WorksheetsRISK MANAGEMENT
Total questions: 42
Worksheet time: 23mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The CBPR model becomes mandatory when a borrower’s aggregate exposure (FB + NFB) is at least______crore rupees?
a)
5
b)
7.5
c)
10
d)
25
e)
50
2.
Environmental, Social, Governance & Climate‑risk parameters are introduced for corporate borrowers whose exposure is______crore rupees or more.
a)
10
b)
25
c)
50
d)
75
e)
100
3.
Which of the following is **NOT** listed as a “No‑Go” trigger in the guidelines?
a)
NPA with other lenders
b)
Account red‑flagged in CRILC
c)
Auditor’s “going‑concern” doubt
d)
High current ratio (> 1)
e)
Borrower in RBI defaulter list
4.
Once RM‑Wing tags a proposal as **No‑Go**, fresh exposure can be sanctioned only by the______
a)
Circle Office
b)
Credit Approval Committee
c)
Management Committee of the Board
d)
Executive Director
e)
Risk Management Wing
5.
All individual risk attributes in CBPR are scored on a scale where **1** denotes low risk and **10** denotes high risk. True or False?
a)
True
b)
FALSE
c)
Not stated
d)
Data insufficient
e)
Can’t say
6.
In the composite risk rating used in RBIA, what percentage weight is assigned to Control Risk?
a)
0.2
b)
0.4
c)
0.6
d)
0.8
e)
1
7.
When RBIA adopts sampling instead of full verification, what proportion of the portfolio must be examined?
a)
5–10%
b)
10–20%
c)
25–40%
d)
50–75%
e)
80–90%
8.
What is the prescribed RBIA periodicity for a branch rated Low Risk?
a)
6 months
b)
9 months
c)
12 months
d)
18 months
e)
24 months
9.
After three consecutive Moderate risk ratings, a branch is classified as “Special Moderate”. Its RBIA frequency then becomes every______months.
a)
6
b)
9
c)
12
d)
18
e)
24
10.
Off‑site risk assessment for Low‑risk branches is conducted______months after an onsite RBIA.
a)
6
b)
9
c)
12
d)
18
e)
24
11.
The RBIA team is required to include an Information Systems (IS) audit for which branches?
a)
Only high‑risk branches
b)
Only low‑risk branches
c)
All branches irrespective of risk
d)
Only foreign branches
e)
Only service units
12.
Who is the “Designated Authority” under the Whistle Blower Policy?
a)
Branch Manager
b)
Chief General Manager‑HR Wing
c)
Managing Director & CEO
d)
Circle Head
e)
Vigilance Department Head
13.
Which of the following is NOT an approved mode for lodging a whistle‑blower complaint?
a)
SAS package via biometric login with OTP
b)
Email to generic HR mailbox
c)
Written sealed envelope to CGM‑HR
d)
WB complaint in SAS after OTP
e)
None of the above
14.
Anonymous or pseudonymous complaints under the policy will be______
a)
Entertained with caution
b)
Sent to Vigilance Division
c)
Not entertained
d)
Forwarded to Branch Head
e)
Kept on hold
15.
The Designated Authority will take no action on complaints related to______matters.
a)
Frauds
b)
Misuse of office
c)
Recruitment & transfers
d)
Bribery
e)
Asset misappropriation
16.
A quarterly report on whistle‑blower complaints is submitted to the______
a)
Audit Committee of the Board
b)
Board of Directors
c)
Risk Management Wing
d)
HR Sub‑Committee
e)
Central Vigilance Commission
17.
Protection under the policy does NOT cover a whistle‑blower if the allegations are found to be______
a)
True
b)
Partially true
c)
False or mala‑fide
d)
Under investigation
e)
Anonymous
18.
“Fraud risk” combines the probability of fraud occurring with its______impact.
a)
legal
b)
reputational
c)
monetary
d)
regulatory
e)
social
19.
Granting a fake loan by collusion between borrower and staff is an example of______fraud.
a)
Non‑credit
b)
Credit
c)
Payment‑system
d)
Insurance
e)
Third‑party
20.
