Movement
d)
New Towns Movement
e)
Advocacy Planning Movement
40.
Who is known as the "Father of Regional Planning" and coined the term "conurbation"?
a)
Patrick Geddes
b)
Lewis Mumford
c)
Clarence Stein
d)
Benton MacKaye
e)
Thomas Adams
41.
Which classical theory of urban structure suggests that cities develop in concentric rings, starting with the Central Business District (CBD) at the center and moving outward to a commuter zone?
a)
Concentric Zone Model (Burgess)
b)
Sector Model (Hoyt)
c)
Multiple Nuclei Model (Harris and Ullman)
d)
Central Place Theory (Christaller)
e)
Bid Rent Theory (Alonso)
42.
In Walter Christaller’s "Central Place Theory," what does the term "threshold" refer to?
a)
The minimum population necessary to support a service activity.
b)
The maximum distance a consumer is willing to travel for a good.
c)
The physical boundary between two different cities.
d)
The point where land rent becomes zero.
e)
The maximum population a city can sustain without collapsing.
43.
Which urban form is characterized by development following a single, continuous line, often along a transportation corridor like a highway or river?
a)
Linear Urban Form
b)
Concentric Urban Form
c)
Grid Urban Form
d)
Dispersed Urban Form
e)
Galaxy of Settlements
44.
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a "Clustered City" (Polycentric) structure?
a)
Economic interdependence where cities within the cluster share resources and have complementary industries.
b)
A single dominant city that holds all political and economic power with no surrounding towns.
c)
A complete lack of transportation networks connecting the cities.
d)
Strict isolationist policies where no trade occurs between the cities.
e)
All cities in the cluster must have the exact same population size.
45.
In the "Multiple Nuclei Model" by Harris and Ullman, why do separate nuclei (nodes) develop independently of the Central Business District?
a)
Certain activities require specialized facilities (like ports) or repel each other (like high-class housing and heavy industry).
b)
The government mandates that every district must have its own mayor and city hall.
c)
The Central Business District inevitably collapses due to old age.
d)
People refuse to travel to the city center due to religious reasons.
e)
The city runs out of land in the center and must build floating platforms.
46.
Which term refers to the physical layout, design, and arrangement of a city (e.g., buildings, streets, land use)?
a)
Urban Structure
b)
Urban Decay
c)
Rural Development
d)
Economic Policy
e)
Social Stratification
47.
Which urban form is characterized by a regular rectangular street pattern with streets meeting at right angles?
a)
Grid Urban Form
b)
Radial Urban Form
c)
Linear Urban Form
d)
Galaxy of Settlements
e)
Dispersed Urban Form
48.
In the Concentric Zone Model by Ernest Burgess, what is located at the very center of the city?
a)
Central Business District (CBD)
b)
Factories
c)
High-class housing
d)
Farmland
e)
Commuter Zone
49.
Which classical theory suggests that cities grow in "wedges" or "sectors" radiating out from the center along transportation routes?
a)
Sector Theory
b)
Concentric Zone Theory
c)
Multiple Nuclei Theory
d)
Central Place Theory
e)
Rank-Size Theory
50.
Who are the two originators of the "Multiple Nuclei" theory?
a)
Harris and Ullman
b)
Burgess and Park
c)
Christaller and Losch
d)
Hoyt and Davis
e)
Alonso and Muth
51.
Which modern theory explains that land is most expensive near the city center and gets cheaper as you move further away?
a)
Bid Rent Theory
b)
Gravity Model
c)
Sector Model
d)
Rank-Size Rule
e)
Galaxy Theory
52.
Which specific planning tool is described as a "conditional cash transfer program" that exemplifies the concept of Inclusive and Expansive Government in the Philippines?
a)
Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program (4Ps)
b)
Build Build Build Program
c)
Public-Private Partnership (PPP)
d)
The Balik Probinsya Program
e)
The Community Mortgage Program
53.
In the context of the "Three-Folding Image of Society" developed by Rudolf Steiner, which of the following represents the three distinct spheres that planning must interact with?
a)
State, Market/Business Sector, and Civil Society
b)
Executive, Legislative, and Judiciary
c)
Local Government, National Government, and International Agencies
d)
Agriculture, Industry, and Services
e)
Public Sector, Private Sector, and Academe
54.
Under the "Co-Management Principle" mandated by RA 7160 (Local Government Code), how is the responsibility for maintaining ecological balance defined?
a)
It is a shared responsibility where LGUs and the National Government act as co-managers of the national territory.
b)
It is the sole responsibility of the Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR).
c)
It is the exclusive responsibility of the Barangay Development Council.
d)
It is primarily the responsibility of private commercial sectors extracting resources.
e)
It is the responsibility of international NGOs monitoring climate change.
