wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Grand Rounds Review Summer 2025

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 7-year-old patient presents with blurry vision in the left eye. Cycloplegic refraction reveals OD: +1.00 sph OS: +4.50 sph. BCVA is OD 20/20 and OS 20/40. Worth 4-dot testing shows 2 dots. What explains the patient’s binocular status?

a)

Central suppression of the right eye at near

b)

Central suppression of the right eye at near

c)

Foveal suppression of the left eye

d)

Normal binocular fusion with reduced stereoacuity

2.

Which of the following would increase retinal image size? 

a)

Decreasing axial length 

b)

Increasing axial length 

c)

Placing a high-minus lens at the spectacle plane 

d)

Using a contact lens rather than a spectacle lens

3.

Knapp’s Law predicts that retinal image sizes will be equalized in axial anisometropia when corrective lenses are placed: 

a)

Contact lenses are place directly on the cornea 

b)

Spectacle lenses with a 10 mm vertex distance 

c)

Spectacle lenses with the smallest possible vertex distance 

d)

Spectacle lenses with a 15-17 mm vertex distance

4.

Your 60-year-old patient is diagnosed with an acute PVD without any associated retinal breaks. What is the most appropriate next step in management? 

a)

Vitrectomy 

b)

Prescribe topical corticosteroids 

c)

Follow up in 4-6 weeks for a dilated fundus exam 

d)

Urgent referral to retinal specialist 

5.

Which of the following is a likely complication of a PVD?

a)

Macular edema

b)

Retinal tear or detachment

c)

Uveitis

d)

Branch retinal vein occlusion

6.

Which of the following sites is the strongest attachment of the vitreous and is most likely to remain attached even after a complete PVD? 

a)

Optic nerve head

b)

Posterior lens capsule

c)

Vitreous base

7.

Which of the following is NOT a likely risk factor for early onset PVD? 

a)

Hyperopia 

b)

Myopia 

c)

Trauma 

d)

Inflammation 

8.

Hallmark sign of Dry AMD?

a)

Drusen

b)

Choroidal Nevi

c)

Microaneurysm

d)

Tortuous vessels

9.

Which of the following is found in AMD?

a)

Intraretinal fluid

b)

Iris Neovascularization

c)

Optic nerve hypoplasia

d)

Subretinal fluid

10.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of AMD? Select 2 that apply:

a)

Posterior Subcapsular Cataract

b)

Macular edema

c)

Myopic Shift

d)

Loss of central vision

11.

Which of the following is typically NOT a diagnostic method for AMD?

a)

OCT

b)

Retinoscopy

c)

Dilated Fundus examination

d)

Fundus Autofluorescence

12.

Wet stage macular degeneration will eventually progress to dry stage which is the more severe form of macular degeneration. True or false?

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Wet stage macular degeneration will eventually progress to dry stage which is the more severe form of macular degeneration. True or false?

a)

540-570 nm

b)

460-480 nm

c)

680-700 nm

d)

740-700 nm

14.

The uveal tunic is comprised of

a)

Choroid, retina, iris

b)

Sclera, Choroid, Ciliary body

c)

Choroid, retina, sclera

d)

Choroid, iris, ciliary body

15.

Upon using the red free filter imaging choroidal pigment, what will happen to the pigment?

a)

Will remain as it was

b)

Will disappear

c)

Will appear darker

d)

Will appear lighter

16.

The main concern for a choroidal nevus is

a)

Choroidal nevi are never a concern and do not need to be monitored

b)

Choroidal nevi always will cause a retinal detachment

c)

Choroidal Nevi often cause a uveitis

d)

The development of a choroidal melanoma

17.

What is the first and most common structure choroidal melanoma will metastasize to when they become malignant?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidneys

c)

Pancreas

d)

Colon

18.

Which of the following is a hallmark presentation of acanthamoeba keratitis? 

a)

Dendrite 

b)

Corneal ectasia 

c)

Ring-like stromal infiltrate 

d)

Fingerprint pattern 

19.

