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Medical Complications of Pregnancy Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The most common medical disorder in pregnancy is:

a)

Diabetes

b)

Thyroid disease

c)

Hypertension

d)

Anemia

2.

Which type of diabetes is first diagnosed during pregnancy?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

MODY

d)

Gestational diabetes

3.

A diagnostic 2-hour 75g OGTT for GDM is done at:

a)

10-12 weeks

b)

14-16 weeks

c)

24-28 weeks

d)

34-36 weeks

4.

Eclampsia is defined as:

a)

BP ≥ 160/110 mmHg

b)

Proteinuria ≥ +2

c)

Seizures in preeclampsia

d)

Hemolysis and thrombocytopenia

5.

The first-line antihypertensive in pregnancy is:

a)

Atenolol

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Methyldopa

d)

Losartan

6.

Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a)

Labetalol

b)

Nifedipine

c)

Hydralazine

d)

ACE inhibitors

7.

HELLP syndrome includes all EXCEPT:

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Elevated liver enzymes

c)

Low platelet count

d)

Elevated creatinine

8.

Which of the following is a common cause of anemia in pregnancy?

a)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

b)

Aplastic anemia

c)

Iron deficiency

d)

Hemoglobinopathies

9.

Iron requirements during pregnancy increase to approximately:

a)

5 mg/day

b)

10 mg/day

c)

27 mg/day

d)

50 mg/day

10.

The most reliable indicator of iron-deficiency anemia in pregnancy is:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Hematocrit

c)

Ferritin

d)

Serum iron

11.

What is the management of mild gestational hypertension?

a)

Emergency delivery

b)

IV labetalol

c)

Expectant management

d)

Betamethasone

12.

Which thyroid function test is falsely low in pregnancy due to increased TBG?

a)

Total T4

b)

Free T4

c)

Total T3

d)

Free T3

13.

Which of the following anticoagulants is considered safe in pregnancy?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Heparin

c)

Rivaroxaban

d)

Dabigatran

14.

A pregnant woman at 20 weeks with proteinuria and hypertension likely has:

a)

Chronic hypertension

b)

Preeclampsia

c)

Gestational hypertension

d)

Eclampsia

15.

Which of the following is a risk factor for preeclampsia?

a)

Multiparity

b)

Age <20

c)

Obesity

d)

Smoking

16.

Which cardiac condition is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a)

Mitral valve prolapse

b)

Atrial septal defect

c)

Eisenmenger syndrome

d)

Patent ductus arteriosus

17.

Pregnant woman with severe headache, visual changes, and elevated BP likely has:

a)

Eclampsia

b)

Migraine

c)

Severe preeclampsia

d)

Stroke

18.

Which seizure medication has the safest profile in pregnancy?

a)

Valproic acid

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Lamotrigine

19.

The most common cause of fever in postpartum women is:

a)

Mastitis

b)

Endometritis

c)

UTI

d)

Pneumonia

20.

The leading cause of maternal mortality in developing countries is:

a)

Sepsis

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Hypertension

d)

Pulmonary embolism

21.

Which insulin type is safest in pregnancy?

a)

Insulin lispro

b)

NPH insulin

c)

Glargine

d)

Detemir

22.

The best diagnostic imaging for suspected PE in pregnancy is:

a)

V/Q scan

b)

Chest X-ray

c)

CT pulmonary angiography

d)

ECG

23.

What is the preferred treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy?

a)

No treatment

b)

Nitrofurantoin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Tetracycline

24.

Which hepatitis virus has the highest maternal mortality risk in pregnancy?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

Hepatitis E

d)

Hepatitis A

25.

What is the most common UTI pathogen in pregnancy?

a)

Klebsiella

b)

Enterococcus

c)

Proteus

d)

Escherichia coli

26.

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy presents with:

a)

Fever

b)

Hypertension

c)

Pruritus without rash

d)

Jaundice with pain

27.

The diagnostic test for gestational diabetes is:

a)

FBS

b)

HbA1c

c)

75g OGTT

d)

50g GCT

28.

What is the treatment for syphilis in pregnancy?

