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AREA-B MOCKUP EXAM - SEMIFINAL

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Part 01 – Utilities and about Water Source, Supply & Distribution. 1. Which of the following is a primary source of freshwater?

a)

ocean

b)

lake

c)

lagoon

d)

estuary

2.

Which process removes salt from seawater?

a)

distillation

b)

desalination

c)

dehumidification

d)

demineralization

3.

Water distribution systems typically rely on:

a)

gravity and pumps

b)

pressure and fans

c)

turbines and ducts

d)

heat and valves

4.

Which design strategy helps reduce stormwater runoff?

a)

impermeable pavement

b)

green roof

c)

concrete slab

d)

asphalt driveway

5.

Which system allows reuse of water from sinks and showers for irrigation?

a)

blackwater recycling

b)

greywater system

c)

stormwater runoff

d)

septic tank

6.

What does “roughing-in” refer to in plumbing installation?

a)

installing fixtures

b)

connecting water supply

c)

laying out pipes before finishing

d)

sealing joints

7.

Which pipe is typically used for cold water supply in residential plumbing?

a)

cpvc

b)

pvc

c)

abs

d)

pex

8.

Part 02 – Utilities and about Plumbing, Roughing-in & Fixtures. 8. Which fixture requires both a supply and a waste connection?

a)

faucet

b)

showerhead

c)

toilet

d)

hose bibb

9.

Which material is commonly used for vent piping?

a)

copper

b)

pvc

c)

galvanized steel

d)

cast iron

10.

Part 02 – Utilities and about Plumbing, Roughing-in & Fixtures. 10. Which fixture is most likely to use a pop-up drain assembly?

a)

toilet

b)

lavatory sink

c)

shower

d)

bidet

11.

Which pipe carries waste vertically from upper floors?

a)

branch drain

b)

vent stack

c)

soil stack

d)

trap arm

12.

Which disposal method is most suitable for organic kitchen waste?

a)

landfill

b)

composting

c)

incineration

d)

recycling

13.

Which of the following is used to treat wastewater before discharge?

4 lines
14.

Which pipe fitting connects two pipes of different diameters?

a)

elbow

b)

tee

c)

reducer

d)

union

15.

Which waste type is typically handled by stormwater systems?

a)

greywater

b)

blackwater

c)

rainwater runoff

d)

kitchen waste

16.

Which HVAC component is responsible for removing heat from indoor air?

a)

evaporator

b)

condenser

c)

compressor

d)

diffuser

17.

Which of the following is a passive cooling strategy in architecture?

a)

mechanical ventilation

b)

thermal insulation

c)

cross ventilation

d)

heat pump

18.

Which HVAC system uses refrigerant to transfer heat directly between indoor and outdoor units?

a)

chilled water system

b)

split-type system

c)

boiler system

d)

ducted fan system

19.

Which component controls temperature by regulating HVAC operation?

a)

diffuser

b)

thermostat

c)

humidifier

d)

register

20.

Which HVAC system is most energy-efficient for mild climates?

a)

boiler

b)

chiller

c)

furnace

d)

heat pump

21.

Which conveyor system is best for enclosed dust-free transport?

a)

belt conveyor

b)

chain conveyor

c)

roller conveyor

d)

pneumatic conveyor

22.

Which conveyor type uses a helical screw to move materials?

a)

chain conveyor

b)

screw conveyor

c)

roller conveyor

d)

belt conveyor

23.

Which mechanical equipment is used to lift people between floors?

a)

hoist

b)

elevator

c)

escalator

d)

conveyor

24.

Which of the following is NOT a type of mechanical transmission?

a)

belt drive

b)

gear drive

c)

hydraulic lift

d)

chain drive

25.

Which standard typically governs safety and design of industrial conveyors?

a)

ISO 9001

b)

ANSI B20.1

c)

NFPA 101

d)

ASHRAE 62.1

26.