What treatment should NOT be used on a patient with Acanthameoba Keratitis? 

a)

Steroids 

b)

Biguanide (pool cleaner) 

c)

Diamidine 

d)

NSAIDs 

20.

What of the following should be done to prevent acanthamoeba infection? 

a)

Ensure contact lenses are stored in saline overnight 

b)

Wear contact lenses for a minimum of 10 hours a day 

c)

Use a hydrogen peroxide cleaning solution like ClearCare 

d)

Rub the contact lenses on the palm of your hand with a drop of water to clean them 

21.

What are the 2 most common causes of INO? 

a)

Lupus and Sjogren’s 

b)

Demyelinating disease and brain infarction 

c)

Conjunctivitis and corneal abrasion 

d)

Retinal detachment and diabetic retinopathy 

22.

What is a key feature of INO? 

a)

Esotropia 

b)

Inability to intort 

c)

Contralateral abducting nystagmus 

d)

Lid retraction 

23.

Which of the following is NOT a differential diagnosis of INO? 

a)

Myasthenia gravis 

b)

Thyroid eye disease 

c)

Cranial nerve 3 palsy 

d)

Blepharospasm 

24.

Why would you want to test the convergence of a patient with INO? 

a)

To better localize the lesion 

b)

To determine what prescription to give them 

c)

To determine their prognosis 

d)

To see which EOMs were affected 

25.

What percentage of the crystalline lens is composed of water?  

a)

35% 

b)

50% 

c)

65%

d)

90% 

26.

What embryological cell type gives rise to every part of the crystalline lens?  

a)

Mesoderm 

b)

Endoderm 

c)

Neural ectoderm 

d)

Surface ectoderm 

27.

Which of the following is a classic sign of aphakia due to the lack of posterior support from the lens? 

a)

Miosis 

b)

Iridodonesis 

c)

Proptosis 

d)

Nystagmus 

28.

What is a disadvantage of correcting aphakia with spectacles? 

a)

Jack in the box effect 

b)

Reduced risk of infection 

c)

Less aniseikonia 

d)

Wider field of view 

29.

A patient with a right CN IV palsy would typically exhibit which of the following in primary gaze? 

a)

Left hypertropia 

b)

Right hypertropia 

c)

Esotropia 

d)

Exotropia 

30.

Increased vertical vergences (greater than 6 prism diopters base-up/base-down difference) often suggest which etiology of a vertical deviation? 

a)

Acute traumatic injury 

b)

Recent onset cranial nerve palsy 

c)

Congenital defect or long-standing condition 

d)

Ischemic event affecting the brainstem 

31.

Consider a patient presenting with a Left Hypertropia (LHT) in primary gaze that is greater in right gaze and greater with a left head tilt. According to Parks' 3-Step test, which muscle is most likely paretic? 

a)

Left superior oblique 

b)

Left inferior oblique 

c)

Right inferior rectus 

d)

Left superior rectus 

32.

Which of the following is a common cause of acquired CN IV palsy in adults? 

a)

Congenital absence of the trochlear nerve 

b)

Arnold-Chiari malformation 

c)

Trauma, often closed head injury 

d)

Duane syndrome 

33.

A patient with a suspected CN IV palsy also presents with a complete ptosis and a dilated pupil in the same eye. This finding is most suggestive of a palsy of which cranial nerve?

a)

Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) 

b)

Cranial nerve II (Optic) 

c)

Cranial nerve VI (Abducens) 

d)

Cranial nerve V (Trigeminal) 

34.

Which of the following is most helpful for confirming the diagnosis of retinal collateral vessels?

a)

Fundus autofluorescence

b)

Fluorescein angiography

c)

Visual field testing

d)

Electroretinography

35.

