wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

STEMI II

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the most common clinical sign of pulmonary edema in patients with STEMI?

a)

Jugular venous distension

b)

S3 and S4 gallop sounds

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Cyanosis

2.

According to the Killip classification, what does class IV heart failure indicate in patients with STEMI?

a)

No signs of pulmonary or venous congestion

b)

Moderate heart failure with rales at the lung bases

c)

Severe heart failure with pulmonary edema

d)

Cardiogenic shock with hypotension and peripheral vasoconstriction

3.

What is the primary goal in the management of congestive heart failure (CHF) associated with STEMI?

a)

Increase afterload

b)

Avoidance of hypervolemia, diuresis, afterload reduction, and inotropic support

c)

Increase sodium intake

d)

Delay treatment until symptoms worsen

4.

Which of the following statements best describes the effect of diuretics in patients with STEMI and pulmonary congestion?

a)

They increase LV filling pressure and cardiac output

b)

They are extremely effective as they diminish pulmonary congestion in the presence of systolic and/or diastolic heart failure

c)

They should never be used due to risk of hypotension

d)

They increase systemic blood pressure

5.

A patient with STEMI develops hypotension and low vascular filling pressures. What is the most likely cause and appropriate management?

a)

Hypervolemia; administer diuretics

b)

Hypovolemia; identify and correct with fluids or medications

c)

Hypertension; administer vasodilators

d)

Hyperkalemia; administer insulin

6.

Which of the following is a key indicator of right ventricular infarction in patients with STEMI?

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Jugular venous distension and Kussmaul’s sign

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

7.

Why is it important to avoid excessive diuresis in patients with STEMI and pulmonary congestion?

a)

It can cause hyperkalemia

b)

It can lead to hypovolemia and worsen hypotension

c)

It increases afterload

d)

It causes arrhythmias

8.

What is the significance of ventricular premature beats in patients with STEMI?

a)

They always require antiarrhythmic therapy

b)

They are frequent and usually do not require therapy

c)

They indicate immediate need for defibrillation

d)

They are a sign of complete heart block

9.

Which of the following best describes the impact of modern management on the incidence of cardiogenic shock after STEMI?

a)

It has increased from 10% to 20%

b)

It has remained unchanged

c)

It has reduced from 20% to ~7%

d)

It has eliminated the risk entirely

10.

A patient with STEMI is found to have low cardiac output and high LV filling pressure. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

a)

Increase diuretic dose

b)

Administer fluids to increase preload

c)

Use vasodilators cautiously to avoid systemic hypotension

d)

Start beta-blockers immediately

11.

Which of the following is recommended to reduce the risk of ventricular fibrillation in patients with STEMI?

a)

Routine use of antiarrhythmic drugs in all patients

b)

Beta-adrenergic blocking agents in patients with STEMI

c)

High-dose magnesium in all patients

d)

Immediate use of digoxin in all patients

12.

What is the primary reason for using prophylactic antiarrhythmic drug therapy in STEMI patients?

a)

To treat existing arrhythmias

b)

To prevent the development of ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation

c)

To increase heart rate

d)

To reduce blood pressure

13.

Which electrolyte imbalances are considered risk factors for ventricular fibrillation in patients with STEMI?

a)

Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia

b)

Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia

c)

Hypernatremia and hypocalcemia

d)

Hyponatremia and hypercalcemia

14.

According to the text, what is the recommended serum potassium concentration to reduce the risk of ventricular fibrillation in STEMI?

a)

2.0–2.5 mmol/L

b)

3.0–3.5 mmol/L

c)

4.5–5.0 mmol/L

d)

6.0–6.5 mmol/L

15.

Why is the use of prophylactic lidocaine no longer recommended in STEMI patients?

a)

It increases the risk of ventricular fibrillation

b)

It causes excessive bradycardia and asystole

c)

It does not improve overall mortality and may cause additional complications

d)

It is too expensive for routine use

16.

