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Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most appropriate procedure for identifying, reporting and dealing with health and safety issues in the workplace? 

a)

Ask the apprentices to check on potential problems and inform their colleagues. 

b)

Check the accident reports every year and act accordingly to try to reduce them. 

c)

Leave it to the supervisor to sort out a written report as it is their responsibility. 

d)

Carry out a risk assessment, make a written report and deal with any significant hazards. 

2.

One current health and safety requirement relating to the automotive industry is that: 

a)

Old brake pads are double wrapped before disposal 

b)

Exposure to hazardous substances must be controlled 

c)

aulty batteries must be discharged before disposal 

d)

All waste engine oil must be recycled within six months

3.

When speaking with a customer who has little technical knowledge it is important to: 

a)

Ask whether the manager can speak to them 

b)

Provide information at an understandable level 

c)

Provide them with no technical information

d)

Reinforce that they have little understanding 

4.

A vehicle presenter has the right to: 

a)

Observe the test being caried out from an approved viewing area or via camera relayed images 

b)

Stay in the passenger seat for the entire time of the test as long as they don't interfere 

c)

Observe the test from anywhere within the workshop so they can follow the tester around the vehicle 

d)

Watch a recorded video of the test being carried out using a camera carried by the tester 

 

5.

A vehicle presenter who wishes to complain against the issue of a VT20 test certificate:

a)

Should complete a notice of appeal complaint form VT17 

b)

Has no right to complain regarding the issue of a VT20 test certificate 

c)

Should be told to phone up the DVSA head office 

d)

Has the right to have another MOT by a different tester at the VTS 

6.

The DVSA have the right to request an up-to-date training record during a visit to your VTS. Failure to produce this record could result in: 

a)

More CPD to be completed the following year to ensure the rolling five year average is met

b)

Disciplinary action which could affect testing authorisation status 

c)

No action will be taken as this has not been outlined by the DVSA as a requirement 

d)

The requirement for an on the spot CPD annual assessments to be taken 

7.

nnual Continual Professional Development (CPD) should be logged on:

a)

MOT testing service portal 

b)

DVSA training website 

c)

Any PC all electronic device

d)

Any scrap piece of paper 

8.

What is the purpose of the Special Notices issued by the DVSA? 

a)

To provide financial incentives for testing staff 

b)

To advertise training sessions for examiners 

c)

o promote new testing equipment for AE’s 

d)

To inform about changes in MOT testing regulations 

9.

Pass after rectification at station PRS may only be applied if: 

a)

The vehicle has been repaired by a franchise dealership 

b)

The vehicle has been repaired locally and returned to the VTS 

c)

The vehicle has been retained and repaired at the VTS 

d)

The vehicle has been repaired on site by the presenter 

 

10.

If a vehicle is presented with a load or other items that you feel would prevent a proper test being carried out you should: 

a)

Carry out the test as normal, but avoid testing any items identified in the pre-test check, adding these to the list of failure items 

b)

Register the vehicle on the MOT testing service, complete a VT30, and charge the vehicle presenter for a test 

c)

Inform the vehicle presenter, completing a VT30 if the vehicle presenter requests written confirmation of the reason for refusal 

d)

Refuse to test the vehicle and do not issue a VT30, even if the vehicle presenter requests written confirmation of the reason for refusal 

11.

What should you do if a vehicle is not registered and has no other forms of identification when presented for an MOT test? 

a)

Advise the vehicle presenter to get the vehicle registered 

b)

Advise the Police to complete a Vehicle Defect Rectification Form 

c)

Register the vehicle on the MOT Testing Service and issue a VT30 

d)

Issue a hand written CT30 containing as many vehicle details as possible 

12.

You have the right to decline a vehicle test if: 

a)

The vehicle is not of the class you or the VTS are authorised to test 

b)

The vehicle presenter they wish to view the test 

c)

The vehicle has been issued with a VT30 from your test station in the last 7 working days

d)

The vehicle presenter does not provide the current MOT certificate 

13.

The form VT29 is an MOT

a)

Failure 

b)

Certificate 

c)

Retest 

d)

Checklist 

14.

American pick-up means a motor vehicle manufactured in the United States of America or Canada that has a gross vehicle weight over: 

a)

1500kg but does not exceed 3000kg 

b)

3000kg but does not exceed 3500kg 

c)

3500kg but does not exceed 6500kg 

d)

3000kg but does not exceed 6500kg 

15.

If a vehicle presenter wishes to appeal against a decision to refuse to issue a test certificate following an MOT examination which form must they be given? 

a)

VT32 

b)

VT29 

c)

VT30 

d)

VT17 

16.

