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NUR 216 Exam 3 Study Guide: Cardiac and Peripheral Vascular

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What heart sounds are referred to as 'Lub' and 'Dub' in the cardiac cycle?

a)

S1 and S2

b)

S2 and S3

c)

S3 and S4

d)

S1 and S3

2.

Which valves close to produce the 'Lub' (S1) sound?

a)

A) Aortic and pulmonic valves

b)

B) Mitral and tricuspid valves

c)

C) Tricuspid and pulmonic valves

d)

D) Mitral and aortic valves

3.

The 'Dub' (S2) sound is best heard at the ________.

a)

base

b)

apex

c)

left sternal border

d)

mitral area

4.

What is the correct order of the electrical conduction pathway in the heart?

a)

AV node → SA node → bundle of His → bundle branches → Purkinje fibers

b)

SA node → AV node → bundle of His → bundle branches → Purkinje fibers

c)

Bundle of His → SA node → AV node → Purkinje fibers

d)

AV node → bundle branches → SA node → Purkinje fibers

5.

The SA node is known as the ________ of the heart.

a)

pacemaker

b)

valve

c)

artery

d)

ventricle

6.

Where is the aortic landmark of the precordium located?

a)

2nd intercostal space, right sternal border

b)

2nd intercostal space, left sternal border

c)

3rd intercostal space, left sternal border

d)

4th intercostal space, left sternal border

7.

The direction of blood flow through the heart starting from when deoxygenated blood returns to the heart is:

a)

Right atrium → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta

b)

Left atrium → Left ventricle → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Aorta

c)

Right ventricle → Right atrium → Pulmonary vein → Lungs → Left ventricle → Left atrium → Aorta

d)

Right atrium → Left atrium → Right ventricle → Left ventricle → Aorta → Lungs

8.

Family history concerning hypertension, heart attack, or stroke is important in health history assessment.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What instrument is needed for a general cardiac physical assessment?

a)

Bell and diaphragm

b)

Otoscope

c)

Thermometer

d)

Reflex hammer

10.

What is the normal range for heart rate?

a)

60-100 BPM

b)

30-50 BPM

c)

100-140 BPM

d)

120-160 BPM

11.

A heart rate less than 50 BPM is called ________.

a)

bradycardia

b)

tachycardia

c)

arrhythmia

d)

hypertension

12.

A heart rate greater than 100 BPM is called ________.

a)

tachycardia

b)

bradycardia

c)

arrhythmia

d)

asystole

13.

What is a sign of hypoxemia (low levels of oxygen in the bloodstream)?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Fever

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypertension

e)

Jaundice

14.

How should jugular vein distention be assessed?

a)

In semi-fowler’s or sitting up at ≥ 90°

b)

Lying completely flat

c)

Standing on tiptoes

d)

While performing Valsalva maneuver

15.

What is considered an abnormal finding when inspecting for heaves/lifts during a physical examination?

a)

Visible outward thrust of precordium

b)

Symmetrical chest movement with respiration

c)

Absence of visible chest movement

d)

Normal heart sounds on auscultation

16.

When palpating landmarks before auscultating, what should you feel with your finger pads?

a)

Pulsation

b)

Warmth

c)

Crepitus

d)

Tenderness

17.

True or False: A thrill (pulsation palpable with palmar surface of hand) is a normal finding during palpation.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy to pick up on possible murmurs during auscultation?

a)

Auscultate all 5 landmarks for several seconds with diaphragm and bell

b)

Listen over patient’s gown

c)

Have patient sit forward and hold their breath

d)

Do not auscultate while patient is prone or right lateral recumbent

19.

List one symptom of possible exacerbation of congestive heart failure that requires follow-up with a provider.

a)

Excessive weight gain despite poor PO intake, increased fatigue or difficulty tolerating exercise, difficulty sleeping (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea)

b)

Mild headache after exercise

c)

Temporary muscle soreness after physical activity

d)

Slight increase in appetite with no other symptoms

20.

