WorksheetsNWC204
Total questions: 162
Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins
How many host addresses are available on the 192.168.10.128/26 network?
A. 30
B. 32
C. 60
D. 62
E. 64
What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
A. /28
B. /27
C. /26
D. /25
What is the recommended prefix length for most IPv6 subnets?
A. /32
B. /48
C. /64
D. /128
How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?
Number of usable IPs = 2^number of host bits - 2
A. 254
B. 30
C. 256
D. 16
E. 62
How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 1024
E. 2046
A network administrator has received the IPv6 prefix 2001:DB8::/48 for subnetting. Assuming the administrator does not subnet into the interface ID portion of the address space, how many subnets can the administrator create from the /48 prefix?
A. 16
B. 256
C. 4096
D. 65536
A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?
A. 1 segment
B. 10 segments
C. 100 segments
D. 1000 segments
Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.11.12.100 255.255.255.0. What is the network address of Host-A?
Network Address = IP Address AND Subnet Mask
A. 10.0.0.0
B. 10.11.0.0
C. 10.11.12.0
D. 10.11.12.100
What is the special value assigned to the first 24 bits of a multicast MAC address transporting an IPv4 packet?
A. 01-00-5E
B. FF-00-5E
C. 01-5E-00
D. FF-FF-FF
A. 01-00-5E
B. FF-00-5E
C. 01-5E-00
D. FF-FF-FF
Which address is a valid IPv6 link-local unicast address?
A. FEC8:1::FFFF
B. FD80::1:1234
C. FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1
D. FEOA::100:7788:998F
E. FC90:5678:4251:FFFF
Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 255.255.255.255
C. FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
D. AAAA.AAAA.AAAA
E. the physical address of the destination host
Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is changed to /52?
A. 2001:db8:0:100::/52
B. 2001:db8:0:8000::/52
C. 2001:db8:0:f::/52
D. 2001:db8:0:f000::/52
An administrator wants to create four subnetworks from the network address 192.168.1.0/24. What is the network address and subnet mask of the second useable subnet?
A. subnetwork 192.168.1.64 subnet mask 255.255.255.192
B. subnetwork 192.168.1.32 subnet mask 255.255.255.240
C. subnetwork 192.168.1.64 subnet mask 255.255.255.240
D. subnetwork 192.168.1.128 subnet mask 255.255.255.192
E. subnetwork 192.168.1.8 subnet mask 255.255.255.224
(Choose 1 answer)
An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are used.)
A. A5-B2-C4-D3
B. A1-B2-C3-D4
C. A2-B1-C4-D3
D. A5-B1-C2-D3
(Choose 1 answer)
For the TCP/IP protocol suite, what is the correct order of events when a Telnet message is being prepared to be sent over the network?
A. 1C-2B-3D-4A
B. 1C-2D-3B-4A
C. 1A-2B-3C-4D
D. 1B-2A-3D-4C
Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)
A. 1D-2B-3A
B. 1D-2C-3A
C. 1A-2D-3C
D. 1A-2B-3C
(Choose 1 answer)
Match the IPv6 address with the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)
A. C1-D2-E3-B4
B. C2-D1-E3-A4
C. C1-F2-E4-B3
D. C4-D2-E3-B1
(Choose 1 answer)
Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)
A. A5-B1-C6-D4-E2
B. A1-B5-C6-D4-E2
C. A5-B1-C4-D6-E2
D. A5-B1-C6-D2-E4
(Choose 1 answer)
Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)
A. A4-B2-C5
B. A2-B4-C5
C. A1-B3-C2
D. A2-B5-C1
(Choose 1 answer)
Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network architecture. (Not all options are used.)
A. A2-B4-C1
B. A2-B1-C4
C. A1-B5-C3
D. A3-B2-C4
(Choose 1 answer)
Match each IPv4 address to the appropriate address category. (Not all options are used.)
A. A1-A2-B3-B4-C5-C6
B. A3-A4-B1-B2-C5-C6
C. A5-A6-B3-B4-C1-C2
D. A3-A6-B2-B4-C1-C5
(Choose 1 answer)
Match the commands to the correct actions. (Not all options are used.)
