wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Networking Quiz

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many host addresses are available on the 192.168.10.128/26 network?

a)

30

b)

32

c)

60

d)

62

e)

64

2.

What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?

a)

/28

b)

/27

c)

/26

d)

/25

3.

What is the recommended prefix length for most IPv6 subnets?

a)

132

b)

/48

c)

/64

d)

/128

4.

How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?

a)

254

b)

30

c)

256

d)

16

e)

62

5.

How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?

a)

2046

b)

1024

c)

512

d)

510

e)

1022

6.

A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?

a)

1 segment

b)

10 segments

c)

100 segments

d)

1000 segments

7.

A network administrator has received the IPv6 prefix 2001:DB8:48 for subnetting. Assuming the administrator does not subnet into the interface ID portion of the address space, how many subnets can the administrator create from the /48 prefix?

a)

16

b)

256

c)

4096

d)

65536

8.

Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.11.12.100 255.255.255.0. What is the network address of Host-A?

a)

10.0.0.0

b)

10.11.0.0

c)

10.11.12.0

d)

10.11.12.100

9.

What is the special value assigned to the first 24 bits of a multicast MAC address transporting an IPv4 packet?

a)

01-00-5E

b)

FF-00-5E

c)

01-5E-00

d)

FF-FF-FF

10.

Which address is a valid IPv6 link-local unicast address?

a)

FEC8:1::FFFF

b)

FD80::1:1234

c)

FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1

d)

FEOA:: 100:7788:998F

e)

FC90:5678:4251:FFFF

11.

Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

a)

0.0.0.0

b)

255.255.255.255

c)

FFFF.FFFF.FFFF

d)

AAAA AAAA AAAA

e)

the physical address of the destination host

12.

Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8:48, what will be the last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is changed to /52?

a)

2001:db8:0:100:/52

b)

2001:db8:0:8000:/52

c)

2001:db8:0:f::/52

d)

2001:db8:0:f000:/52

13.

An administrator wants to create four subnetworks from the network address 192.168.1.0/24. What is the network address and subnet mask of the second useable subnet?

a)

subnetwork 192.168.1.64 subnet mask 255.255.255.192

b)

subnetwork 192.168.1.32 subnet mask 255.255.255.240

c)

subnetwork 192.168.1.64 subnet mask 255.255.255.240

d)

subnetwork 192.168.1.128 subnet mask 255.255.255.192

e)

subnetwork 192.168.1.8 subnet mask 255.255.255.224

14.

For the TCP/IP protocol suite, what is the correct order of events when a Telnet message is being prepared to be sent over the network?

1.      

1. The IP header is added A.  first

2. The TCP header is added B. second

3. The Ethernet header is added C. third

4. The Telnet-formatted data is provided to the next D. final

a)

1C-2B-3D-4A

b)

1C-2D-38-4A

c)

1A-2B-3C-4D

d)

1B-2A-3D-4C

15.

An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are used.)

1. The IP header is added A.  first

2. The TCP header is added B. second

3. The Ethernet header is added C. third

4. The Telnet-formatted data is provided to the next D. final

a)

A5-B2-C4-D3

b)

A1-B2-C3-D4

c)

A2-B1-C4-D3

d)

A5-B1-C2-D3

16.

Three methods allow IPv6 and IPv4 to co-exist. Match each method with its description. (Not all options are used.)

1.      

1. The IP header is added A.  first

2. The TCP header is added B. second

3. The Ethernet header is added C. third

4. The Telnet-formatted data is provided to the next D. final

a)

A4-B3-C2

b)

A3-B2-C2

c)

A2-B3-C1

d)

A1-B3-C4

17.

Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

1.      

1. The IP header is added A.  first

2. The TCP header is added B. second

3. The Ethernet header is added C. third

4. The Telnet-formatted data is provided to the next D. final

a)

3A-5A-1B-6B-2C-4C

b)

3A-5A-2B-4B-1C-6C

c)

1A-6A-3B-5B-2C-4C

d)

1A-6A-2B-4B-3C-5C

18.

Match the commands to the correct actions. (Not all options are used.) 

1.     A. provides security on the console
B. displays a message when the router is accessed
C. configures a name on the router

1. Router(config)# hostname CL1
2. Router(config)# enable password Cisc
3. Router(config-line)# password class
4. Router(config)# password Cisco
5. Router(config)# banner motd #

a)

A3-B5-C1

b)

A2-B3-C4

c)

A1-B2-C3

d)

A4-B1-C5

19.