Left-sided heart failure is primarily associated with which type of problems?

a)

Lung/pulmonary problems

b)

Liver problems

c)

Renal/kidney problems

d)

Gastrointestinal problems

21.

Right-sided heart failure may cause which of the following?

a)

Cyanosis/hypoxemia

b)

Peripheral edema/weight gain

c)

Pulmonary problems

d)

Increased fatigue

22.

What is the normal finding for pulses during a peripheral vascular assessment?

a)

+2, regular rhythm, equal bilaterally

b)

+4, irregular rhythm, unequal bilaterally

c)

0, absent pulse, unequal bilaterally

d)

+1, weak and thready, irregular rhythm

23.

Raynaud’s phenomenon causes which color changes in the extremities?

a)

Red, white, and blue

b)

Green, yellow, and orange

c)

Purple, pink, and brown

d)

Black, grey, and yellow

24.

What are the abnormal findings for pulse strength?

a)

0 (absent), +1 (weak), +3 or +4 (bounding)

b)

0 (normal), +2 (strong), +3 (regular)

c)

+1 (strong), +2 (bounding), +4 (absent)

d)

+2 (weak), +3 (normal), +4 (strong)

25.

A weak or absent pulse may indicate arterial insufficiency.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

If you cannot palpate a peripheral pulse, what should you use?

a)

Use a doppler

b)

Apply a tourniquet

c)

Start chest compressions

d)

Give oxygen

27.

If any pulse is irregular, what should you assess for?

a)

Pulse deficit

b)

Blood glucose level

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Body temperature

28.

Where is the carotid pulse located?

a)

Neck between sternocleidomastoid muscle & trachea

b)

Wrist near the base of the thumb

c)

Behind the knee joint

d)

On the top of the foot

29.

What is the normal capillary refill time?

a)

Less than 2 seconds

b)

Less than 5 seconds

c)

Less than 10 seconds

d)

Less than 1 second

30.

Capillary refill greater than 2 seconds may indicate which of the following?

a)

Increased perfusion

b)

Decreased perfusion

c)

Normal circulation

d)

High blood pressure

31.

Pitting edema: What depth does 3+ pitting edema correspond to?

a)

6mm

b)

2mm

c)

4mm

d)

8mm

32.

What are the main functions of the lymphatic system?

a)

Eliminate waste/pathogens, regulate fluid & protein balance

b)

Produce red blood cells and platelets

c)

Control voluntary muscle movements

d)

Regulate body temperature

33.

Which of the following is NOT a structure of the lymphatic system?

a)

Spleen

b)

Thymus

c)

Kidney

d)

Tonsils

34.

What is the function of the cerebellum?

a)

Balance, motor coordination

b)

Vision processing

c)

Regulation of heart rate

d)

Production of hormones

35.

Which lobe of the brain is responsible for integrating sensory information?

a)

Temporal

b)

Parietal

c)

Occipital

d)

Frontal

36.

Sensory functions include which of the following?

a)

Seeing

b)

Hearing

c)

Smelling

d)

Movement

37.

Motor functions are responsible for: strength, ROM, gait, etc.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Mental status is ALWAYS a priority neuro assessment, as it is often an early sign that something is wrong in the elderly.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What is a key symptom of stroke that should be assessed immediately?

a)

Bilateral muscle weakness

b)

SUDDEN, UNILATERAL muscle weakness

c)

Gradual memory loss

d)

Persistent headache

40.

If a patient has any kind of unequal strength or movement on one side of the body/face compared to the other, what should you do?

a)

Perform a complete neuro exam

b)

Ignore the symptoms and monitor later

c)

Advise the patient to rest at home

d)

Prescribe painkillers only

41.

Contralateral deficits mean that a stroke in the right brain leads to ______-sided weakness.

a)

left

b)

right

c)

upper

d)

lower

42.