A patient with STEMI develops sustained ventricular tachycardia. What is the initial recommended treatment?

a)

High-dose digoxin

b)

Intravenous lidocaine or amiodarone

c)

Oral beta-blockers only

d)

Immediate defibrillation without medication

17.

Which arrhythmia is most commonly associated with inferior wall infarction and may require temporary pacing?

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) block

c)

Ventricular fibrillation

d)

Atrial flutter

18.

What is the main reason for the increased risk of AV block in inferior infarction compared to anterior wall infarction?

a)

Higher levels of potassium

b)

Increased vagal tone and/or adenosine release

c)

More extensive myocardial necrosis

d)

Greater use of beta-blockers

19.

Which of the following statements about supraventricular arrhythmias in STEMI is correct?

a)

They are always treated with digoxin first

b)

They are most often due to primary electrical disease

c)

They are often secondary to another cause such as heart failure or anemia

d)

They do not require any treatment

20.

A patient with STEMI and bradycardia is unresponsive to drug therapy. What is the next recommended step?

a)

Increase the dose of beta-blockers

b)

Use noninvasive pacing electrodes in a 'demand' mode

c)

Administer high-dose lidocaine

d)

Start intravenous digoxin

21.

Which of the following is a potential complication that can occur in about 10% of patients with STEMI and is often clinically silent?

a)

Pericarditis

b)

Thromboembolism

c)

Left Ventricular Aneurysm

d)

Recurrent Chest Discomfort

22.

What is the recommended management for pericardial friction rubs or pericardial pain in patients with STEMI involving the epicardium?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Aspirin (650 mg four times daily)

c)

Nitrates

d)

Beta blockers

23.

Which diagnostic tool is most useful for detecting arterial embolism originating in the left ventricle after STEMI?

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

Two-dimensional echocardiography

c)

Cardiac MRI

d)

Coronary angiography

24.

What is the most common and easily detected complication of left ventricular aneurysm after STEMI?

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Paradoxical wall motion

c)

Ventricular arrhythmias

d)

Apical aneurysm

25.

Which of the following statements about left ventricular aneurysm is TRUE?

a)

It is usually detected by coronary angiography.

b)

It is composed of scar tissue and neither possesses nor is associated with cardiac rupture.

c)

It is most commonly associated with right ventricular infarction.

d)

It is best managed with anticoagulants.

26.

A patient with STEMI develops persistent bifascicular and transient third-degree heart block. What is the likely cause?

a)

Pericarditis

b)

Thromboembolism

c)

Recurrent chest discomfort

d)

Mechanical complication of MI

27.

Which device is recommended for patients with ischemic heart disease, LVEF ≤40%, and inducible sustained VT on EP study?

a)

WCD

b)

GDMT

c)

ICD

d)

CRT

28.

Which of the following is considered one of the most important factors influencing post-infarction risk stratification after STEMI?

a)

Depressed left ventricular ejection fraction

b)

High cholesterol levels

c)

Family history of cancer

d)

Low blood pressure

29.

What is the usual duration of hospitalization for an uncomplicated STEMI?

a)

1-2 days

b)

3-5 days

c)

7-10 days

d)

14 days

30.

Which medication is recommended for at least 2 years after STEMI to support secondary prevention?

a)

Beta-adrenergic blocker

b)

Calcium channel blocker

c)

Nitrate

d)

Digoxin

31.

Why might warfarin be prescribed to patients after STEMI?

a)

To reduce the risk of embolism in patients with atrial fibrillation

b)

To lower cholesterol levels

c)

To increase heart rate

d)

To treat hypertension

32.

A patient with a history of previous MI, age >75, and diabetes mellitus is being evaluated after STEMI. According to the text, what is the primary reason for individualized therapy in such patients?

a)

To address the relative importance of risk factors

b)

To reduce medication costs

c)

To avoid all physical activity

d)

To eliminate the need for hospitalization

33.