A. A3-B5-C1
B. A2-B3-C4
C. A1-B2-C3
D. A4-B1-C5
(Choose 1 answer)
Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.
A. 3A-5A-1B-6B-2C-4C
B. 3A-5A-2B-4B-1C-6C
C. 1A-6A-3B-5B-2C-4C
D. 1A-6A-2B-4B-3C-5C
A. 3A-5A-1B-6B-2C-4C
B. 3A-5A-2B-4B-1C-6C
C. 1A-6A-3B-5B-2C-4C
D. 1A-6A-2B-4B-3C-5C
(Choose 1 answer)
Three methods allow IPv6 and IPv4 to co-exist. Match each method with its description. (Not all options are used.)
A. A4-B3-C2
B. A3-B2-C2
C. A2-B3-C1
D. A1-B3-C4
Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet link: Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?
A. 1-rollover, 2 - crossover, 3 - straight-through
B. 1-rollover, 2 straight-through, 3 - crossover
C. 1- crossover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - rollover
D. 1 - crossover, 2 - rollover, 3 - straight-through
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?
A. 172.16.16.255
B. 172.16.20.255
C. 172.16.19.255
D. 172.16.23.255
E. 172.16.255.255
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
A. PC2
B. R1
C. SW2
D. R2
E. SW1
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address will PC1 receive in the ARP reply?
A. the MAC address of S1
B. the MAC address of the GO/0 interface on R1
C. the MAC address of the GO/0 interface on R2
D. the MAC address of S2
E. the MAC address of File_server1
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?
A. 172.16.16.255
B. 172.16.20.255
C. 172.16.19.255
D. 172.16.23.255
E. 172.16.255.255
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination MAC address of the Ethernet frame as it leaves the web server if the final destination is PC1?
A. 00-60-2F-3A-07-AA
B. 00-60-2F-3A-07-BB
C. 00-60-2F-3A-07-CC
D. 00-60-2F-3A-07-DD
Refer to the exhibit. Considering the addresses already used and having to remain within the 10.16.10.0/24 network range, which subnet address could be assigned to the network containing 25 hosts?
A. 10.16.10.160/26
B. 10.16.10.128/28
C. 10.16.10.64/27
D. 10.16.10.224/26
E. 10.16.10.240/27
Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?
A. It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
B. It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
C. It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
D. It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. The switch will discard the frame.
B. The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
C. The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
D. The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
E. The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
A. STP
B. UTP
C. coax
D. fiber
Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?
A. The woven copper braid should not have been removed.
B. The wrong type of connector is being used.
C. The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
D. The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.
Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for its network. The company design document indicates that the subnet portion of the IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical network design, with the site subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of the company, the sub-site section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the s ubnet section to indicate each network segment separated by routers. With such a scheme, what is the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-site?
A. 0
B. 4
C. 16
D. 256
Refer to the exhibit. A user PC has successfully transmitted packets to www.cisco.com. Which IP address does the user PC target in order
to forward its data off the local network?
A. 172.24.255.17
B. 172.24.1.22
C. 172.20.0.254
D. 172.24.255.4
E. 172.20.1.18
What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. multicast
B. loopback
C. link-local
D. anycast
E. broadcast
What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)
A. store-and-forward switching
B. fast-forward switching
C. CRC switching
D. fragment-free switching
E. QOS switching
What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)
A. performing error detection
B. routing packets toward the destination
C. encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer media
D. placement of frames on the media
E. collision detection
What are the two most commonly referenced fields in an IPv4 packet header that indicate where the packet is coming from and where it is going? (Choose two.)
A. Destination IP address
B. Protocol
C. Time to live
D. Differentiated Service (DS)
E. Source IP address
What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
A. to store the routing table
B. to retain contents when power is removed
C. to store the startup configuration file
D. to contain the running configuration file
E. to store the ARP table
What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)
A. It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
B. Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
C. It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.
D. It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
E. It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.
What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
A. building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header
B. using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table
C. forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway
D. utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address
E. examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table
What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)
A. Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.
B. On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.
C. Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.
D. Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.
E. Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.
What two functions are provided by ARP? (Choose two.)