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Penicillin G

d)

Azithromycin

29.

HIV-positive pregnant woman should receive:

a)

Zidovudine monotherapy

b)

HAART

c)

No treatment

d)

ART only postpartum

30.

Most common symptom of anemia in pregnancy:

a)

Bleeding

b)

Fever

c)

Fatigue

d)

Headache

31.

Which test distinguishes pyelonephritis from cystitis in pregnancy?

a)

Urinalysis

b)

CBC

c)

Urine culture

d)

Flank pain with fever

32.

Antiepileptic drug most associated with fetal anomalies:

a)

Lamotrigine

b)

Levetiracetam

c)

Valproic acid

d)

Gabapentin

33.

The primary concern with maternal lupus in pregnancy is:

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Neonatal lupus with heart block

c)

Hypertension

d)

Anemia

34.

The main management for mild asthma in pregnancy:

a)

Oral steroids

b)

LABA

c)

Inhaled corticosteroids

d)

Theophylline

35.

Which fetal effect is associated with poorly controlled maternal diabetes?

a)

Oligohydramnios

b)

Microcephaly

c)

Macrosomia

d)

Fetal bradycardia

36.

The physiological cause of increased thromboembolism risk in pregnancy is:

a)

Hemodilution

b)

Decreased protein S

c)

Increased fibrinolysis

d)

Platelet deficiency

37.

What is the treatment of mild hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

a)

No treatment

b)

Levothyroxine

c)

PTU

d)

Methimazole

38.

Fetal effects of maternal hyperthyroidism include:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Goiter

c)

Macrocephaly

d)

Bradycardia

39.

Which antitubercular drug is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Rifampin

c)

Streptomycin

d)

Pyrazinamide

40.

A mother with thrombophilia and pregnancy loss should be started on:

a)

Heparin and aspirin

b)

Warfarin

c)

Rivaroxaban

d)

Observation

41.

Best predictor of adverse outcomes in preeclampsia:

a)

BP level

b)

Proteinuria

c)

Symptoms (e.g. headache, RUQ pain)

d)

Edema

42.

Which cardiac lesion carries the highest maternal mortality?

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Mitral regurgitation

c)

Eisenmenger syndrome

d)

Ventricular septal defect

43.

Fetal complication most associated with maternal lupus:

a)

Cleft lip

b)

Renal agenesis

c)

Congenital heart block

d)

Macrosomia

44.

Management of DKA in pregnancy includes all EXCEPT:

a)

Insulin infusion

b)

Fluids

c)

Bicarbonate routinely

d)

Electrolyte replacement

45.

A pregnant patient with DVT and heparin allergy is best treated with:

a)

Warfarin

b)

Rivaroxaban

c)

Fondaparinux

d)

Aspirin

46.

In maternal hypothyroidism, untreated cases can cause what fetal outcome?

a)

Neonatal hypoglycemia

b)

Congenital hypothyroidism

c)

Fetal tachycardia

d)

Neural tube defect

47.

When should insulin-dependent diabetics be induced if well controlled?

a)

36 weeks

b)

37 weeks

c)

39 weeks

d)

41 weeks

48.

Main difference between chronic HTN and preeclampsia superimposed on chronic HTN:

a)

Edema

b)

Proteinuria after 20 weeks

c)

Baseline BP

d)

Family history

49.

The preferred imaging for suspected appendicitis in pregnancy is:

a)

CT abdomen

b)

X-ray

c)

MRI

d)

Barium enema

50.

Most common complication in pregnant women with SLE:

a)

Seizures

b)

Preterm birth

c)

Postpartum hemorrhage

d)

Diabetes

51.

What is the most appropriate treatment for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Magnesium sulfate

d)

Phenytoin

52.

Magnesium sulfate toxicity first manifests as:

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Cardiac arrest

c)

Absent deep tendon reflexes

d)

Seizures

53.

What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Atropine

d)

Sodium bicarbonate

54.

Which lab value is most specific for hemolysis in HELLP syndrome?

a)

LDH elevation

b)

Low hematocrit

c)

Decreased platelet count

d)

Increased bilirubin

55.

