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Urinary System MCQ Quiz

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the definition of homeostasis?

a)

Blood circulation in kidneys

b)

Elimination of waste

c)

Stability and balance in body systems

d)

Formation of urine

2.

How does blood carrying waste reach the kidneys?

a)

Via renal veins

b)

Via renal arteries

c)

Via the ureters

d)

Via lymph nodes

3.

What is the main function of the kidneys?

a)

Store urine

b)

Regulate breathing

c)

Filter blood and produce urine

d)

Secrete hormones

4.

What is the function of the ureters?

a)

Filter blood

b)

Carry urine to the kidneys

c)

Absorb nutrients

d)

Carry urine to the bladder

5.

What is the role of the bladder?

a)

Filter blood

b)

Create urine

c)

Control blood pressure

d)

Hold urine until expelled

6.

What are sphincters responsible for in the urinary system?

a)

Producing hormones

b)

Transporting urine

c)

Keeping the bladder closed until urination

d)

Reabsorbing water

7.

Urine exits the body through the:

a)

Ureter

b)

Bladder

c)

Nephron

d)

Urethra

8.

Filtered blood exits the kidneys via:

a)

Renal arteries

b)

Renal veins

c)

Afferent arterioles

d)

Ureters

9.

What is the functional unit of the kidneys?

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Nephron

c)

Ureter

d)

Bladder

10.

What is the role of nephrons?

a)

Clean the blood and form urine

b)

Carry urine to the bladder

c)

Store urine

d)

Filter air

11.

After filtration, urine is transported to the bladder via:

a)

Renal arteries

b)

Renal veins

c)

Ureters

d)

Urethra

12.

What waste products are removed by the kidneys?

a)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

Proteins and fats

c)

Antibodies

d)

Urea, creatinine, excess electrolytes

13.

What is the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule?

a)

Muscle in the bladder

b)

Capillary cluster for filtration

c)

Ureteral valve

d)

Hormone receptor site

14.

Which are the three parts of the renal tubule?

a)

Loop of Henle, renal pelvis, urethra

b)

Ureter, bladder, urethra

c)

Proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule

d)

Bowman’s capsule, ureter, nephron

15.

What is the function of the collecting duct?

a)

Reabsorbs glucose

b)

Filters blood

c)

Stores urine

d)

Sends urine to renal pelvis

16.

Blood enters the glomerulus through the:

a)

Renal vein

b)

Efferent arteriole

c)

Afferent arteriole

d)

Collecting duct

17.

The efferent arteriole forms:

a)

Peritubular capillary network

b)

Ureters

c)

Bowman’s capsule

d)

Bladder lining

18.

What does filtrate in the Bowman’s capsule contain?

a)

Large proteins

b)

Plasma cells

c)

Small molecules like water, urea, glucose

d)

Red blood cells

19.

Reabsorption and secretion in the nephron involve:

a)

Only removing toxins

b)

Only absorbing nutrients

c)

Deciding what to keep or eliminate

d)

Forming red blood cells

20.

Filtrate enters the nephron tubule from:

a)

Ureter

b)

Glomerulus

c)

Renal vein

d)

Bowman’s capsule

21.

What happens during reabsorption?

a)

Water is excreted

b)

Needed substances return to blood

c)

Urine is formed

d)

Sodium is removed

22.

What is secretion in the nephron?

a)

Absorbing glucose

b)

Water loss

c)

Sending more waste from blood into tubule

d)

Hormone production

23.

Water follows which electrolyte in the nephron?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Calcium

d)

Magnesium

24.

What do the ureters contain to detect urine flow?

a)

Sensory nerves

b)

Blood vessels

c)

Muscles

d)

Hair cells

25.

The bladder is best described as a:

a)

Solid gland

b)

Hollow muscular organ

c)

Rigid bone

d)

Vein structure

26.

What muscle surrounds the bladder?

a)

Psoas

b)

Sphincter

c)

Detrusor

d)

Glomerular

27.