A. Maintains a table of IPv4 address to domain names
B. Maintains a table of IPv4 to MAC address mappings
C. Maintains a table of IPv6 to MAC address mappings
D. Resolves IPv4 addresses to domain names
E. Resolves IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)
A. Hosts
B. Routers
C. Servers
D. Switches
Which two protocols may devices use in the application process that sends email? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. SMTP
C. POP
D. IMAP
E. DNS
Which two types of IPv6 messages are used in place of ARP for address resolution?
(Choose 2 answers)
F. neighbor advertisement
B. broadcast
C. echo reply
D. echo request
E. neighbor solicitation
Which two fields are the same in a TCP and UDP header? (Choose two.)
A. Control bits
B. Destination port number
C. Sequence number
D. Source port number
E. Well-known port number
Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
A. packet forwarding
B. microsegmentation
C. domain name resolution
D. path selection
E. flow control
Which two applications would use the TCP transport layer protocol? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. ICMP
D. TFTP
E. VoIP
Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)
A. Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
B. Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
C. Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
D. Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
E. Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cables and laser technology for multimode cables.
Which two statements describe the services provided by the data link layer? (Choose two.)
A. It defines the end-to-end delivery addressing scheme.
B. It maintains the path between the source and destination devices during the data transmission.
C. It manages the access of frames to the network media.
D. It provides reliable delivery through link establishment and flow control.
F. It packages various Layer 3 PDUs into a frame format that is compatible with the network interface.
Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)
A. The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.
B. The destination address is unknown to the switch.
C. The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.
D. The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
E. The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.
Refer to the exhibit. ServerB is attempting to contact HostA. Which two statements correctly identify the addressing that ServerB will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A. ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.
B. ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchB.
C. ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.
D. ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterB.
E. ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of HostA.
What are three ways that media access control is used in networking? (Choose three.)
A. Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.
B. Media access control provides placement of data frames onto the media.
C. Contention-based access is also known as deterministic.
D. 802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.
E. Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.
What are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.)
A. meeting the reliability requirements of applications, if any
B. multiplexing multiple communication streams from many users or applications on the same network
C. identifying the applications and services on the client and server that should handle transmitted data
D. directing packets towards the destination network
E. formatting data into a compatible form for receipt by the destination devices
Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. FTP
C. SNMP
D. HTTP
E. TFTP
Which three fields are used in a UDP segment header? (Choose three.)
A. Window Size
B. Length
C. Source Port
D. Acknowledgment Number
E. Checksum
Which three basic parts are common to all frame types supported by the data link layer? (Choose three.)
A. header
B. type field
C. PERSON size
D. data
E. trailer
Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
A. UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.
B. UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
C. UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
D. UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.
E. UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is called:
A. random error
B. burst error
C. inverted error
D. double error
A network administrator is connecting two modern switches using a straight-through cable. The switches are new and have never been configured. Which three statements are correct about the final result of the connection? (Choose three.)
A. The link between the switches will work at the fastest speed that is supported by both switches.
B. The link between switches will work as full-duplex.
C. If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own fastest speed.
D. The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces eliminating the need for a crossover cable.
E. The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the cable to a crossover cable.
A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)
A. the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
B. the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
C. the type of traffic that is crossing the network
D. the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
E. the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
A. VTY interface
B. console interface
C. Ethernet interface
D. boot IOS mode
E. privileged EXEC mode
What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to transmission?
A. Sequencing
B. Duplexing
C. Multiplexing
D. segmentation
What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
A. logical address
B. physical address
C. data
D. error detection
What is stored in the NVRAM of a Cisco router?
A. The Cisco IOS
B. The running configuration
C. The bootup instructions
D. The startup configuration
What process does a device use to verify that its IPv6 address is unique on the network?
A. DHCPv6
B. SLAAC
C. Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)
D. Duplicate Address Detection (DAD)
What type of IPv6 address begins with fe80?
A.
B. LLA
C. Multicast address
D. None. An IPv6 address must begin with 2001.
What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
A. loopback
B. link-local
C. multicast
D. global unicast
What type of network traffic requires QoS?
A. email
B. on-line purchasing
C. video conferencing
D. wiki
What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?