Decorticate posturing is characterized by elbows ______ and shoulders ______ rotated.

a)

flexed, internally

b)

extended, externally

c)

flexed, externally

d)

extended, internally

43.

To assess the Romberg test, the patient should stand with one arm in front and one arm behind them, and their eyes should be ______.

a)

closed

b)

open

c)

covered with a cloth

d)

looking at the ceiling

44.

If a patient maintains balance during the Romberg test without swaying or stepping, the result is considered ______.

a)

normal

b)

abnormal

c)

positive

d)

inconclusive

45.

Swaying, stepping, or moving arms to maintain balance during the Romberg test may indicate dysfunction of the ______.

a)

cerebellum

b)

frontal lobe

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

occipital lobe

46.

The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess:

a)

mild, moderate, or severe brain injury

b)

lung function in asthma patients

c)

blood sugar levels in diabetics

d)

kidney function in renal failure

47.

What are the steps in the general assessment sequence for musculoskeletal evaluation?

a)

Inspection, palpation, assess ROM, assess strength

b)

Palpation, inspection, assess strength, assess ROM

c)

Assess strength, inspection, palpation, assess ROM

d)

Assess ROM, palpation, inspection, assess strength

48.

Persistent pain or swelling after injury requires ______ follow-up because it may indicate a fracture and the need to immobilize the extremity ASAP.

a)

urgent

b)

routine

c)

delayed

d)

annual

49.

What is the effect of aging on strength/muscle mass and its associated risk?

a)

Strength/muscle mass decreases with age, increasing the risk for falls.

b)

Strength/muscle mass increases with age, reducing the risk for falls.

c)

Strength/muscle mass remains unchanged with age, having no effect on fall risk.

d)

Aging only affects bone density, not strength/muscle mass or fall risk.

50.

If a patient runs out of NSAIDs like ibuprofen for chronic musculoskeletal pain, what should you expect?

a)

Expect them to have pain/stiffness.

b)

Expect their pain to improve spontaneously.

c)

Expect them to develop a fever.

d)

Expect them to have no change in symptoms.

51.

Flexion is defined as:

a)

Bending

b)

Straightening

c)

Moving away from midline

d)

Moving toward midline

52.

Extension is defined as:

a)

Bending

b)

Straightening

c)

Moving away from midline

d)

Moving toward midline

53.

Abduction refers to:

a)

Moving away from midline

b)

Moving toward midline

c)

Flexing foot

d)

Pointing ankle down

54.

Adduction refers to:

a)

Moving away from midline

b)

Moving toward midline

c)

Flexing foot

d)

Pointing ankle down

55.

Dorsiflexion of the ankle/foot means:

a)

Flexing foot to point toes up toward ceiling

b)

Pointing ankle down

c)

Moving away from midline

d)

Flexing elbow

56.

Plantar flexion of the ankle/foot means:

a)

Flexing foot to point toes up toward ceiling

b)

Pointing ankle down

c)

Moving away from midline

d)

Flexing elbow

57.

What is the strength grade for: Unable to contract muscle (without gravity)?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

58.

What is the strength grade for: Able to contract muscle slightly?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

59.

What is the strength grade for: Able to move joint without gravity?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

60.

What is the strength grade for: Able to move joint against gravity?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

61.

What is the strength grade for: Able to move joint with full ROM against gravity with some resistance?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

62.

What is the strength grade for: Able to move joint with full ROM against gravity with full resistance?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

2

d)

4

63.

What are the '5 P's' of neurovascular assessments following an injury?

a)

Pain, paralysis, paresthesia, pallor, pulselessness

b)

Pain, pressure, perspiration, pallor, pulse

c)

Pain, paralysis, perspiration, pallor, pulse

d)

Pain, paralysis, paresthesia, pallor, perspiration

64.

What is a priority symptom that may indicate nerve damage from an injury?

a)

Weak pulses

b)

Paresthesia (numbness/tingling)

c)

Warm extremity

d)

Swelling

65.