When should a full retest be carried out? 

a)

When the vehicle stays at the VTS and is repaired within 10 days 

b)

A full retest is always required, irrespective of where, or when it is repaired

c)

When the vehicle is removed from the VTS and not returned within 10 days 

d)

When the fails on minor items and retuned repaired, next working day 

17.

A tester finds that the character spacing in a number plate is obviously incorrect, they should: 

a)

Inform the vehicle presenter that the plates do not conform to requirements 

b)

Use a template to check the spacing and record a minor defect 

c)

Measure the space between the characters and record a minor defect 

d)

Record a major defect for not conforming to requirements 

18.

The minimum service brake efficiency from a passenger vehicle with not more than 8 seats (in addition to the driver) first used on 1 September 2008 should be at least: 

a)

58% 

b)

50% 

c)

100% 

d)

25% 

19.

An incorrectly installed brake slack adjuster would be categorised as a: 

a)

Non-testable item 

b)

Major defect

c)

Dangerous defect 

d)

Minor defect 

20.

It is not permissible to remove or disable the ABS from a vehicle used after 

a)

1 September 2008 

b)

1 January 2009 

c)

1 September 2009 

d)

1 January 2010 

21.

Steering linkage condition must be checked when the front wheels are: 

a)

Turned on to full lock 

b)

Removed from the vehicle 

c)

Jacked up

d)

Firmly on the ground 

22.

Which one of the following would be recorded if the angle of the steering wheel and road wheels is inconsistent on a ‘fly by wire’ steering system? 

a)

Non-testable item 

b)

Major defect 

c)

Minor defect 

d)

Dangerous defect 

23.

Which one of the following is classed as a major defect for a windscreen? 

a)

Windscreen protection has been fitted to a security type vehicle 

b)

Isolated light surface scratching has occurred in Zone A 

c)

A stone chip has been repaired, even when barely detectable 

d)

Excessive scratching is obscuring the driver’s vision 

24.

The inspection of Daytime Running Lamps (DRLs) applies only to those fitted as original equipment to vehicles first used from or after: 

a)

1 March 2017 

b)

1 September 2009 

c)

1 September 2010 

d)

1 March 2018 

25.

A vehicle first used from 1 September 2007 has two reversing lamps that do not illuminate when reverse is engaged.  What will this result in? 

a)

A test certificate will be issued

b)

A test certificate will not be issued and a dangerous defect will be recorded 

c)

A test certificate will be issued and a minor defect will be recorded 

d)

A test certificate will not be issued 

26.

You are testing a vehicle first used before 1 January 1933.  What is the minimum allowable tread depth? 

a)

Visible good tread 

b)

1.0mm 

c)

1.6mm 

d)

1.5mm 

27.

The minimum tyre condition for a class 4 M1 category vehicle passenger vehicle first used on 1 September 2008 is: 

a)

1.6mm for 75% of the central tread breadth for the complete circumference of the tyre 

b)

2mm for 100% of the breadth of tread for the complete circumference of the tyre 

c)

1.6mm for 100% of the diameter for the complete width of the tyre 

d)

1mm for 75% of the diameter for the complete breadth of the tyre tread 

28.

Which of the following statements correctly identify three reasons for rejection of a class 4 M1 category vehicle tyre? 

a)

Speed rating higher than the maximum for the vehicle, 20% of the tread worn to 1.6mm, over inflation 

b)

Tread not visible across the entire width 

c)

Cords or ply exposed, fouling part of the vehicle, lump or bulge in the sidewall 

d)

Cut of 15mm with cords that can be seen or felt, under inflation, tread less than 1mm 

 

29.

A class 4 M1 category 2002 hatchback car presented for test is fitted with a modified exhaust system.  The tail pipes exit the vehicle at the sides.  Exhaust gases could be drawn into the car when the windows are open.  Do you: 

a)

Record a major defect as fumes may enter the cabin 

b)

Pass and inform the vehicle presenter 

c)

Record a minor defect as fumes are likely to enter the cabin 

d)

Fail it, for incomplete exhaust system 

30.

A floor not within a prescribed area is found to be excessively deteriorated or insecure.  This would be categorised as: 

a)

A dangerous defect 

b)

A minor defect 

c)

An advisory item 

d)

A major defect

31.

When checking the seat belts on a vehicle you are testing you notice that the webbing of the driver’s seat is significantly stretched.  Do you: 

a)

Record a dangerous defect 

b)

Pull it hard to assess the strength before making a decision 

c)

Record as a major defect 

d)

Fail it only if stretched more than 200mm 

32.

An Electronic Stability Control (ESC) switch that is damaged or not functioning correctly would be categorised as a: 

a)

Dangerous defect 

b)

Major defect 

c)

Non-testable item 

d)

Minor defect

33.