Which lab value is most specific for hemolysis in HELLP syndrome?

a)

LDH elevation

b)

Low hematocrit

c)

Decreased haptoglobin

d)

Elevated bilirubin

56.

A patient with gestational hypertension at 38 weeks and normal labs should be:

a)

Delivered at 40 weeks

b)

Continued with weekly monitoring

c)

Induced at 38 weeks

d)

Scheduled for cesarean

57.

Which diabetic complication is more likely to worsen during pregnancy?

a)

Retinopathy

b)

Neuropathy

c)

Nephropathy

d)

Hypoglycemia

58.

The most common cardiac lesion associated with maternal death in pregnancy is:

a)

Congenital heart disease

b)

Peripartum cardiomyopathy

c)

Mitral valve prolapse

d)

Atrial fibrillation

59.

In peripartum cardiomyopathy, which medication is avoided in pregnancy?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

ACE inhibitors

c)

Diuretics

d)

Digoxin

60.

In sickle cell disease, which of the following complications is most feared in pregnancy?

a)

Iron overload

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Vaso-occlusive crisis

d)

Hypoglycemia

61.

A known epileptic on valproate presents early in pregnancy. What is the best next step?

a)

Continue valproate

b)

Stop all antiepileptics

c)

Switch to lamotrigine

d)

Start folic acid only

62.

What is the most accurate way to assess glycemic control in a pregnant diabetic woman?

a)

HbA1c

b)

Self-monitoring blood glucose

c)

Random blood sugar

d)

2-hour postprandial insulin

63.

What is the key mechanism behind preeclampsia?

a)

Autoimmune destruction

b)

Trophoblastic hyperplasia

c)

Abnormal placentation and endothelial dysfunction

d)

Excess aldosterone

64.

The most common cause of maternal death in preeclampsia is:

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Seizures

c)

Cerebral hemorrhage

d)

Pulmonary edema

65.

What defines gestational hypertension?

a)

Hypertension with proteinuria

b)

Hypertension after 20 weeks without proteinuria

c)

Hypertension before 20 weeks

d)

Chronic hypertension with pregnancy

66.

The minimum proteinuria level to define preeclampsia is:

a)

150 mg/day

b)

200 mg/day

c)

300 mg/day

d)

500 mg/day

67.

In TSH suppression due to hCG, which trimester is most affected?

a)

First trimester

b)

Second trimester

c)

Third trimester

d)

Postpartum

68.

Treatment of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy includes:

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Ursodeoxycholic acid

c)

Vitamin K only

d)

Corticosteroids

69.

A known lupus patient has positive anti-Ro antibodies. The fetus is at risk for:

a)

Neural tube defect

b)

Macroglossia

c)

Congenital heart block

d)

Trisomy 21

70.

In a woman with antiphospholipid syndrome, which finding is diagnostic?

a)

Elevated ESR

b)

Low protein C

c)

Positive lupus anticoagulant

d)

Positive ANA

71.

Postpartum thyroiditis typically presents with:

a)

Bradycardia and fatigue

b)

Hyperthyroid followed by hypothyroid phase

c)

Only hyperthyroidism

d)

Only hypothyroidism

72.

Which antiepileptic drug has the lowest teratogenic risk in pregnancy?

a)

Valproic acid

b)

Lamotrigine

c)

Phenytoin

d)

Carbamazepine

73.

The most common fetal anomaly in diabetic pregnancies is:

a)

Cardiac defects

b)

Spina bifida

c)

Renal agenesis

d)

Hydrocephalus

74.

Maternal PKU not controlled during pregnancy leads to:

a)

Neonatal jaundice

b)

Congenital cataracts

c)

Microcephaly and intellectual disability

d)

Macrosomia

75.

When should low-dose aspirin be started in women at high risk for preeclampsia?

a)

At 8 weeks

b)

At 12-16 weeks

c)

After 28 weeks

d)

After diagnosis

76.

What is the most common cause of maternal mortality in lupus pregnancies?

a)

Renal failure

b)

Infection

c)

Hemorrhage

d)

Seizures

77.