Match each IPv4 address to the appropriate address category. (Not all options are used.)

a)

A1-A2-B3-B4-C5-C6

b)

A3-A4-B1-B2-C5-C6

c)

A5-A6-B3-B4-C1-C2

d)

A3-A6-B2-B4-C1-C5

20.

Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network architecture. (Not all options are used.)

1.     A. host address B. network address C. broadcast address

1. 192.168.100.161/25 2. 203.0.113.100/24 3. 10.10.10.128/25
4. 172.110.12.64/28 5. 192.168.1.191/26 6. 10.0.0.159/27

a)

A2-B4-C1

b)

A2-B1-C4

c)

A1-B5-C3

d)

A3-B2-C4

21.

Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network architecture. (Not all options are used.)

1. A. fault tolerance B. scalability C. security
1. Protect the network from unauthorized access. 2. Provide redundant links and devices. 3. Match the type of communication with a specific priority.
4. Expand the network without degrading the service for existing users. 5. Ensure that streaming data is provided
over high speed links.

a)

A2-B4-C1

b)

A2-B1-C4

c)

A1-B5-C3

d)

A3-B2-C4

22.

Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

1.     A. 192.168.1.32/27 B. 192.168.1.64/27 C. 192.168.1.96/27

1-192.168.1.63 2-192.168.1.68 3-192.168.1.128 4-192.168.1.48 5-192.168.1.121

a)

A4-B2-C5

b)

A2-B4-C5

c)

A1-B3-C2

d)

A2-B5-C1

23.

Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

1.     A. login B. service password-encryption C. ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0

D. copy running-config startup-configE. enable
1. R1(config)# 2. RI> 3. R1(config-router)# 4. RI# 5. R1(config-line)# 6. R1(config-if)#

a)

A5-B1-C6-D4-E2

b)

A1-B5-C6-D4-E2

c)

A5-B1-C4-D6-E2

d)

A5-B1-C6-D2-E4

24.

Match the IPv6 address with the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

A. link-local B. solicited node multicast C. global unicast D. all node multicast E. loopback F. unique local
1. 2001:DB8::BAF:3F57:FE94 2. FF02::1 3. ::1 4. FF02::1:FFAE:F85F

a)

C1-D2-E3-B4

b)

C2-D1-E3-A4

c)

C1-F2-E4-B3

d)

C4-D2-E3-B1

25.

Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)

1.     1. This organization is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation, domain name management, and protocol identifiers.
2. This organization is the largest developer of international standards in the world for a wide variety of products and services. It is known
for its Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
A. ISOC
B. ISO
3. This organization promotes the open development, evolution, and use C. EIA of the Internet throughout the world.
D. IANA

a)

1D-2B-3A

b)

1D-2C-3A

c)

1A-2D-3C

d)

1A-2B-3C

26.

Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?

a)

1 - rollover, 2-crossover, 3 - straight-through

b)

1 - rollover, 2-straight-through, 3 - crossover

c)

1-crossover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - rollover

d)

1 - crossover, 2 - rollover, 3 - straight-through

27.

Which IP address does the user PC target in order to forward its data off the local network?

a)

172.24.255.17

b)

172.24.1.22

c)

172.20.0.254

d)

172.24.255.4

e)

172.20.1.18

28.

With such a scheme, what is the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-site?

a)

0

b)

4

c)

16

d)

256

29.

What is wrong with the displayed termination?

a)

The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

b)

The wrong type of connector is being used.

c)

The untwisted length of each wire is too long.

d)

The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

30.

What type of cabling is shown?

a)

STP

b)

UTP

c)

coax

d)

fiber

31.

What will the switch do with the frame?

a)

The switch will discard the frame.

b)

The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.

c)

The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.

d)

The switch will forward the frame to all ports.

e)

The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.

32.

Which two statements correctly identify the addressing that Server will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

a)

A. ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

b)

B. ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchB.

c)

C. ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.

d)

D. ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterB

e)

E. ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of HostA.

33.

Considering the addresses already used and having to remain within the 10.16.10.0/24 network range, which subnet address could be assigned to the network containing 25 hosts?

a)

10.16.10.160/26

b)

10.16.10.224/26

c)

10.16.10.128/28

d)

10.16.10.240/27

e)

10.16.10.64/27

34.

Which subnet address could be assigned to the network containing 25 hosts?

a)

10.16.10.224/26

b)

10.16.10.64/27

c)

10.16.10.128/28

d)

10.16.10.240/27

e)

10.16.10.160/26

35.