Which of the following is a potential risk when combining warfarin with dual antiplatelet therapy after STEMI?

a)

Increased risk of bleeding

b)

Decreased heart rate

c)

Increased cholesterol

d)

Reduced blood pressure

34.

A patient is being considered for a cardiac rehabilitation program after STEMI. What is a key component of such a program according to the text?

a)

Progressive exercise supervised by a physician

b)

Complete bed rest for 4 weeks

c)

High-intensity weight lifting only

d)

No education about the disease

35.

Which of the following statements best describes the goal of secondary prevention after STEMI?

a)

To improve long-term mortality and morbidity rates

b)

To increase the length of hospital stay

c)

To avoid all medications

d)

To prevent patients from returning to normal activity

36.

Who first introduced percutaneous transluminary coronary angioplasty (PTCA) as an alternative to coronary bypass surgery?

a)

Charles Dotter

b)

Andreas Gruentzig

c)

David P. Faxon

d)

Deepak L. Bhatt

37.

What is the main advantage of drug-eluting stents introduced in 2003 for coronary interventions?

a)

They are less expensive

b)

They release antiproliferative drugs to reduce restenosis

c)

They are easier to implant

d)

They do not require anticoagulation

38.

Which artery access sites are commonly used for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)?

a)

Femoral or carotid artery

b)

Radial or femoral artery

c)

Jugular or subclavian artery

d)

Brachial or popliteal artery

39.

What is the primary purpose of inflating a balloon during balloon angioplasty?

a)

To remove the plaque from the artery

b)

To temporarily occlude the vessel and stretch the vessel wall

c)

To deliver medication directly to the heart

d)

To measure blood pressure in the artery

40.

What is the function of the stent after balloon angioplasty?

a)

It dissolves and is absorbed by the body

b)

It acts as a scaffold to hold the vessel open

c)

It delivers electrical impulses to the heart

d)

It measures blood flow velocity

41.

Which of the following is NOT a typical antiplatelet or anticoagulant used during PCI procedures?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Clopidogrel

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Bivalirudin

42.

Why did the introduction of coronary stents in 1994 represent a major advance in PCI?

a)

They made the procedure faster

b)

They reduced acute complications and late restenosis

c)

They eliminated the need for anesthesia

d)

They allowed for non-invasive procedures

43.

Which statement best describes the main difference between balloon angioplasty and stenting?

a)

Balloon angioplasty uses medication, while stenting does not

b)

Balloon angioplasty temporarily opens the vessel, while stenting provides permanent support

c)

Stenting is only used in peripheral arteries

d)

Balloon angioplasty is always performed under general anesthesia

44.

Which of the following is a primary purpose of drug-coated balloons in coronary interventions?

a)

To prevent restenosis after stent placement

b)

To dissolve blood clots in peripheral arteries

c)

To increase the flexibility of the vessel wall

d)

To measure blood pressure within the artery

45.

What is the main advantage of rotational atherectomy in the treatment of coronary artery disease?

a)

It removes large blood clots from the vessel

b)

It is particularly useful in heavily calcified plaques that are resistant to balloon dilatation

c)

It increases the elasticity of the vessel wall

d)

It is the only method for treating restenosis

46.

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which stents prevent vessel recoil after angioplasty?

a)

By dissolving the plaque completely

b)

By holding the dissection flaps against the vessel wall

c)

By increasing blood flow velocity

d)

By reducing blood pressure in the vessel

47.

A patient is at higher risk for serious complications after PCI if they:

a)

Are under 40 years old and have no comorbidities

b)

Are over 65 years old, undergoing an emergent or urgent procedure, or have chronic kidney disease

c)

Have a history of mild hypertension only

d)

Have no history of myocardial infarction

48.

Drug-eluting stents are preferred over bare-metal stents in most cases of coronary angioplasty because:

a)

They reduce the risk of restenosis and stent thrombosis due to the release of antiproliferative drugs

b)

They are less expensive and easier to implant

c)

They are more visible on imaging studies

d)

They require no antiplatelet therapy after implantation

49.