55.
Which type of Zoning Overlay is specifically designed to concentrate commercial and residential growth around transit centers to maximize access to public transport?
a)
Transit-Oriented Development (TOD) Overlay Zones
b)
Infill Development Overlay Zones
c)
Urban Growth Boundaries
d)
Pedestrian-Oriented Development Overlay Zones
e)
Heritage Conservation Zones
56.
If a municipality needs to address the issue of incompatibility between two very different land use zones (e.g., heavy industrial next to a quiet residential area), which zoning concept should be applied?
a)
Transition Zoning
b)
Mixed-Use Zoning
c)
Infill Development
d)
Spot Zoning
e)
Cluster Zoning
57.
In the 12-Step Planning Process, at which stage does the Local Government Unit (LGU) officially secure resolutions, establish the Technical Working Group (TWG), and prepare a detailed work program?
a)
Step 1: Organize
b)
Step 2: Identify Stakeholders
c)
Step 5: Set Goals and Objectives
d)
Step 7: Prepare the Land Use Plan
e)
Step 11: Implementation
58.
What is the primary function of the Provincial Land Use Committee (PLUC) in the hierarchy of plan approval (Step 10)?
a)
To review and approve the Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of component cities and municipalities.
b)
To draft the Zoning Ordinance for every barangay in the province.
c)
To provide financial funding for all municipal infrastructure projects.
d)
To conduct public hearings for barangay-level disputes.
e)
To appoint the Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator.
59.
How does the "Bottom-Up Approach" utilize the Barangay Development Plan (BDP) in the formulation of the city-level CLUP?
a)
It integrates and harmonizes the development goals of all barangays to reconcile inconsistencies in land use proposals.
b)
It ignores barangay-level inputs to ensure a faster top-down implementation from the Mayor.
c)
It uses the BDP solely for requesting national funds and not for spatial planning.
d)
It replaces the city-level CLUP entirely with a collection of BDPs.
e)
It restricts barangays from proposing any land use changes.
60.
Which Republic Act is known as the "Local Government Code of 1991"?
a)
RA 7160
b)
RA 9729
c)
RA 7279
d)
RA 10121
e)
RA 7586
61.
What is the first step in the 12-Step Planning Process for the CLUP?
a)
Organize
b)
Set the Vision
c)
Conduct Public Hearing
d)
Draft Zoning Ordinance
e)
Implementation
62.
What is the legal instrument or document used to implement and enforce the policies of the CLUP?
a)
Zoning Ordinance (ZO)
b)
Executive Order
c)
Memorandum Circular
d)
Tax Declaration
e)
Building Permit
63.
According to the lecture, the CLUP covers a planning period of at least how many years?
a)
9 years
b)
3 years
c)
5 years
d)
20 years
e)
50 years
64.
What does "GAD" stand for in the context of gender-responsive planning?
a)
Gender and Development
b)
Government and Democracy
c)
Growth and Design
d)
Green Areas Development
e)
General Administrative Department
65.
What is the primary objective of "Urban Renewal" as a planning intervention?
a)
To revitalize deteriorated urban areas by rebuilding infrastructure and reinvigorating economic activity.
b)
To expand the city boundaries into rural agricultural lands.
c)
To strictly preserve all buildings regardless of their structural integrity.
d)
To convert all residential areas into heavy industrial zones.
e)
To depopulate urban centers and force migration to the provinces.
66.
In the "Cycle of Urban Decay," what typically follows the physical decay of infrastructure and the out-migration of higher-income residents?
a)
Reduced local tax revenues leading to a decline in maintenance and services.
b)
An immediate increase in property values due to scarcity.
c)
A surge in foreign direct investment to save the area.
d)
The automatic conversion of the area into a high-end business district.
e)
The complete disappearance of the city administration.
67.
Which of the following best describes the "Land Readjustment" approach to Urban Renewal?
a)
Owners collectively contribute land for redevelopment and receive reallocated plots within the renewed area.
b)
The government seizes all private property without compensation.
c)
Developers buy all land at a low price and evict all previous residents.
d)
Properties are left exactly as they are, but taxes are lowered.
e)
The area is converted entirely into a public park with no private ownership.
68.