What is the destination MAC address of the Ethernet frame as it leaves the web server if the final destination is PC1?

a)

00-60-2F-3A-07-AA

b)

00-60-2F-3A-07-BB

c)

00-60-2F-3A-07-CC

d)

00-60-2F-3A-07-DD

36.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

a)

172.16.16.255

b)

172.16.20.255

c)

172.16.19.255

d)

172.16.23.255

e)

172.16.255.255

37.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address will PC1 receive in the ARP reply?

a)

the MAC address of S1

b)

the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1

c)

the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2

d)

the MAC address of S2

e)

the MAC address of File_server1

38.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

a)

PC2

b)

R1

c)

SW2

d)

R2

e)

SW1

39.

What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
A. building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header

a)

building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header

b)

using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table

c)

forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway

d)

utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address

e)

examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

40.

What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)

a)

multicast

b)

loopback

c)

link-local

d)

anycast

e)

broadcast

41.

What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

a)

store-and-forward switching

b)

fast-forward switching

c)

CRC switching

d)

fragment-free switching

e)

QOS switching

42.

What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)

a)

performing error detection

b)

routing packets toward the destination

c)

encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer

d)

placement of frames on the media

e)

collision detection

43.

What are the two most commonly referenced fields in an IPv4 packet header that indicate where the packet is coming from and where it is going? (Choose two.)

a)

Destination IP address

b)

Protocol

c)

Time to live

d)

Differentiated Service (DS)

e)

Source IP address

44.

What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

a)

to store the routing table

b)

to retain contents when power is removed

c)

to store the startup configuration file

d)

to contain the running configuration file

e)

to store the ARP table

45.

What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

a)

It is not affected by EMI or RFI.

b)

Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.

c)

It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.

d)

It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.

e)

It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.

46.

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces
that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

a)

console interface

b)

Ethernet interface

c)

boot IOS mode

d)

privileged EXEC mode

e)

VTY interface

47.

A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical
financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

a)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network

b)

the type of traffic that is crossing the network

c)

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing

d)

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data

e)

the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet

48.

A network administrator is connecting two modern switches using a straight-through cable. The switches are
new and have never been configured. Which three statements are correct about the final result of the
connection? (Choose three.)

a)

A. The link between the switches will work at the fastest speed that is supported by both switches.

b)

B. The link between switches will work as full-duplex.

c)

C. If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own fastest speed.

d)

D. The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces eliminating the need for a crossover cable.

e)

E. The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the cable to a crossover cable

49.

When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is called:

a)

random error

b)

burst error

c)

inverted error

d)

double error

50.

Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)

a)

UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.

b)

UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.

c)

UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.

d)

UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.

e)

UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.

51.

Which three basic parts are common to all frame types supported by the data link layer? (Choose three.)

a)

MTU size

b)

data

c)

trailer

d)

type field

e)

header

52.

Which three fields are used in a UDP segment header? (Choose three.)

a)

Source Port

b)

Checksum

c)

Length

d)

Window Size

e)

Acknowledgment Number

53.

Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)

a)

SMTP

b)

FTP

c)

TFTP

d)

HTTP

e)

SNMP

54.

What are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.)

a)

meeting the reliability requirements of applications, if any

b)

multiplexing multiple communication streams from many users or applications on the same network

c)

formatting data into a compatible form for receipt by the destination devices

d)

identifying the applications and services on the client and server that should handle transmitted data

e)

directing packets towards the destination network

55.

What are three ways that media access control is used in networking? (Choose three.)

a)

Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.

b)

Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.

c)

Media access control provides placement of data frames onto the media.

d)

Contention-based access is also known as deterministic.

e)

802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.

56.

Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)

a)

The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.

b)

The destination address is unknown to the switch.

c)

The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.

d)

The source address in the frame is a multicast address.

e)

The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.

57.

Which two statements describe the services provided by the data link layer? (Choose two.)

a)

It provides reliable delivery through link establishment and flow control.

b)

It maintains the path between the source and destination devices during the data transmission.

c)

It ensures that application data will be transmitted according to the prioritization.

d)

It packages various Layer 3 PDUs into a frame format that is compatible with the network interface.

e)

It manages the access of frames to the network media.

58.

Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

a)

Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.

b)

Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.

c)

Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.

d)

Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.

e)

Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cables and laser technology for multimode cables.

59.

Which two applications would use the TCP transport layer protocol? (Choose two.)

a)

FTP

b)

HTTP

c)

ICMP

d)

TFTP

e)

VoIP

60.

Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

a)

packet forwarding

b)

microsegmentation

c)

domain name resolution

d)

path selection

e)

flow control

61.

Which two fields are the same in a TCP and UDP header? (Choose two.)

a)

Control bits

b)

Destination port number

c)

Sequence number

d)

Source port number

e)

Well-known port number

62.

Which two types of IPv6 messages are used in place of ARP for address resolution?

a)

broadcast

b)

neighbor solicitation

c)

neighbor advertisement

d)

anycast

e)

echo reply

63.

Which two protocols may devices use in the application process that sends email? (Choose two.)

a)

POP

b)

HTTP

c)

DNS

d)

SMTP

e)

IMAP

64.

Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

a)

Hosts

b)

Routers

c)

Servers

d)

Switches

65.

What two functions are provided by ARP? (Choose two.)

a)

Maintains a table of IPv4 to MAC address mappings

b)

Resolves IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

c)

Maintains a table of IPv4 address to domain names

d)

Resolves IPv4 addresses to domain names

e)

Maintains a table of IPv6 to MAC address mappings

66.

What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two)

a)

Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.

b)

On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.

c)

Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.

d)

Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network

e)

Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.

67.

What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

a)

building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header

b)

using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table

c)

forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway

d)

utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address

e)

examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

68.

What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?

a)

encapsulation

b)

flow control

c)

access method

d)

response timeout

69.

What term describes a type of network used by people who work from home or from a small remote office?

a)

SOHO network

b)

BYOD

c)

quality of service

d)

converged network

70.

What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

a)

Loopback

b)

Global unicast

c)

Link-local

d)

Unique local

71.

What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

a)

Broadcast

b)

Unicast

c)

Allcast

d)

multicast

72.

What type of network traffic requires QoS?

a)

email

b)

on-line purchasing

c)

video conferencing

d)

wiki

73.

What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?

a)

loopback

b)

link-local

c)

multicast

d)

global unicast

74.

What type of IPv6 address begins with fe80?

a)

GUA

b)

LLA

c)

Multicast address

d)

None. An IPv6 address must begin with 2001.

75.

What process does a device use to verify that its IPv6 address is unique on the network?

a)

DHCPv6

b)

SLAAC

c)

Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)

d)

Duplicate Address Detection (DAD)

76.

What is stored in the NVRAM of a Cisco router?

a)

The Cisco IOS

b)

The running configuration

c)

The bootup instructions

d)

The startup configuration

77.

What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

a)

logical address

b)

physical address

c)

data

d)

error detection

78.

What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to transmission?

a)

Sequencing

b)

Duplexing

c)

Multiplexing

d)

segmentation

79.

How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?

a)

enable class

b)

secret class

c)

enable secret cisco@12345

d)

service password-encryption

80.

How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with five connected networks?

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

81.

When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is called:

a)

random error

b)

burst error

c)

inverted error

d)

double error

82.

When transporting data from real-time applications, such as streaming audio and video, which field in the IPv6 header can be used to inform the routers and switches to maintain the same path for the packets in the same conversation?

a)

Next Header

b)

Flow Label

c)

Traffic Class

d)

Differentiated Services

83.

Where are IPv4 address to Layer 2 Ethernet address mappings maintained on a host computer?

a)

neighbor table

b)

ARP cache

c)

routing table

d)

MAC address table

84.

Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and features?

a)

Global configuration mode

b)

Interface subconfiguration mode

c)

Line console subconfiguration mode

d)

Privileged EXEC mode

e)

User EXEC mode

85.

Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

a)

the AUX interface

b)

the console port interface

c)

the switch virtual interface

d)

the first Ethernet port interface

86.

Which command can be used on a Cisco router to display all interfaces, the IPv4 address assigned, and the current status?

a)

show interface fa0/1

b)

show ip route

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

ping

87.

Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

a)

cut-through switching

b)

store-and-forward switching

c)

fragment-free switching

d)

fast-forward s

88.

Which ICMPv6 message is sent when the IPv6 hop limit field of a packet is decremented to zero and the packet cannot be forwarded?

a)

network unreachable

b)

time exceeded

c)

protocol unreachable

d)

port unreachable

89.

Which topology displays networking device layer IP addresses?

a)

Aerial topology

b)

IP address topology

c)

Logical topology

d)

Physical topology

90.

Which protocol is used by an FTP client to establish a control connection with the FTP server?

a)

TCP port 20

b)

TCP port 21

c)

UDP port 53

d)

TCP port 25

91.

Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?

a)

Bits

b)

Frame

c)

Packet

d)

Segment

92.

Which protocol at the transport layer provides reliable data delivery with error checking and flow control?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

IP

d)

ICMP

93.

Which protocol is used by the traceroute command to send and receive echo-requests and echo-replies?

a)

SNMP

b)

ICMP

c)

Telnet

d)

TCP

94.

Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

a)

a router

b)

a firewall

c)

a web server

d)

a DSL modem

95.

Which network device has the primary function to send data to a specific destination based on the information found in the MAC address table?

a)

Hub

b)

Router

c)

Switch

d)

Modem

96.

Which type of network topology lets you see the actual location of intermediary devices and cable installation?

a)

Physical topology

b)

Logical topology

97.

Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

a)

bits

b)

data

c)

frame

d)

packet

e)

segment

98.

Which field includes common values such as ICMP (1), TCP (6), and UDP (17)?

a)

Header Checksum

b)

Time to live

c)

Protocol

d)

Differentiated Service (DS)

99.

Which part of an Ethernet frame detects errors in the frame?

a)

Preamble

b)

Start of Frame Delimiter

c)

Frame Check Sequence

100.

Which address type is not supported in IPv6?

a)

Multicast

b)

Private

c)

Unicast

d)

Broadcast

101.

Which access method would be the most appropriate in-band access to the IOS over a network connection?

a)

Console

b)

Telnet/SSH

c)

Aux

102.

Which of the following techniques use native IPv6 connectivity?

a)

Dual stack

b)

Tunneling

c)

Translation

d)

All of the above

103.

Which of these is the name for the capacity of a medium to carry data?

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Throughput

c)

Goodput

104.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can travel approximately 100 km?

a)

Multimode

b)

Single-mode

105.

A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?

a)

limited broadcast

b)

multicast

c)

directed broadcast

d)

unicast

106.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

a)

SSH

b)

DHCP

c)

DNS

d)

TFTP

107.

A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to decode the received transmission?

a)

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

b)

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

c)

Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

d)

HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP

108.

A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?

a)

port-based buffering

b)

level 1 cache buffering

c)

shared memory buffering

d)

fixed configuration buffering

109.

A networking technician is working on the wireless network at a medical clinic. The technician accidentally sets up the wireless network so that patients can see the medical records data of other patients. Which of the four network characteristics has been violated in this situation?

a)

fault tolerance

b)

scalability

c)

security

d)

Quality of Service (QoS)

e)

reliability

110.

What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

a)

to inform routers about network topology changes

b)

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

c)

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions

d)

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

111.

UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Internet

d)

Network access

112.

An administrator measured the transfer of usable data across a 100 Mb/s physical channel over a given period of time and obtained 60 Mb/s. Which kind of measurement did the administrator obtain?

a)

Throughput

b)

Digital bandwidth

c)

Goodput

d)

Latency

113.

What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?

a)

The contents of ROM will change.

b)

The contents of RAM will change.

c)

The contents of NVRAM will change.

d)

The contents of flash will change.

114.

What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?

a)

to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts

b)

to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus addresses

c)

to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address

d)

to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests

115.

What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?

a)

A. to obtain the MAC address of the sending node

b)

B. to verify the logical address of the sending node

c)

C. to compute the CRC header for the data field

d)

D. to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception

116.

What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

a)

A. the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface

b)

B. a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

c)

C. an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

d)

    D. an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

117.

What is the loopback address used for in IPv4 networking?

a)

A. To route packets to a different network

b)

B. To test if the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly

c)

C. To identify the default gateway

d)

D. To assign a dynamic IP address

118.

What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?

a)

A. to verify the integrity of the received frame

b)

B. to verify the physical address in the frame

c)

C. to verify the logical address in the frame

d)

D. to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame

119.

What is the primary purpose of the ICMP protocol?

a)

A. To route packets across different networks

b)

B. To provide feedback about issues related to IP packet processing

c)

C. To encrypt data before transmission

d)

D. To assign IP addresses to devices

120.

What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

a)

A. the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

b)

B. the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection

c)

C. the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable

d)

   D. the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

121.

What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

a)

A. the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

b)

B. the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection

c)

C. the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable

d)

D. the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

122.

What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?

a)

A. Different SMB message types have a different format.

b)

B. Clients establish a long term connection to servers.

c)

C. SMB messages cannot authenticate a session

d)

D. SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.