Which of the following is true about emergency power systems under PEC?

a)

they must activate within 10 minutes of power loss

b)

they must supply only lighting loads

c)

they must be independent of the normal power source

d)

they can share wiring with normal circuits

27.

In PEC, which load must be connected to the emergency power source in high-rise buildings?

a)

air conditioning

b)

elevators

c)

parking lights

d)

water heaters

28.

Under PEC, what is the minimum clearance required between overhead service-drop conductors and the ground over residential driveways?

a)

2.5 meters

b)

3.0 meters

c)

3.7 meters

d)

4.5 meters

29.

Which type of transformer connection is most commonly used for three-phase distribution in commercial buildings?

a)

delta-delta

b)

wye-wye

c)

delta-wye

d)

open delta

30.

Which device is mandatory for protection against electrical faults in wet areas?

a)

circuit breaker

b)

surge protector

c)

fuse

d)

GFCI

31.

Which of the following fixtures is best suited for accent lighting in galleries?

a)

recessed downlight

b)

track light

c)

troffer

d)

pendant lamp

32.

Which light source offers the highest efficacy (lumens per watt)?

a)

Incandescent

b)

Halogen

c)

Compact fluorescent

d)

LED

33.

Which lighting technology is most sensitive to frequent switching on and off?

a)

LED

b)

Fluorescent

c)

Incandescent

d)

Halogen

34.

Which fixture is best for minimizing shadows in workspaces?

a)

single-point pendant

b)

linear LED strip

c)

wall-mounted sconce

d)

chandelier

35.

Which of the following is not considered a power fixture in building electrical systems?

a)

panelboard

b)

switchgear

c)

conduit

d)

circuit breaker

36.

Which device converts digital signals into analog for transmission over telephone lines?

a)

Router

b)

Modem

c)

Switch

d)

Access point

37.

Which of the following must be coordinated early between architect and ICT designer?

a)

fixture wattage

b)

conduit routing

c)

switchgear location

d)

ceiling paint color

38.

Which architectural element can negatively impact Wi-Fi signal distribution?

a)

gypsum partition

b)

glass wall

c)

concrete core

d)

acoustic ceiling

39.

Which of the following is not typically shown in an architect’s reflected ceiling plan (RCP)?

a)

data outlet

b)

access point

c)

lighting fixture

d)

sprinkler head

40.

Which of the following is not a recommended practice for cable management?

a)

bundling power and data cables together

b)

using cable trays

c)

labeling terminations

d)

maintaining bend radius

41.

Which of the following best describes sound reflection in a room with hard, parallel surfaces?

a)

diffusion

b)

absorption

c)

flutter echo

d)

transmission

42.

Which room shape is most prone to acoustic focusing and uneven sound distribution?

a)

rectangular

b)

circular

c)

trapezoidal

d)

fan-shaped

43.

Which material has the highest sound absorption coefficient at mid frequencies?

a)

gypsum board

b)

acoustic foam

c)

glass

d)

concrete

44.

Which room shape generally provides the most uniform sound distribution for performance spaces?

a)

rectangular

b)

L-shaped

c)

circular

d)

fan-shaped

45.

Which design element contributes most to acoustic comfort in restaurants?

a)

high ceilings

b)

hard flooring

c)

upholstered seating

d)

glass partitions

46.

Which structural system is most suitable for long-span gymnasiums in provincial LGU projects?

a)

flat plate

b)

space frame

c)

load-bearing wall

d)

shear wall system

47.

Which material has the highest modulus of elasticity?

a)

reinforced concrete

b)

structural steel

c)

CHB masonry

d)

timber

48.

Which of the following is considered a dead load?

a)

occupants

b)

furniture

c)

roofing sheets

d)

snow

49.

Which structural member primarily resists bending moments?

a)

column

b)

beam

c)

slab

d)

footing

50.

Which occupancy type requires the highest importance factor in NSCP 2015?

a)

residential

b)

commercial

c)

educational

d)

essential facilities

51.