In a 70-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease scheduled for PCI, which of the following is an important precaution to minimize the risk of complications?

a)

Use bare-metal stents to avoid drug interactions

b)

Monitor for myocardial infarction and renal function closely, and consider the use of scoring systems to estimate risk

c)

Avoid all forms of stenting and use only balloon angioplasty

d)

Increase the dose of antiplatelet therapy beyond recommended levels

50.

What is the most common complication of angioplasty and occurs in 20–50% of patients with balloon angioplasty alone?

a)

Restenosis

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Stroke

d)

Heart failure

51.

According to the text, what is the main reason for the use of longer durations of DAPT (dual antiplatelet therapy) after stent implantation?

a)

To reduce the risk of stent thrombosis

b)

To lower blood pressure

c)

To prevent arrhythmias

d)

To treat heart failure

52.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for symptomatic recurrent restenosis?

a)

Re-stenting (three layers of stent)

b)

Bypass surgery

c)

Drug-coated balloons

d)

Beta-blocker therapy

53.

What is the primary endpoint measured in the SYNTAX trial comparing PCI with drug-eluting stent to CABG in patients with three-vessel coronary disease?

a)

Death, myocardial infarction, stroke, or revascularization

b)

Blood pressure reduction

c)

Cholesterol level improvement

d)

Arrhythmia prevention

54.

Why is the risk of a second restenosis further increased after a patient has already had restenosis?

a)

Because the risk factors for restenosis remain and may be compounded

b)

Because the stent dissolves over time

c)

Because the patient is cured after the first restenosis

d)

Because the heart muscle becomes stronger

55.

What do the images labeled "Pre," "Post," "4 months," "12 months," "24 months," and "48 months" most likely represent in the context of the text?

a)

Progression of vessel patency after stent placement over time

b)

Development of heart failure

c)

Changes in blood pressure

d)

Progression of arrhythmias

56.

Which of the following is a significant risk factor for restenosis after PCI?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Asthma

c)

Hypertension only

d)

Liver disease

57.

According to the American College of Cardiology (ACC)/American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines, which patients should be referred for a comprehensive discussion of indications for revascularization?

a)

Patients with chronic stable angina

b)

Patients with acute appendicitis

c)

Patients with asthma

d)

Patients with diabetes only

58.

Which of the following is a key factor in determining the likelihood of success or failure of PCI (Percutaneous Coronary Intervention)?

a)

Patient's age

b)

Lesion characteristics

c)

Type of anesthesia used

d)

Length of hospital stay

59.

What is the main reason for considering CABG (Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting) over PCI in patients with multivessel disease?

a)

Lower cost of CABG

b)

Higher procedural success rate of PCI

c)

More extensive coronary disease in CABG candidates

d)

Shorter recovery time with CABG

60.

Which of the following best describes an "A lesion" in the context of PCI?

a)

A lesion with high complication rate

b)

A lesion with proximal location only

c)

A lesion with high success rate and no significant calcification

d)

A lesion that is always found in diabetic patients

61.

Why is Fractional Flow Reserve (FFR) used in the assessment of coronary lesions?

a)

To determine the patient's age

b)

To measure the degree of vessel calcification

c)

To assess the functional significance of intermediate lesions

d)

To predict the risk of infection after PCI

62.

Which of the following is NOT a typical indication for urgent PCI in patients with acute coronary syndrome?

a)

Recurrent angina

b)

New ST-segment depression

c)

Recent PCI

d)

High blood pressure

63.

A patient with multivessel disease is being considered for revascularization. What should be favored when deciding which lesions to treat?

a)

Complete revascularization of all lesions regardless of significance

b)

Revascularization of only functionally significant lesions

c)

Revascularization based on patient preference alone

d)

Revascularization of the smallest lesions first

64.