A. Broadcast
B. Unicast
C. Allcast
D. multicast
What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?
A. Loopback
B. Global unicast
C. Link-local
D. Unique local
What term describes a type of network used by people who work from home or from a small remote office?
A. SOHO network
B. BYOD
C. quality of service
D. converged network
What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?
A. encapsulation
B. flow control
C. access method
D. response timeout
Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can travel approximately 100 km?
A. Multimode
B. Single-mode
Which of these is the name for the capacity of a medium to carry data?
A. Bandwidth
B. Throughput
C. Goodput
Which of the following techniques use native IPv6 connectivity?
A. Dual stack
B. Tunelling
C. Translation
D. All of the above
Which access method would be the most appropriate in-band access to the IOS over a network connection?
A. Console
B. Telnet/SSH
C. Aux
Which address type is not supported in IPv6?
A. Multicast
B. Private
C. Unicast
D. Broadcast
Which part of an Ethernet frame detects errors in the frame?
A. Preamble
B. Start of Frame Delimiter
C. Frame Check Sequence
Which field includes common values such as ICMP (1), TCP (6), and UDP (17)?
A. Headrer Checksum
B. Time to live
C. Protocol
D. Differentiated Service (DS)
Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?
A. bits
B. data
C. frame
D. packet
E. segment
Which type of network topology lets you see the actual location of intermediary devices and cable installation?
A. Physical topology
B. Logical topology
Which network device has the primary function to send data to a specific destination based on the information found in the MAC address table?
A. Hub
B. Router
C. Switch
D. Modem
Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?
A. a router
B. a firewall
C. a web server
D. a DSL modem
Which protocol is used by the traceroute command to send and receive echo-requests and echo-replies?
A. SNMP
B. ICMP
C. Telnet
D. TCP
Which protocol at the transport layer provides reliable data delivery with error checking and flow control?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. ICMP
Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?
A. Bits
B. Frame
C. Packet
D. Segment
Which protocol is used by an FTP client to establish a control connection with the FTP server?
A. TCP port 20
B. TCP port 21
C. UDP port 53
D. TCP port 25
Which topology displays networking device layer IP addresses?
A. Aerial topology
B. IP address topology
C. Logical topology
D. Physical topology
Which ICMPv6 message is sent when the IPv6 hop limit field of a packet is decremented to zero and the packet cannot be forwarded?
A. network unreachable
B. time exceeded
C. protocol unreachable
D. port unreachable
Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?
A. cut-through switching
B. store-and-forward switching
C. fragment-free switching
D. fast-forward switching
Which command can be used on a Cisco router to display all interfaces, the IPv4 address assigned, and the current status?
A. show interface fa0/1
B. show ip route
C. show ip interface brief
D. ping
Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?
A. the AUX interface
B. the console port interface
C. the switch virtual interface
D. the first Ethernet port interface
Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and features?
A. Global configuration mode
B. Interface subconfiguration mode
C. Line console subconfiguration mode
D. Privileged EXEC mode
E. User EXEC mode
Where are IPv4 address to Layer 2 Ethernet address mappings maintained on a host computer?
A. neighbor table
B. ARP cache
C. routing table
D. MAC address table
When transporting data from real-time applications, such as streaming audio and video, which field in the IPv6 header can be used to inform the routers and switches to maintain the same path for the packets in the same conversation?
A. Next Header
B. Flow Label
C. Traffic Class
D. Differentiated Services
When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is called:
A. random error
B. burst error
C. inverted error
D. double error
How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with five connected networks?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?
A. enable class
B. secret class
C. enable secret cisco@12345
D. service password-encryption
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?
A. SSH
B. DHCP
C. DNS
D. TFTP
A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?
A. limited broadcast
B. multicast
C. directed broadcast
D. unicast
A networking technician is working on the wireless network at a medical clinic. The technician accidentally sets up the wireless network so that patients can see the medical records data of other patients. Which of the four network characteristics has been violated in this situation?
A. fault tolerance
B. scalability
C. security
D. Quality of Service (QoS)
E. reliability
A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?
A. port-based buffering
B. level 1 cache buffering
C. shared memory buffering
D. fixed configuration buffering
A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to decode the received transmission?
A. Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
B. HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
C. Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
D. HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP
An administrator measured the transfer of usable data across a 100 Mb/s physical channel over a given period of time and obtained 60 Mb/s. Which kind of measurement did the administrator obtain?
A. Throughput
B. Digital bandwidth
C. Goodput
D. Latency
UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Internet
D. Network access
What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
A. to inform routers about network topology changes
B. to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
C. to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
D. to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?
A. to obtain the MAC address of the sending node
B. to verify the logical address of the sending node
C. to compute the CRC header for the data field
D. to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception
What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?
A. to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts
B. to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus addresses
C. to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address
D. to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests
What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
A. The contents of ROM will change.
B. The contents of RAM will change.
C. The contents of NVRAM will change.
D. The contents of flash will change.
What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?
A. to verify the integrity of the received frame
B. to verify the physical address in the frame
C. to verify the logical address in the frame
D. to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame
What is the loopback address used for in IPv4 networking?
A. To route packets to a different network
B. To test if the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly
C. To identify the default gateway
D. To assign a dynamic IP address
What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?
A. the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface
B. a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address
C. an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server
D. an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface
What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?
A. Different SMB message types have a different format.
B. Clients establish a long term connection to servers.
C. SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.
D. SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.
What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
A. the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
B. the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection
C. the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
D. the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected
What is the primary purpose of the ICMP protocol?
A. To route packets across different networks
B. To provide feedback about issues related to IP packet processing
C. To encrypt data before transmission
D. To assign IP addresses to devices
What is the default gateway used for in a network?
A. To route traffic to local devices
B. To assign IP addresses dynamically
C. To route traffic to devices on another network
D. To provide DNS services
What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
A. create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
B. provide physical addressing to the devices
C. determine the path packets take through the network
D. control data access to the media
What is the main purpose of a subnet mask in IPv4 addressing?
A. To identify the gateway of the network
B. To determine the network and host portions of an IP address
C. To provide security by masking IP addresses
D. To route packets between networks
What is the purpose of the Neighbor Solicitation (NS) message in ICMPv6?
A. To discover the MAC address of a neighboring device
B. To request an IPv6 address from a router
C. To check the reachability of a host
D. To test the link quality
What is a function of the tracert command that differs from the ping command when they are used on a workstation?
A. The tracert command reaches the destination faster.
B. The tracert command shows the information of routers in the path.
C. The tracert command sends one ICMP message to each hop in the path.
D. The tracert command is used to test the connectivity between two devices.
What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a configuration file?
A. (config)# enable password secret
B. (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
C. (config-line)# password secret
D. (config)# service password-encryption
E. (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password
What characteristic describes spyware?
A. software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
B. an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
C. the use of stolen credentials to access private data
D. a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
What does the "Time Exceeded" ICMP message indicate?
A. The destination host is down
B. The packet's TTL has reached zero
C. The source address is unreachable
D. The network is congested
What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?
A. It just sends the datagrams.
B. It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.
C. It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.
D. It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.
What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?
A. It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
B. It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
C. It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
D. It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.
What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
A. The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
B. Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
C. The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
D. The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.
What property of ARP causes cached IP-to-MAC mappings to remain in memory longer?
A. Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
B. A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be entered manually into an ARP table.
C. The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
D. The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the switch.
What source IP address does a router use by default when the traceroute command is issued?
A. the highest configured IP address on the router
B. a loopback IP address
C. the IP address of the outbound interface
D. the lowest configured IP address on the router
What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol?
A. ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network.
B. ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network.
C. ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network.
D. ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network.
What destination MAC address would be included in a frame sent from a source device to a destination device on a remote local network?
A. A broadcast MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.
B. The MAC address of the destination device.
C. The MAC address of the local router interface.
What type of applications are best suited for using UDP?
A. applications that are sensitive to delay
B. applications that need reliable delivery
C. applications that require retransmission of lost segments
D. applications that are sensitive to packet loss
What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a unicast destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?
A. It will discard the frame.
B. It will forward the frame to the next host.
C. It will remove the frame from the media.
D. It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.
What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?
A. The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
B. The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
C. The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
D. The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
E. A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
Which is true of the IPv6 packet header?