  1. Which of the following is most true about retinal collateral vessels?

a)

    They are unilateral and often leak fluid

b)

    They are found in both eyes and cross the fovea

c)

   They are unilateral and do not leak on FA

d)

   They are commonly associated with diabetic retinopathy

36.

  Retinal collaterals are best described as:


a)

   New vessels that form due to VEGF and hypoxia

b)

    Arterial loops around the optic nerve

c)

    Venous shunts that bypass blocked veins

d)

    Persistent fetal vasculature

37.

  1. Which population is most commonly affected by Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis?


a)

  • Elderly women

b)

  • Prepubescent boys

c)

  • Infants

d)

  • No age predilection

38.

     Which of the following corneal findings are typical of Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis?


a)

  • Pannus

b)

  • Shield Ulcers

c)

Photokeratitis

d)

  • Dystrophy

39.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment to promote corneal healing and reduce inflammation in Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis?


a)

  • Topical Corticosteroid

b)

  • Preservative Free Artificial Tears

c)

  • Mast Cell Stabilizer

d)

  • Antihistamine 

40.

Which of the following is the primary cause of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?

a)

Deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase

b)

Alcohol exposure during pregnancy

c)

Genetic mutation on chromosome 22

d)

Bacterial infection during gestation

41.

A key ocular manifestation commonly observed in patients with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome, often characterized by shortened horizontal eyelid openings, is known as:

a)

A) Epicanthal folds

b)

Ptosis

c)

Blepharophimosis

d)

Telecanthus

42.

The hypothetical mechanism by which ethanol causes birth defects in Fetal Alcohol Syndrome primarily involves its competition with which essential nutrient for an enzyme necessary in embryonic development?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Retinoic acid

d)

Vitamin A

43.

A 3-year-old child presents with global developmental delay and a "blonde fundus." Which of the following conditions would be a primary metabolic differential diagnosis for these ocular findings?

a)

DiGeorge Syndrome

b)

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

c)

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

d)

Down Syndrome

44.

When performing a comprehensive eye examination on a 3-year-old child, visual acuity (VA) is typically measured using which method?

a)

Snellen letters

b)

Tumbling E chart

c)

LEA Symbols

45.

Which of the following findings is most strongly associated with normal tension glaucoma (NTG) compared to high-tension POAG?

a)

Elevated intraocular pressure above 21 mmHg

b)

Corneal guttata and pigment dispersion

c)

Drance hemorrhages at the optic disc margin

d)

Bilateral optic disc edema

46.

Which of the following is a key clinical feature that helps differentiate compressive optic neuropathy at the chiasm from NTG?

a)

Normal interocular pressure

b)

Visual field defects that respect the vertical meridian

c)

Large optic disc cupping with bilateral presentation

d)

Absence of color vision changes

47.

3. Before diagnosing a patient with NTG, which of the following must be ruled out?

a)

Retinal detachment and vitreous hemorrhage

b)

Cataract

c)

Compressive and ischemic optic neuropathies

d)

Diabetic Retinopathy

48.

Which systemic condition has the strongest documented association with normal tension glaucoma (NTG)?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)

c)

Chronic kidney disease

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

49.

What is the recommended treatment for an internal hordeolum involving the Meibomian glands?

a)

Erythromycin ointment only 

b)

Warm compresses and Tobradex 

c)

Cephalexin, Augmentin or Doxycycline orally 

d)

Hypochlorous acid spray twice daily

50.

A patient presents with dryness, itching, and debris on her lashes. She admits to sleeping in strip lashes and using mascara daily. What is the most likely diagnosis? 

a)

Corneal abrasion 

b)

Anterior blepharitis 

c)

Allergic contact dermatitis 

d)

Internal hordeolum 

51.

Magnetic eyelashes are considered safer because they: 

a)

Are professionally applied and semi-permanent 

b)

Use less adhesive, reducing risk of gland blockage 

c)

Can be worn continuously for 6 weeks 

d)

Have no reported complications 

52.