The internal sphincter muscle is:

a)

Voluntary

b)

Absent in females

c)

Skeletal

d)

Involuntary

28.

The external sphincter muscle is:

a)

Involuntary

b)

Voluntary

c)

Smooth

d)

Controlled by kidneys

29.

When is the urge to void usually triggered?

a)

100 mL

b)

250 mL

c)

500 mL

d)

50 mL

30.

The bladder is moderately full at:

a)

200 mL

b)

300 mL

c)

400–500 mL

d)

600–700 mL

31.

The male urethra passes through:

a)

Testes

b)

Prostate gland

c)

Ureter

d)

Bladder dome

32.

What percentage of glucose and amino acids is reabsorbed in the nephron?

a)

50%

b)

75%

c)

90%

d)

100%

33.

Why are women more prone to bladder infections?

a)

Slower metabolism

b)

Shorter urethra

c)

Weaker sphincters

d)

Higher pH urine

34.

What is the role of adrenal glands in urination?

a)

Produce urine

b)

Regulate bladder pressure

c)

Influence urine formation

d)

Store water

35.

What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

a)

Nerve in the ureter

b)

Muscle in bladder

c)

Part of distal tubule that regulates blood pressure

d)

Kidney lobe

36.

What happens when blood pressure is too low?

a)

Juxtaglomerular apparatus releases renin

b)

Heart rate increases

c)

Kidneys stop filtering

d)

Urine output increases

37.

What does renin do?

a)

Filters urine

b)

Travels to lungs

c)

Stimulates ADH release from pituitary

d)

Forms creatinine

38.

What is the function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

a)

Decreases urine output

b)

Increases sodium and water reabsorption

c)

Lowers BP

d)

Prevents aldosterone secretion

39.

What is the function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

a)

Decreases urine output

b)

Increases sodium and water reabsorption

c)

Lowers BP

d)

Prevents aldosterone secretion

40.

When BP is too low, the pituitary gland signals the adrenal glands to:

a)

Increase ADH

b)

Stop filtering

c)

Raise heart rate

d)

Decrease aldosterone

41.

Aldosterone works by:

a)

Decreasing sodium

b)

Increasing water excretion

c)

Retaining sodium and water

d)

Reducing blood volume

42.

When BP is high, the atria sense pressure using:

a)

Stretch receptors

b)

Osmoreceptors

c)

Baroreceptors

d)

Muscle fibers

43.

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) causes the kidneys to:

a)

Reabsorb sodium

b)

Suppress sodium and water reabsorption

c)

Produce aldosterone

d)

Slow heart rate

44.

Erythropoietin stimulates:

a)

Platelet production

b)

White blood cell formation

c)

Red blood cell formation

d)

Hormone secretion

45.

Normal daily urine output is:

a)

100–300 mL

b)

400–700 mL

c)

500–2400 mL

d)

3,000–4,000 mL

46.

Common urinary symptoms include:

a)

Weight gain

b)

Vomiting and rash

c)

Dysuria, urgency, incontinence

d)

Fever and sweating

47.

Normal urine appearance is:

a)

Straw-colored and clear

b)

Foamy and dark

c)

Cloudy yellow

d)

Brown and thick

48.

What volume triggers the normal urge to void?

a)

100 mL

b)

150 mL

c)

250 mL

d)

400 mL

49.

What is the average bladder capacity?

a)

200–300 mL

b)

400–500 mL

c)

600–700 mL

d)

1,000 mL

50.

Urine should NOT contain:

a)

Sodium

b)

Glucose, RBCs, WBCs, bilirubin

c)

Electrolytes

d)

Urea

51.

Normal specific gravity range of urine is:

a)

1.000–1.005

b)

1.005–1.015

c)

1.020–1.030

d)

1.010–1.025

52.

Cloudy urine may indicate:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Starvation

c)

Infection

d)

High protein intake

53.