The national policy of "Industrial Dispersal" is often referred to as "Concentrated Decentralization." What is the main rationale behind this strategy?
a)
To decongest Metro Manila and redistribute industrial opportunities to other regions.
b)
To concentrate all manufacturing activities solely within the National Capital Region.
c)
To shut down all industries in the Philippines and focus on agriculture.
d)
To allow industries to build anywhere they want without zoning restrictions.
e)
To prioritize the development of residential subdivisions over industrial estates.
69.
Under the Special Economic Zone Act (R.A. 7916), which fiscal incentive is commonly offered to attract locators and investors?
a)
A 5% tax on Gross Income Earned (GIE) in lieu of all local and national taxes.
b)
A complete tax exemption for the first 50 years of operation.
c)
Free distribution of land titles to foreign corporations.
d)
Exemption from complying with national labor laws.
e)
A guaranteed government subsidy for all operational costs.
70.
Albert Hirschman’s "Core-Periphery Model" serves as the theoretical basis for which planning strategy intended to strengthen the flow of goods and opportunities from urban centers to rural hinterlands?
a)
Integrated Area Development (IAD)
b)
City Beautiful Movement
c)
Garden City Movement
d)
Radiant City Concept
e)
Urban Sprawl Strategy
71.
What was the major shift in planning approach when transitioning from "Integrated Rural Development" (IRD) in the 1960s to "Integrated Area Development" (IAD) in the 1970s-80s?
a)
From "Growth at All Costs" to "Growth with Equity and Redistribution" focusing on lagging regions.
b)
From agricultural focus to a purely digital economy focus.
c)
From government-led planning to complete anarchy.
d)
From regional planning to barangay-level isolationism.
e)
From focusing on poverty reduction to focusing exclusively on corporate profits.
72.
Which historic city in Manila was the subject of a specific revitalization program under Presidential Decree 1616?
a)
Intramuros
b)
Ugbo
c)
Capitolyo
d)
Ortigas Center
e)
Rockwell Center
73.
"CALABARZON" (Cavite-Laguna-Batangas-Rizal-Quezon) is the most famous example of which spatial planning strategy?
a)
Growth Corridor
b)
Isolated Island
c)
Underground City
d)
Concentric Ring
e)
Protected Forest Reserve
74.
What does the acronym "PEZA" stand for?
a)
Philippine Economic Zone Authority
b)
Public Energy Zoning Administration
c)
Private Estate Zoning Agency
d)
Philippine Environmental Zone Association
e)
People's Economic Zoning Area
75.
Which street was historically known as the "Queen of Manila Streets" and is now a site for heritage-driven revitalization and creative hubs?
a)
Escolta
b)
EDSA
c)
Roxas Boulevard
d)
Ayala Avenue
e)
Katipunan Avenue
76.
In the context of rural development, what does the acronym "CAIDS" stand for?
a)
Countryside Agro-Industrial Development Strategy
b)
City Area Infrastructure Design System
c)
Central Authority for Internal Defense Security
d)
Coastal Area Integrated Development Scheme
e)
Commercial And Industrial Development Sector
77.
An "Export Processing Zone" (EPZ) is distinct from a standard industrial estate because it is:
a)
Oriented primarily toward producing goods for foreign markets and is outside the standard customs territory.
b)
Dedicated exclusively to processing agricultural food products for local consumption.
c)
Managed solely by the local barangay government rather than a national agency.
d)
Open only to retail businesses and shopping malls.
e)
Located strictly within the National Capital Region (NCR).
78.
A "Regional Industrial Center" (RIC) is best defined as:
a)
A designated hub in each region provided with full infrastructure to serve as a base for industrialization.
b)
A small-scale livelihood center for village-based weaving and crafts.
c)
A commercial shopping district located in a provincial capital.
d)
A protected area reserved strictly for environmental conservation.
e)
A government office complex for regional directors.
79.
Le Corbusier is the proponent of which theory that advocated for increasing urban density through high-rise "one-mile city" developments?
a)
The Radiant City
b)
The Garden City
c)
The Linear City
d)
The City Social
e)
The Broadacre City
80.
What major urban phenomenon occurred in the post-World War II era, driven by extensive freeway networks, zoning, and the baby boom?
a)
Suburbanization
b)
Gentrification
c)
De-industrialization
d)
Urban Renewal
e)
Rural migration
81.
The "Neighborhood Unit Concept" primarily aimed to ensure privacy and safety by designing residential communities around which central institution?
a)
Elementary School
b)
Shopping Mall
c)
Police Station
d)
Factory
e)
Town Hall
82.