A 38-year-old patient wears false lashes continuously and has not removed them in over 2 weeks. She reports photophobia and stabbing eye pain. What is the most appropriate diagnostic step? 

a)

Check IOP with Goldmann tonometry 

b)

Use fluorescein staining and slit-lamp exam

c)

Perform a Schirmer test 

d)

Order an MRI of the orbit 

53.

Which of the following is true regarding allergic contact dermatitis from false eyelash adhesives? 

a)

It is a Type I hypersensitivity reaction 

b)

It may present with eyelid crusting, chemosis, and itching 

c)

It is caused only by formaldehyde 

d)

It requires no medical treatment unless infection is present 

54.

When is treatment for pterygium typically indicated? 

a)

In all cases, regardless of symptoms 

b)

Only if the patient requests cosmetic removal 

c)

When symptoms are present or the visual axis is affected 

d)

As soon as the lesion is identified, to prevent progression 

55.

Where does pterygium most commonly present on the eye? 

a)

Temporally 

b)

Nasally 

c)

Equally likely nasal or temporal 

d)

Superiorly 

56.

Why is obtaining a strong patient history important in managing pterygium? 

a)

It helps determine the underlying genetic causes 

b)

It aids in patient education on prevention and risk factor modification 

c)

It is necessary to rule out malignant transformation 

d)

It allows for immediate surgical planning 

57.

Why is it important to check angles above and below a pterygium during an eye exam? 

a)

To assess for glaucoma or angle closure 

b)

To determine the depth of corneal invasion 

c)

To evaluate the risk of retinal detachment 

d)

To ensure the pterygium is not affecting the optic nerve 

58.

Which of the following is a major risk factor for the development and progression of pterygium? 

a)

Chronic UV light exposure 

b)

Contact lens use 

c)

High intraocular pressure 

d)

History of allergic conjunctivitis 

59.

What is the most effective preventive measure against pterygium progression? 

a)

Use of artificial tears 

b)

Wearing UV-blocking sunglasses

c)

Regular corneal transplantation 

d)

Long-term use of topical steroids 

60.

Which of the following is not a common ocular finding associated with Floppy Eyelid Syndrome (FES)?

a)

Marked horizontal eyelid laxity

b)

Chronic papillary conjunctivitis

c)

Pigmented conjunctival nevus

d)

Dry eye symptoms

61.

What is the most likely underlying cause of elastin fiber degradation in FES?

a)

Elevated collagen synthesis

b)

Increased tear film osmolarity

c)

Hypoxia-induced oxidative stress and elevated elastase activity

d)

Vitamin A deficiency

62.

Which of the following treatments is considered the definitive management for Floppy Eyelid Syndrome?

a)

Antihistamine drops

b)

Blepharoplasty

c)

Warm compresses

d)

Antibiotic ointment

63.

Which condition is commonly associated with Floppy Eyelid Syndrome?

a)

Cataracts

b)

Obstructive sleep apnea

c)

Age-related macular degeneration

d)

Retinitis pigmentosa

64.

What is the purpose of taping eyelids or wearing an eye shield during sleep in FES management?

a)

A) To reduce intraocular pressure

b)

B) To prevent eyelid trauma and exposure

c)

C) To minimize pupillary dilation

d)

D) To control blepharospasm

65.

What ocular effects would patients experience if they have lattice degeneration?:

a)

a. Flashes

b)

b. Floaters

c)

c. Sudden loss of vision

d)

d. No effects

66.

What is lattice degeneration?

a)

a. Holes in the retina

b)

b. Thinning of the retina

c)

c. Thickening of the retina

d)

d. Scarring of the retina

67.

What is a potential risk factor for lattice degeneration?:

a)

a. High hyperopia

b)

b. High astigmatism

c)

c. High myopia

d)

d. Presbyopia

68.