A. The Hop Limit field replaces the IPv4 Time to Live field.
B. The Source and Destination IPv6 addresses change while travelling from source to destination.
C. The Time to Live field replaces the DiffServ field.
D. The Version field identifies the next header.
Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?
A. the AUX interface
B. the console port interface
C. the switch virtual interface
D. the first Ethernet port interface
Which factor determines TCP window size?
A. the amount of data to be transmitted
B. the number of services included in the TCP segment
C. the amount of data the destination can process at one time
D. the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time
Which statement is correct about network protocols?
A. Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.
B. They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.
C. They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
ID. They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.
Which statement describes a feature of the IP protocol?
A. IP encapsulation is modified based on network media.
B. IP relies on Layer 2 protocols for transmission error control.
C. MAC addresses are used during the IP packet encapsulation.
D. IP relies on upper layer services to handle situations of missing or out-of-order packets.
Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?
A. Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
B. Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
C. Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.
D. Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
Which statement describes the half-duplex mode of data transmission?
A. Data that is transmitted over the network can only flow in one direction.
B. Data that is transmitted over the network flows in both directions at the same time.
C. Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction to many different destinations simultaneously.
D. Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction at a time.
Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?
A. New "smart" electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.
B. A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.
C. A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.
D. Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.
Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header fields of the data link layer?
A. They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.
B. Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and destination addresses.
C. They vary depending on protocols.
D. They include information on user applications.
Which statement is true about the CSMA/CD access method that is used in Ethernet?
A. When a device hears a carrier signal and transmits, a collision cannot occur.
B. A jamming signal causes only devices that caused the collision to execute a backoff algorithm.
C. All network devices must listen before transmitting.
D. Devices involved in a collision get priority to transmit after the backoff period.
Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
A. A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
B. A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
C. A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
D. A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.
Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
A. to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
B. to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
C. to enable the switch to be managed remotely
D. to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCS
Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?
A. Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of internal networks.
B. Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.
C. The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6 header improves packet handling by intermediate routers.
D. The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the Internet.
How is SSH different from Telnet?
A. SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access.
B. SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and using user authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext.
C. SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be used to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.
D. SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is used to connect to a device from a console connection.
How are port numbers used in the TCP/IP encapsulation process?
A. Source port numbers and destination port numbers are not necessary when UDP is the transport layer protocol being used for the communication.
B. Source port and destination port numbers are randomly generated.
C. If multiple conversations occur that are using the same service, the source port number is used to track the separate conversations.
D. Destination port numbers are assigned automatically and cannot be changed.
A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?
A. Reboot the device.
B. Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
C. Exit global configuration mode.
D. Power cycle the device.
E. Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.
A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?
A. The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
B. The computer has an invalid IP address.
C. The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The computer has an invalid default gateway address.
A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?
A. the TCP/IP stack on a network host
B. connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
C. connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
D. connectivity between two PCs on the same network
E. physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?
A. This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.
B. This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.
C. This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.
D. This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.
E. This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router maintenance.
A user executes a traceroute over IPv6. At what point would a router in the path to the destination device drop the packet?
A. when the value of the Hop Limit field reaches 255
B. when the value of the Hop Limit field reaches zero
C. when the router receives an ICMP time exceeded message
D. when the target host responds with an ICMP echo reply message
A small advertising company has a web server that provides critical business service. The company connects to the Internet through a leased line service to an ISP. Which approach best provides cost effective redundancy for the Internet connection?
A. Add a second NIC to the web server.
B. Add another web server to prepare failover support.
C. Add a connection to the Internet via a DSL line to another ISP.
D. Add multiple connections between the switches and the edge router.
The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?
A. The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.
B. The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
C. The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
D. The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.
With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
A. the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
B. the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
C. the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
D. the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
Within a production network, what is the purpose of configuring a switch with a default gateway address?
A. Hosts that are connected to the switch can use the switch default gateway address to forward packets to a remote destination.
B. A switch must have a default gateway to be accessible by Telnet and SSH.
C. The default gateway address is used to forward packets originating from the switch to remote networks.
D. It provides a next-hop address for all traffic that flows through the switch.