Which recent theoretical framework highlights the overlapping systems of oppression (such as race, gender, and class) that individuals might experience in an urban setting?
a)
Intersectionality
b)
Modernism
c)
Incrementalism
d)
Regionalism
e)
Functionalism
83.
How is the "Progressive Model of Planning," exemplified by Haussmann’s renovation of Paris, characterized in the text?
a)
As a struggle to deal with challenges of the Industrial Revolution through scientific and engineering-based knowledge
b)
As a bottom-up approach focused entirely on community participation
c)
As a movement that rejected all forms of technology in favor of agrarian living
d)
As a purely aesthetic movement concerned only with statues and monuments
e)
As a religious movement aimed at building cathedral cities
84.
Which of the following is noted as a significant limitation of the "City Beautiful" movement?
a)
It offered cosmetic proposals that ignored the reality of a class-ridden society
b)
It focused too heavily on the technical aspects of sewage and sanitation
c)
It resulted in extreme overcrowding due to high-density zoning
d)
It strictly prohibited the construction of government buildings
e)
It was too focused on rural development and ignored the city center
85.
"Incrementalism" emerged as a planning theory primarily to address the shortcomings of which previous model?
a)
Rational Planning, which failed to adapt to consistently changing needs
b)
Advocacy Planning, which was too focused on the poor
c)
The Garden City, which was too spread out
d)
Neoliberalism, which was too market-driven
e)
Queer Theory, which was too specific
86.
What was a major negative consequence of the "Regional Planning" approach that introduced highways and greenbelts?
a)
It generated an automobile-dependent society and required huge investments
b)
It caused the complete collapse of the agricultural sector
c)
It resulted in cities having no access to nature
d)
It prevented the development of any new towns
e)
It forced all industries to move back into the city center
87.
"Human Ecology" is described as a "laissez-faire" approach. What is the primary critique of this theory?
a)
It explained normative barriers to a just social structure but did the least to practically develop a just society
b)
It aggressively intervened in the market to redistribute wealth to the poor
c)
It rejected the concept of a Central Business District (CBD) entirely
d)
It forced people to live in nature against their will
e)
It was too focused on environmental activism and ignored economic reality
88.
Which term describes the design approach that ensures cities have places for all genders and aims to abolish patriarchy?
a)
Gender Mainstreaming
b)
Social Engineering
c)
Masculine Urbanism
d)
Patriarchal Zoning
e)
Gender Neutrality
89.
"Incremantalism" is a planning theory that encourages taking what kind of steps to meet an end goal?
a)
Consistent baby steps
b)
Massive revolutionary leaps
c)
Random uncoordinated actions
d)
Strictly calculated large-scale phases
e)
No action at all
90.
Which theory emerged in the late 20th century, aspiring for connected networks of cities with transit-oriented development and pedestrian-friendly neighborhoods?
a)
New Urbanism
b)
Old Urbanism
c)
Modernism
d)
Brutalism
e)
Industrialism
91.
Which term refers to the large-scale complex projects introduced in urban planning that promise diverse benefits but often have hidden costs?
a)
Megaprojects
b)
Micro-interventions
c)
Pocket Parks
d)
Macrosupport Facilities
e)
Macroinfrastructure
92.
"Participatory Planning" offers a "ladder" of citizen participation levels. What is the highest aspiration of this ladder according to the text?
a)
Citizen Control
b)
Manipulation
c)
Consultation
d)
Informing
e)
Placation
93.
According to the Local Government Code, who shares the responsibility with the national government for the management and maintenance of ecological balance?
a)
Local Government Units (LGUs)
b)
Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs)
c)
Private Corporations
d)
International Agencies
e)
The Academe
94.
The Local Government Code mandates LGUs to prepare comprehensive land use plans. Which body enacts these plans through a zoning ordinance?
a)
Sangguniang Bayan or Sangguniang Panlungsod
b)
Local Development Council
c)
Provincial Land Use Committee
d)
Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
e)
Office of the Mayor
95.
What is the primary purpose of the "Local Development Council" (LDC) as mandated by the Local Government Code?
a)
To formulate long-term, medium-term, and annual socio-economic development plans and policies
b)
To serve as a court for local disputes
c)
To collect taxes from local businesses
d)
To enforce traffic laws within the municipality
e)
To approve building permits for residential houses
96.
RA 7160 devolved the delivery of basic services to LGUs. Which of the following is a devolved function mentioned in the context of health services?
a)
Management of Barangay Health Centers
b)
Management of Tertiary Hospitals in Metro Manila
c)
Licensing of medical professionals
d)
Regulation of pharmaceutical companies
e)
Approval of new vaccines
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