Which soil type typically has the lowest bearing capacity?

a)

gravel

b)

clay

c)

sand

d)

silt

52.

What is the primary purpose of a soil boring test in foundation design?

a)

to locate underground utilities

b)

to determine soil color

c)

to assess soil strength and profile

d)

to measure water table fluctuation

53.

Which test determines the liquid and plastic limits of soil?

a)

sieve analysis

b)

Atterberg limits test

c)

compaction test

d)

triaxial shear test

54.

What is the primary function of a tie beam in foundation systems?

a)

resist vertical loads

b)

prevent differential settlement

c)

support slab loads

d)

increase bearing capacity

55.

Which foundation type is most economical for low-rise residential buildings on firm soil?

a)

pile foundation

b)

raft foundation

c)

isolated footing

d)

mat foundation

56.

What is the primary load resisted by columns in a building frame?

a)

bending moment

b)

axial compression

c)

shear force

d)

torsion

57.

Which failure mode is most critical in slender columns?

a)

crushing

b)

buckling

c)

yielding

d)

shear failure

58.

What is the minimum bar diameter for column ties in reinforced concrete columns?

a)

6 mm

b)

10 mm

c)

12 mm

d)

16 mm

59.

What is the purpose of spiral reinforcement in columns?

a)

increase axial load capacity

b)

resist torsion

c)

improve ductility and confinement

d)

reduce shear stress

60.

Which beam type is most efficient for spanning long distances?

a)

cantilever beam

b)

simply supported beam

c)

continuous beam

d)

overhanging beam

61.

What is the primary structural function of a beam?

a)

resist axial compression

b)

transfer lateral loads

c)

resist bending from vertical loads

d)

support columns

62.

What is the minimum concrete cover for beam reinforcement exposed to weather per NSCP 2015?

a)

20 mm

b)

25 mm

c)

40 mm

d)

50 mm

63.

What is the typical reinforcement layout for a one-way slab?

a)

bars in both directions equally

b)

bars only along short span

c)

bars along long span

d)

bars perpendicular to supports

64.

Which slab system is most economical for small residential buildings?

a)

flat slab

b)

one-way slab

c)

waffle slab

d)

ribbed slab

65.

Which load is most critical in designing roof slabs in tropical climates?

a)

snow load

b)

seismic load

c)

wind load

d)

live load

66.

What is the primary function of purlins in roof framing?

a)

resist lateral loads

b)

support roofing sheets

c)

transfer vertical loads to columns

d)

act as bracing members

67.

Which roof framing system is most vulnerable to lateral wind loads?

a)

hip roof

b)

gable roof

c)

butterfly roof

d)

dome roof

68.

Which material is most commonly used for roof trusses in commercial buildings in the Philippines?

a)

hardwood

b)

aluminum

c)

structural steel

d)

reinforced concrete

69.

Which connection type is preferred for steel truss joints?

a)

welded

b)

bolted

c)

nailed

d)

riveted

70.

Which support system is most vulnerable to uplift during typhoons?

a)

bolted steel truss

b)

nailed wooden rafter

c)

welded steel frame

d)

reinforced concrete beam

71.

What is the minimum fire-resistance rating for interior partitions separating dwelling units?

a)

1 hour

b)

2 hours

c)

3 hours

d)

4 hours

72.

Which wall failure mode is caused by inadequate lateral support at the top?

a)

buckling

b)

sliding

c)

cracking

d)

tilting

73.

What is the minimum reinforcement spacing for vertical bars in CHB walls per NSCP 2015?

a)

400 mm

b)

600 mm

c)

800 mm

d)

1000 mm

74.

Which wall type is non-structural and used only for space division?

a)

shear wall

b)

load-bearing wall

c)

partition wall

d)

retaining wall

75.

What is the effect of increasing wall height without increasing thickness or reinforcement?

a)

improves ductility

b)

reduces lateral stiffness

c)

increases load capacity

d)

enhances thermal resistance

76.