What complications are associated with lattice degeneration?:

a)

a. Retinal detachment

b)

b. Edema

c)

c. Cataracts

d)

d. Macular degeneration

69.

What is a typical symptom that your patient has bacterial keratitis:  

a)

Itching  

b)

Watery discharge  

c)

Bilateral severe conjunctival injection  

d)

Mucopurulent discharge  

70.

All of the following are ways of confirming the patient has bacterial keratitis EXCEPT:  

a)

Swab culturing bacteria  

b)

Corneal scrapping  

c)

PCR  

d)

Ulceration viewed in SLE  

71.

All of the following are indications to perform a bacterial culture EXCEPT:  

a)

Poor response to antibiotics  

b)

Mild peripheral ulcer smaller than 1mm  

c)

Larger central ulcer  

d)

Progressive symptoms  

72.

What bacteria is typically associated with bacterial keratitis  

a)

S. aureus  

b)

P. aeruginosa  

c)

S. pneumoniae  

d)

H. influenzae  

73.

Which antibiotic is preferred for the treatment of bacterial keratitis:  

a)

Tetracyclines  

b)

Penicillins  

c)

Macrolides  

d)

Fluoroquinolones  

74.

  1. Do you expect CI patients to have any distance complaints?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

d)

Both distance and near

75.

  1. What questions can you ask during history to help you conclude a CI diagnosis? Select 2.


a)

  1. Is your blurry vision at near worse when you're tired/at EOD/after doing prolonged near work?

b)

  1. Do you have any double vision at near?

c)

Did you have any weight loss?

d)

Do you problems chewing?

76.

  1. You see a 16XP at near in an 8yo patient; what method and prism should be used to measure the compensating fusional vergence?


a)

BO step vergences

b)

BI step vergences

c)

MAF (+)

d)

PRA

77.

  1. A long standing, hyperopic patient of yours comes in for a CEE 3 weeks after getting in a MVA where they suffered a concussion. You observe a 14 XP at near, and measure -/10/4 BO Vergences and an AC/A of 5/1. Subjective refraction is +3.00D OU. What additional measure can you prescribe in the glasses to ensure the plus prescription does not worsen the CI?

a)

6BI prism (3BI OD, 3BI OS)

b)

6BO prism (3BO OD, 3BO OS)

c)

6BI prism (3BI OD, 3BO OS)

d)

6BO prism (6BO OD, 0 OS)

78.

What is the life threatening concern associated with seeing a Hollenhorst plaque in the eye? 

a)

Stroke risk 

b)

Acute myocardial infarction 

c)

Peripheral vascular disease 

d)

Coronary artery disease risk 

79.

What is the name of the condition that a Hollenhorst plaque causes in the retina? 

a)

Hypertensive retinopathy 

b)

Branch retinal artery occlusion (BRAO) 

c)

Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy 

d)

Proliferative diabetic retinopathy 

80.

What is the sight threatening concern associated with BRAO? 

a)

Macular edema  

b)

Retinal detachment  

c)

Vitreous hemorrhage  

d)

Neovascularization of the retina 

81.

True or false: If a plaque is thrown to a retinal artery, there is little to no chance that plaques are being thrown to other blood vessels in the body.  

a)

True

b)

False

82.

What is considered the hallmark sign of Demodex Blepharitis?

a)

a) Blood-tinged scabs along lid margin

b)

b) Collarettes

c)

c) Dennie-Morgan Lines

d)

d) Rhinophyma

83.

Which of the pathophysiologic mechanisms that causes Demodex Blepharitis?

a)

a) Direct mechanical damage

b)

b) Bacterial involvement

c)

c) Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

d)

d) All of the above

84.

3) What is the 1st and only FDA-approved treatment for Demodex Blepharitis?

a)

a) Tea tree oil formulated lid wipes, foam and gel

b)

b) Soolantra (Ivermectin) 1.0% cream

c)

c) Xdemvy (Lotilaner ophthalmic solution) 0.25%

d)

d) There is no FDA-approved treatment for Demodex Blepharitis

85.