Shortage of cash in the branch vault caused by misappropriation is categorised as______fraud.
a)
Credit
b)
Non‑credit
c)
Cheque‑related
d)
Forex
e)
Cyber
21.
Branches must alert the Fraud‑Prevention Wing within______hours of detecting a suspected fraud.
a)
6
b)
12
c)
24
d)
48
e)
72
22.
A bank must conclude whether a red‑flagged account is “Fraud” or “No Fraud” within a maximum of______months.
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
9
e)
12
23.
Once an account is marked FRAUD, the system pushes all its balances to the______asset category regardless of security value.
a)
Standard
b)
Sub‑standard
c)
Doubtful
d)
Loss
e)
Watchlist
24.
A red‑flagged loan account should ordinarily be resolved (fraud or otherwise) within______days of first reporting on the CRILC platform.
a)
90
b)
120
c)
150
d)
180
e)
270
25.
Operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from______internal processes, people, systems or external events.
a)
Adequate
b)
Inadequate
c)
Reliable
d)
Robust
e)
Effective
26.
Which of the following is not one of the four causal categories of operational risk specified by the Bank?
a)
People
b)
Processes
c)
Systems
d)
External events
e)
Liquidity
27.
The Bank expresses its acceptable level of operational risk through a______Statement.
a)
Capital Adequacy
b)
Risk Appetite
c)
Business Continuity
d)
Loss Tolerance
e)
Governance
28.
Management of operational risk includes identification, assessment, measurement, control, mitigation, analysis, monitoring and______.
a)
pricing
b)
reporting
c)
underwriting
d)
planning
e)
staffing
29.
An earthquake causing service disruption is an example of an______source of operational risk.
a)
Internal
b)
Process
c)
People
d)
Systems
e)
External
30.
The Bank’s acceptable level of operational risk is documented in its______Statement.
a)
Mission
b)
Risk Appetite
c)
Pricing
d)
Liquidity
e)
Credit
31.
Credit risk is defined as the possibility of losses associated with______by a borrower or counterparty.
a)
Default
b)
Diversification
c)
Market gain
d)
Hedging
e)
Arbitrage
32.
“Expected Loss (EL)” is treated by the Bank as a______component of doing business.
a)
capital
b)
cost
c)
revenue
d)
marketing
e)
human resources
33.
The Bank’s Master Rating Scale is primarily used to______borrower default risk.
a)
eliminate
b)
assume
c)
transfer
d)
rank‑order
e)
ignore
34.
Under the Large Exposure Framework, the regulatory ceiling for a single borrower exposure is______% of the eligible capital base.
a)
15
b)
20
c)
25
d)
30
e)
35
35.
Facility ratings are to be reviewed on a______basis.
a)
Half‑yearly
b)
Annual
c)
Biennial
d)
Quarterly
e)
Monthly
36.
An external rating of “BB” maps to which internal CIRM risk category?
a)
Minimal Risk
b)
Moderate Risk
c)
Low Risk
d)
High Risk
e)
Default Grade
37.
A “substantial exposure” is defined for facilities exceeding______% of the Bank’s capital funds.
a)
5
b)
7.5
c)
10
d)
20
e)
25
38.
Loan‑to‑Value (LTV) ratio is calculated with total outstanding liability in the numerator and______in the denominator.
a)
Sanctioned limit
b)
Realisable value of collateral
c)
Market capitalization
d)
PD estimate
e)
LGD estimate
39.
The Credit Risk Rating Desk (CRRD) is primarily responsible for______.
a)
industry research
b)
facility rating approvals
c)
credit risk rating of borrowers and facilities
d)
IT infrastructure procurement
e)
internal audit
40.
Which of the following is NOT listed as a source of credit risk in the policy?
a)
Direct lending
b)
Guarantees and letters of credit
c)
Treasury operations
d)
Employee attrition
e)
Securities‑settlement failure
41.
खाना कैसा था? एक या दो शब्दों में लिखिए
How was the Food ? write in one or two words
2 lines
42.
"हम आपके सुझाव सुनना पसंद करेंगे कि हम भोजन को और बेहतर कैसे बना सकते हैं।"
"We’d love to hear your suggestions on how we can make the food even better."
4 lines
100 %