Fill in the blank: Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased ________ density.

a)

bone

b)

muscle

c)

nerve

d)

blood

66.

Which of the following is NOT a reason why it is important to prevent falls in patients with osteoporosis?

a)

A) Increased risk of fracture

b)

B) Increased bone density

c)

C) Decreased bone density

d)

D) Height loss

67.

Calcium and vitamin D are important for bone growth because ________ is necessary for our bodies to absorb calcium.

a)

vitamin D

b)

iron

c)

potassium

d)

vitamin C

68.

Which spinal deformity is described as a 'hunchback' appearance and is commonly seen in older adults?

a)

Scoliosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Kyphosis

d)

Osteoporosis

69.

Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is shaped like which letters?

a)

A) A and B

b)

B) C and S

c)

C) D and E

d)

D) F and G

70.

Fill in the blank: Lordosis is an increased curvature of the ________ spine.

a)

lumbar

b)

cervical

c)

thoracic

d)

sacral

71.

Which type of arthritis is known as 'wear and tear' arthritis?

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Kyphosis

d)

Scoliosis

72.

Bouchard's nodes are found in which joints?

a)

Distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs)

b)

Proximal interphalangeal joints (PIPs)

c)

Metacarpophalangeal joints

d)

Carpometacarpal joints

73.

Bouchard's nodes can be seen in both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis.

a)

True

b)

False

74.
Which part of the heart is this?
a)
Aorta
b)
Right Ventricle
c)
Left Atrium
d)
Left Ventricle
75.
What is the name of the part labelled 3?
a)
Right Atrium
b)
Left Atrium
c)
Right Ventricle
d)
Left Ventricle
76.
Name of the valve that separates left atrium from left ventricle.
a)
mitral valve
b)
tricuspid
c)
pulmonary valve
77.
Which part of the heart is this?
a)
Pulmonary Vein
b)
Pulmonary Artery
c)
Right Atrium
d)
Tricuspid Valve
78.
Arteries carry blood ______ from the heart.
a)
Away
b)
To
c)
Across
d)
Around
79.
During the Cardiac Cycle, Ventricular systole is when what happens?
a)
The Left Ventricle contracts
b)
When the Right Ventricle contracts
c)
When the Atria contract
d)
When both Ventricles contract
80.

The long fibers of connective tissue that attach to papillary muscles of the heart that enable the valves to properly open and close are called:

a)

Chordae tendinae

b)

Cardiac tendons

c)

Cardiac ligaments

d)

Myocardial tendinae

81.

Which heart sound is best heard at the apex of the heart?

a)

S3

b)

S1

c)

S4

d)

S2

82.

What is the primary function of the parietal lobe?

a)

Regulating heart rate

b)

Producing hormones

c)

Processing sensory information

d)

Controlling vision

83.

During a peripheral vascular assessment, which finding would be considered abnormal?

a)

+2, regular rhythm

b)

+2, strong pulse

c)

+1, weak and thready pulse

d)

Equal pulses bilaterally

84.

Which artery is commonly used to check the pulse at the wrist?

a)

Carotid artery

b)

Radial artery

c)

Brachial artery

d)

Femoral artery

85.

Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for regulating breathing and heart rate?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Frontal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

86.

What is the main function of the lymph nodes in the lymphatic system?

a)

Filter lymph and trap pathogens

b)

Store red blood cells

c)

Produce insulin

d)

Regulate blood pressure

87.

Which pulse site is commonly used to assess circulation to the lower extremities?

a)

Brachial

b)

Carotid

c)

Radial

d)

Dorsalis pedis

88.

What is a common sign of right-sided heart failure?

a)

Shortness of breath

b)

Peripheral edema

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Productive cough

89.

Which of the following best describes a bounding pulse?

a)

+1, weak and thready

b)

0, absent

c)

+4, very strong

d)

+2, regular