1. What is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?

a)

a. Dogs

b)

b. Cats

c)

c. Mosquitos

d)

d. All of the above

86.

2. Which of the following is NOT a route of infection for Toxoplasma gondii in humans?

a)

a. Foodborne

b)

b. Respiratory

c)

c. Mother-to-Child

d)

d. Infected blood transfusion

87.

3. Signs of an active ocular toxoplasmosis infection include which of the following:

a)

a. Congenital pigmented growth of the RPE

b)

b. Vitritis

c)

c. Choroidal tubercles

d)

d. Flat and intact macula

88.

What branch of CN VII is responsible for lacrimation?

a)

a. Chorda tympani

b)

b. Lacrimal nerve

c)

c. GSPN

d)

d. Stapedius

89.

What is the name of the cells in the PNS that myelinate axons?

a)

a. Oligodendocytes

b)

b. Schwann cells

c)

c. Astrocytes

d)

d. Dendrites

90.

An acoustic neuroma can potentially impact all of the following CNs except?

a)

a. CN I

b)

b. CN V

c)

c. CN VIII

d)

d. CN VI

91.

Why is the base-out to blur finding at near often reduced in patients with accommodative insufficiency? 

a)

They cannot generate enough fusional divergence to maintain clear vision 

b)

They have difficulty increasing accommodation in response to increased convergence demand 

c)

They have an excessive AC/A ratio 

d)

Their NPC is reduced 

92.

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with accommodative insufficiency?  

a)

Reduced PRA  

b)

Reduced amplitude of accommodation (at least 2D below expected)  

c)

High lead of accommodation on MEM retinoscopy   

d)

Difficulty clearing -2.00D lenses on accommodative facility testing  

93.

A 23 year old has an amplitude of accommodation of 7D, based on Hofstetter’s minimum expected AA formula, does this patient meet the criteria for accommodative insufficiency? 

a)

No, because the patient’s amplitude is normal for their age 

b)

No, because their amplitude is only slightly below average 

c)

Yes, because their amplitude is significantly below the minimum expected value  

d)

Yes, because their PRA is also likely to be low 

94.

Which of the following is most likely to be reduced in a patient with accommodative insufficiency?  

a)

Base-in to blur at near  

b)

Base-out to blur at near  

c)

Base-in to break at distance  

d)

Negative fusional vergence 

95.

Which of the following is not a standard treatment for accommodative insufficiency? 

a)

Vision Therapy 24 sessions 

b)

Lifestyle modification (reduced near work, proper lighting) 

c)

Bifocal/PAL for myopic patient 

d)

BO prism in habitual Rx 

96.

Transplantation of all 5 layers of the cornea is done in: 

a)

Deep Anterior Lamellar Keratoplasty (DALK) 

b)

Descemet Stripping Endothelial Keratoplasty (DSEK) 

c)

Penetrating Keratoplasty 

d)

All of the above 

97.

Viscoelastic fills what structure during corneal transplant surgeries? 

a)

Tear film 

b)

Anterior chamber 

c)

Vitreous 

d)

All of the above  

98.

Which of the following are a sign of corneal transplant rejection? 

a)

Corneal edema 

b)

Khodadoust line 

c)

Corneal neovascularization 

d)

All of the above  

99.

Which of the medication used for Hordeolum treatment is contraindicated in children and pregnancy women as it can cause tooth discoloration?  

a)

Keflex (Cephalexin)  

b)

Augmentin (Amoxicillin + Clavulanic Acid)  

c)

Doxycycline 

d)

Erythromycin 

100.

Why is Bowan’s disease is dangerous? 

a)

It is a multi-system disorder that can lead to uveitis 

b)

It is a pre-cancerous lesion that can lead to sebaceous cell carcinoma 

c)

It is always pigmented and resembles melanoma  

d)

It is an inherited disorder associated with keratin gene mutations 

101.