Dark or amber urine may be caused by:

a)

Diabetes

b)

Excess calcium

c)

Drugs, foods, or dehydration

d)

Low sodium intake

54.

What does proteinuria suggest?

a)

Urinary tract infection

b)

Dehydration

c)

Renal disease

d)

Liver failure

55.

Ketonuria may indicate:

a)

High salt intake

b)

Diabetes or starvation

c)

Renal failure

d)

Liver cirrhosis

56.

Glycosuria may be a sign of:

a)

Liver failure

b)

Anemia

c)

Dehydration

d)

Diabetes or shock

57.

Hematuria can result from:

a)

Low glucose

b)

UTI or inflammation

c)

High protein diet

d)

Stress

58.

Pyuria refers to:

a)

Presence of pus in urine

b)

Excess sugar in urine

c)

Protein in the urine

d)

Urine with ketones

59.

Bilirubinuria may be caused by:

a)

Diabetes

b)

Heart failure

c)

Dehydration

d)

Liver dysfunction or hepatitis

60.

A KUB is what type of diagnostic test?

a)

Blood test

b)

Ultrasound

c)

Urine culture

d)

X-ray of kidney, ureter, bladder

61.

A CT scan or MRI of the urinary tract may require:

a)

A biopsy

b)

Renal dialysis

c)

IV contrast dye

d)

Anesthesia

62.

What is a cystoscopy?

a)

Urine filtration test

b)

X-ray of the kidneys

c)

Visualization of bladder using scope and camera

d)

Dye test of urethra

63.

What is a cystogram?

a)

X-ray without dye

b)

Bladder imaging after dye instillation via catheter

c)

Ultrasound of kidneys

d)

Urine pH test

64.

How is a catheterized urine sample obtained?

a)

By using a syringe

b)

By applying external pressure

c)

By inserting a catheter through the urethra

d)

By collecting midstream urine

65.

Before collecting a clean-catch urine sample, the patient should:

a)

Fast for 8 hours

b)

Cleanse x3 and discard the first portion of urine

c)

Lie flat for 10 minutes

d)

Take a diuretic

66.

The normal pH range of urine is:

a)

4.5–8.0

b)

3.0–5.0

c)

7.5–9.0

d)

6.0–10.0

67.

Diabetic screening is needed if urine shows:

a)

Blood or pus

b)

Calcium or sodium

c)

Glucose or ketones

d)

Protein or chloride

68.

A higher-than-normal BUN level may indicate:

a)

Liver failure

b)

Kidney dysfunction

c)

Lung disease

d)

Diabetes insipidus

69.

Creatinine is a waste product from:

a)

Fat metabolism

b)

Protein breakdown

c)

Muscle use

d)

Hormone secretion

70.

The normal BUN/creatinine ratio is:

a)

5:1 to 9:1

b)

10:1 to 20:1

c)

15:1 to 30:1

d)

20:1 to 40:1

71.

GFR refers to the:

a)

Rate of red blood cell formation

b)

Rate of water excretion

c)

Rate of bladder emptying

d)

Rate of filtration through the glomeruli

72.

A GFR below 15 indicates:

a)

Liver disease

b)

Kidney failure

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Bladder infection

73.

A kidney biopsy is usually done:

a)

After IV contrast

b)

Using a camera

c)

With a needle after identifying a mass

d)

By urine sample

74.

A bladder scan measures:

a)

Infection in the urethra

b)

Blood flow in the kidneys

c)

Volume of urine in the bladder

d)

Kidney filtration rate

75.

Residual urine volume is:

a)

Urine left after voiding

b)

The total daily urine output

c)

Urine in the ureter

d)

Urine expelled during urination

76.

Normal residual urine volume after voiding is:

a)

50–100 mL

b)

0–25 mL

c)

25–50 mL

d)

100–150 mL

77.

How is residual urine volume assessed?

a)

X-ray

b)

Blood draw

c)

Catheterization or bladder scan

d)

Clean-catch sample

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