Which of the following statements about structural heart disease interventions is correct?

a)

The most common anomaly treated is coronary artery stenosis

b)

Closure of septal defects is a frequently performed procedure

c)

Only surgical approaches are used for structural heart disease

d)

All patients with patent foramen ovale (PFO) require closure

65.

What is the main purpose of using a catheter in the treatment of structural heart disease?

a)

To deliver medication directly to the heart muscle

b)

To perform diagnostic imaging only

c)

To place a closure device at the site of a defect

d)

To measure blood pressure in the aorta

66.

Which device is most commonly used for balloon dilation of the mitral valve in patients with mitral stenosis?

a)

Inoue balloon

b)

Edwards SAPIEN valve

c)

CoreValve ReValving system

d)

Lotus valve

67.

What is the main advantage of the MitraClip device in treating severe mitral regurgitation?

a)

It reduces regurgitation without the need for open-heart surgery

b)

It replaces the mitral valve entirely

c)

It is only used for aortic stenosis

d)

It is a type of drug-eluting stent

68.

Which of the following is a common complication of transseptal puncture during mitral valve procedures?

a)

Severe mitral regurgitation due to valve leaflet damage

b)

Aortic dissection

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Myocardial infarction

69.

What is the main purpose of using drug-eluting stents in peripheral artery interventions?

a)

To reduce restenosis compared to balloon angioplasty alone

b)

To increase blood pressure

c)

To replace the artery

d)

To treat heart valve disease

70.

What does the angiographic image labeled "B" in Figure 276-4 demonstrate?

a)

Successful carotid artery stenting

b)

Failed balloon angioplasty

c)

Mitral valve replacement

d)

Aortic valve stenosis

71.

Which of the following statements about percutaneous transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR) is correct?

a)

It is mainly used for patients who are not surgical candidates or as a bridge to surgery

b)

It is only used for mitral valve disease

c)

It is always performed through the carotid artery

d)

It has a 0% mortality rate

72.

What is the function of the percutaneous intraaortic balloon pump?

a)

To increase early diastolic pressure and lower systolic pressure

b)

To replace the aortic valve

c)

To perform coronary artery bypass grafting

d)

To treat mitral regurgitation

73.

Why is the use of percutaneous interventions in peripheral arteries increasing?

a)

Because of improvements in drug-eluting stents and better outcomes

b)

Because open surgery is always preferred

c)

Because it is only used for coronary arteries

d)

Because it is less effective than medical therapy

74.

Which of the following is a major complication associated with the use of the Impella catheter?

a)

Thrombotic complications

b)

Aortic regurgitation

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Pulmonary embolism

75.

What is the primary treatment for deep vein thrombosis as mentioned in the text?

a)

Intravenous anticoagulation

b)

Oral antibiotics

c)

Surgical removal of the vein

d)

Physical therapy

76.

Which procedure is used to selectively denervate renal sympathetic nerves in patients with refractory hypertension?

a)

Low-power radiofrequency treatment

b)

Balloon angioplasty

c)

Stent placement

d)

Thrombolytic therapy

77.

Why might a centrifugal pump be used in patients with acute respiratory failure or cardiac failure?

a)

To deliver oxygen directly to the lungs

b)

To assist in pumping blood from the left atrium to the femoral artery

c)

To remove excess fluid from the body

d)

To regulate blood pressure

78.

A patient with massive pulmonary embolism and hemodynamic instability who cannot receive systemic fibrinolysis may benefit from which intervention?

a)

Surgical pulmonary embolectomy

b)

Oral anticoagulation

c)

Beta-blocker therapy

d)

Renal denervation

79.

Based on the text, what is a key advantage of using a Heart Team in the management of acute coronary syndromes?

a)

It allows for individualized patient treatment decisions

b)

It eliminates the need for drug therapy

c)

It reduces the cost of care

d)

It guarantees a cure for all patients