What condition is most often misdiagnosed as recurrant chalazion? 

a)

Hyperkeratosis 

b)

Sebaceous cell carcinoma 

c)

Preseptal cellulitis 

d)

Madarosis 

102.

1. Why would one choose Polytrim (Polymyxin B/Trimethoprim) over a fourth-gen fluoroquinolone?

a)

A. Contraindication in children’s growing cartilage

b)

B. Contraindication of tendonitis and tendon rupture

c)

C. Less expensive

d)

D. All of the above

103.

2. What is the most common bacteria seen in acute bacterial conjunctivitis?

a)

A. Staphylococcus aureus

b)

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

C. Neisseria gonorrhea

d)

D. Chlamydia trachomatis

104.

3. What are some buzzwords indicative of bacteria conjunctivitis?

a)

A. Ropey and itchy

b)

B. Follicles and teary

c)

C. Papillae and mucopurulent

d)

D. Red and pain

105.

Which of the following is the most likely causative factor in Contact Lens Acute Red Eye (CLARE)?

a)

Allergic reaction to lens cleaning solutio

b)

Mechanical irritation from a poorly fitting lens

c)

Immune response to endotoxins from gram-negative bacteria

d)

Excessive tear production during contact lens wear 

106.

A typical presentation of CLARE includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Acute onset of redness upon waking

b)

Pain and photophobia

c)

Mucopurulent discharge

d)

History of overnight contact lens wear

107.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for CLARE?

a)

Continue lens wear with lubricating drops

b)

Prescribe oral antibiotics and resume lens use after 24 hours

c)

Discontinue contact lens wear and use topical corticosteroids if inflammation persists

d)

Perform immediate corneal scraping and culture

108.

A 32-year-old woman with -10.00 D myopia presents for routine eye care. Fundus examination reveals peripapillary atrophy and a posterior staphyloma. Which of the following best describes the primary structural cause of these findings? 

a)

Vitreous liquefaction and posterior hyaloid traction

b)

Axial elongation with progressive scleral thinning

c)

Retinal ischemia from capillary non-perfusion

d)

Elevated episcleral venous pressure

109.

2. Which of the following is most strongly associated with the development of degenerative myopia? 

a)

Poor nutrition and vitamin A deficiency

b)

Early onset of myopia in childhood

c)

Long-term use of topical steroids

d)

Presence of drusen on fundus exam

110.

3. Which of the following symptoms is most suggestive of macular involvement in a patient with degenerative myopia? 

a)

Peripheral field constriction

b)

Night blindness

c)

Metamorphopsia

d)

Monocular diplopia

111.

A 45-year-old male presents with a history of penetrating eye trauma one year ago. On exam, the eye appears shrunken with a flat anterior chamber and no light perception. Which of the following best describes this condition? 

a)

A. Microphthalmos 

b)


B. Endophthalmitis 

c)


C. Phthisis bulbi

d)


D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma 

112.

Which of the following is the most common cause of phthisis bulbi worldwide? 

a)

A. Primary open-angle glaucoma

b)

B. Retinitis pigmentosa

c)

C. Penetrating ocular trauma

d)

D. Congenital cataract

113.

Which structure's dysfunction leads to ocular hypotony, a key step in the pathogenesis of phthisis bulbi? 

a)

A. Retina

b)

B. Optic nerve

c)

C. Ciliary body

d)

D. Corneal endothelium

114.

What is the primary visual prognosis for a patient diagnosed with phthisis bulbi? 

a)

Vision may recover with appropriate steroids

b)

Partial vision may return with surgery

c)

No light perception with no possibility of visual recovery

d)

Visual acuity typically improves over months

Similar Resources on Wayground

PIPE - Coaching + Exam

114 questions

PIPE - Coaching + Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Untitled Quiz

110 questions

Untitled Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

University