What is the fetal consequence of maternal Graves' disease if untreated?

a)

Congenital hypothyroidism

b)

Fetal thyrotoxicosis

c)

Fetal goiter only

d)

Macrosomia

78.

Which laboratory test confirms DIC in a pregnant woman with placental abruption?

a)

Elevated fibrinogen

b)

Decreased PT

c)

Low platelets and elevated D-dimer

d)

Elevated Hct

79.

Anemia in pregnancy is defined as hemoglobin less than:

a)

11.5 g/dL

b)

11.0 g/dL

c)

10.5 g/dL

d)

10.0 g/dL

80.

Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

a)

Low hCG

b)

High TSH

c)

Elevated hCG

d)

High progesterone

81.

Which antihypertensive is preferred in a hypertensive crisis in pregnancy?

a)

Methyldopa

b)

Amlodipine

c)

IV hydralazine

d)

Losartan

82.

HIV transmission risk is highest during:

a)

First trimester

b)

Second trimester

c)

Labor and delivery

d)

Breastfeeding

83.

What is the drug of choice for toxoplasmosis in pregnancy?

a)

Spiramycin

b)

Pyrimethamine

c)

Azithromycin

d)

TMP-SMX

84.

A pregnant patient with tuberculosis is best treated with:

a)

INH + Rifampin + Ethambutol

b)

INH + Streptomycin

c)

Rifampin + Pyrazinamide

d)

RIF + Amikacin

85.

Which vitamin deficiency may develop in pregnant women on isoniazid?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin B6

d)

Vitamin K

86.

A woman with GDM managed by diet should be induced:

a)

37 weeks

b)

38 weeks

c)

40 weeks

d)

42 weeks

87.

A patient on warfarin becomes pregnant. The next step is:

a)

Continue warfarin

b)

Switch to LMWH

c)

Stop anticoagulation

d)

Switch to aspirin

88.

Euthyroid pregnant woman with a goiter and TPO antibodies is at risk for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Neonatal sepsis

c)

Postpartum thyroiditis

d)

Diabetes

89.

A woman with mechanical heart valve is pregnant. Best anticoagulant is:

a)

Warfarin throughout

b)

LMWH throughout

c)

Dabigatran

d)

Heparin only before labor

90.

Which of the following is increased in normal pregnancy?

a)

Fibrinolysis

b)

Protein S

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Platelet count

91.

A pregnant diabetic with macrosomia is best delivered at:

a)

36 weeks

b)

37 weeks

c)

39 weeks

d)

Wait for spontaneous labor

92.

In asymptomatic COVID-19 pregnant patient, management includes:

a)

Immediate delivery

b)

Antivirals

c)

Home isolation and monitoring

d)

Hydroxychloroquine

93.

Which is a known teratogen?

a)

Methyldopa

b)

Labetalol

c)

Warfarin

d)

Insulin

94.

Sickle cell anemia increases risk of:

a)

Eclampsia

b)

Placenta previa

c)

Macrosomia

d)

Gestational diabetes

95.

Proteinuria is best measured by:

a)

Urine dipstick

b)

24-hour urine collection

c)

Spot protein/creatinine ratio

d)

First void sample

96.

Main concern in uncontrolled asthma in pregnancy:

a)

Preterm labor

b)

Fetal growth restriction

c)

Gestational diabetes

d)

Neural tube defects

97.

Methimazole is avoided in first trimester due to:

a)

Renal toxicity

b)

Cardiotoxicity

c)

Risk of aplasia cutis

d)

Risk of macrosomia

98.

The classic sign of pulmonary edema in preeclampsia is:

a)

Chest pain

b)

Dyspnea with crackles

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Wheezing

99.

Which medication can be used for DVT prophylaxis postpartum?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Rivaroxaban

c)

Clopidogrel

d)

Ticagrelor

100.

A pregnant patient with uncontrolled diabetes may have:

a)

Polyhydramnios

b)

Oligohydramnios

c)

Placenta previa

d)

IUFD at term only