What is the primary function of structural connectors in buildings?

a)

resist gravity loads

b)

transfer loads between members

c)

increase fire resistance

d)

reduce seismic drift

77.

Which welding type is commonly used for steel beam-column connections?

a)

spot weld

b)

fillet weld

c)

plug weld

d)

tack weld

78.

Which connector is used to transfer shear between slab and beam?

a)

anchor bolt

b)

shear key

c)

dowel bar

d)

tie rod

79.

Which connector type is most suitable for timber-to-concrete connections?

a)

lag screw

b)

epoxy resin

c)

expansion bolt

d)

nail plate

80.

What is the role of tie rods in roof trusses?

a)

resist vertical loads

b)

prevent lateral buckling

c)

connect purlins

d)

resist horizontal thrust

81.

The primary advantage of steel over concrete in structural design is:

a)

higher strength-to-weight ratio

b)

lower cost

c)

greater availability

d)

better thermal insulation

82.

Which weld type is commonly used in beam-to-column flange connections?

a)

fillet weld

b)

groove weld

c)

plug weld

d)

tack weld

83.

What is the primary role of gusset plates in steel bracing systems?

a)

resist vertical loads

b)

connect slabs to beams

c)

transfer axial forces

d)

reduce deflection

84.

What is the minimum fire-resistance rating for steel columns in Type IV construction per PD 1096?

a)

1 hour

b)

2 hours

c)

3 hours

d)

4 hours

85.

Which steel member requires fireproofing in high-rise buildings per PD 1096?

a)

roof purlin

b)

girder

c)

tie rod

d)

fascia

86.

Which component of concrete primarily governs its compressive strength?

a)

fine aggregate

b)

water

c)

cement

d)

coarse aggregate

87.

Which admixture improves concrete workability without increasing water content?

a)

air-entrainer

b)

superplasticizer

c)

accelerator

d)

retarder

88.

What is the minimum curing period for structural concrete per NSCP 2015?

a)

3 days

b)

7 days

c)

14 days

d)

28 days

89.

What is the minimum concrete cover for main reinforcement in footings in contact with soil?

a)

25 mm

b)

40 mm

c)

50 mm

d)

75 mm

90.

Which test determines the workability of fresh concrete?

a)

compressive test

b)

slump test

c)

rebound hammer test

d)

ultrasonic pulse test

91.

Which soil type requires the most extensive compaction before foundation work?

a)

gravel

b)

clay

c)

sand

d)

silt

92.

What is the recommended minimum width for construction access roads per DPWH standards?

a)

2.0 m

b)

3.0 m

c)

3.5 m

d)

4.0 m

93.

Which equipment is most suitable for compacting granular soil in site preparation?

a)

plate compactor

b)

pneumatic tamper

c)

vibratory roller

d)

backhoe

94.

What is the primary purpose of silt fences during site development?

a)

prevent erosion

b)

control dust

c)

mark property lines

d)

support excavation walls

95.

Which document must be secured before any site clearing or grading in the Philippines?

a)

occupancy permit

b)

zoning clearance

c)

environmental compliance certificate

d)

building permit

96.

Which joint is most commonly used for connecting door jambs to wall framing?

a)

dovetail joint

b)

mortise and tenon

c)

butt joint

d)

lap joint

97.

What is the standard thickness of flush doors used in residential interiors?

a)

25 mm

b)

30 mm

c)

35 mm

d)

45 mm

98.

What is the recommended nail size for securing 2” × 4” studs in wall framing?

a)

1"

b)

2"

c)

3"

d)

4"

99.

Part 20 – Building Materials & Technology and about Carpentry & Joinery, Hardware. Which fastener is preferred for attaching plywood to metal studs?

a)

common nail

b)

wood screw

c)

self-tapping screw

d)

lag bolt

100.

Part 20 – Building Materials & Technology and about Carpentry & Joinery, Hardware. Which tool is used to check squareness in carpentry work?

a)

spirit level

b)

plumb bob

c)

try square

d)

caliper