In cases where the smoke levels are significantly in excess of the specified limit values after one acceleration, testers have the option to: 

a)

Not complete the emissions test 

b)

Abandon the emissions test  

c)

Refuse the emissions test 

d)

Decline the emissions test 

34.

Exhaust opacity on pre-1980 vehicles are only subject to inspection of emitted smoke at

a)

Idle with no acceleration 

b)

Between 1500rpm-2500rpm

c)

During hard acceleration only 

d)

Both idle and during free acceleration 

35.

An exhaust on a vehicle fitted with a Diesel Particulate Filter (DPF) emits visible smoke.  This would be categorised as a: 

a)

Major defect 

b)

Non-testable item 

c)

Dangerous defect 

d)

Minor defect 

36.

A bonnet catch is defective such that the bonnet cannot be safely secured in the closed position (but is not a serious risk of opening inadvertently).  What is the correct decision? 

a)

Categorise this as a ‘minor’ defect 

b)

Categorise this as a ‘major’ defect 

c)

Categorise this as a ‘dangerous’ defect

d)

Record a ‘pass’ for this item 

37.

Which of the following is an acceptable method of repair for load bearing members when used on its own? 

a)

Adhesive bonding 

b)

Soldering 

c)

Gas brazing 

d)

MIG brazing 

38.

When testing a vehicle you notice that a corroded structural member has been repaired with a patch.  Which of the following methods of repair is acceptable? 

a)

A patch of different material and thinner gauge has been welded with a continuous seam that extends to a sound part of a load bearing member 

b)

A patch of suitable material and a similar gauge has been welded with a stich weld that extends to a sound part of a load bearing member 

c)

A patch of suitable material and similar gauge has been welded with a continuous seam that extends to a sound part of a load bearing member 

d)

A patch of suitable material and similar gauge has been adhesive bonded and covers the entirely corroded area 

39.

Before using a hydraulic jack, which of the following procedures should be carried out? 

a)

Put some weight on it to make sure it does not drip 

b)

Inspect the jack for hydraulic leaks, cracks and damage 

c)

Check that the lifting ram has a safe working load 

d)

Make sure that the load is centrally balanced 

40.

On a Class 4 vehicle the nearside wing is corroded and is likely to cause injury when grazed or contacted, what is the correct decision? 

a)

Categorise as a 'minor' defect 

b)

Categorise as a 'major' defect 

c)

Categorise as a 'dangerous' defect 

d)

Record and 'Pass' the item

41.

The ferrules on a flexible brake hose have been found to be excessively corroded are likely to fail. What is the correct decision? 

a)

Categorise as a 'minor' defect 

b)

Categorise as a 'major' defect  

c)

Categorise as a 'dangerous' defect 

d)

Pass and advise 

42.

Repairs to a non metallic structures which are not load bearing or in a prescribed area...... 

Are not acceptable 

a)

Must appear as strong as the original structure 

b)

Must be carried out in accordance with manufacturers standards 

c)

Must be approved or carried out by the manufacturer 

43.

A vehicle with 4 wheels used for carriage of passengers which has 10 passenger seats in addition to the drivers seat and a DGW of 5000kg would be? 

a)

Class 7 Category N1 

b)

Class 4 Category M1 

c)

Class 5 Category M3 

d)

Class 4 Category M2 

44.

A quad first registered after 17th June 1999 with an unladen weight of 260kg has a harness belt fitted to the drivers seat and lap belts fitted to the forward facing rear seats. What is the correct decision? 

a)

Categorise as a 'minor' defect 

b)

Categorise as a 'major' defect 

c)

Categorise as a 'dangerous' defect 

d)

Record a 'pass' for this item 

45.

A goods vehicle with a design gross weight (DGW) of 3500kg would be ? 

a)

Class 4 Category 2 

b)

Class 3 Category 3 

c)

Class 7 Category N1

d)

Class 4 Category L5 

46.

Catch up is the process for entering contingency testing (CT) test result details onto the MOT central records, following an 'authorised outage' CT catch up must be: 

a)

Completed within 5 days of the server becoming unavailable 

b)

Completed within 7 working days of the server becoming unavailable 

c)

Completed within 14 days of the server becoming unavailable 

d)

Completed as soon as the server becomes available again 

47.

When a partial re-examination is permissible you must examine 

a)

All failed defects (dangerous & major) along with any items that may have been affected by repairs carried out, also checking minor and any advisories 

b)

All failed major & dangerous defects, along with any minor and advisories 

c)

Only failed dangerous and major items 

48.

A presenter wishes to arrange a test for a 100cc three wheeler vehicle with an (ULW) of 460kg. The distance between the centre rear wheels is greater than 460mm. In order to test this vehicle the tester must be authorised to test: 

a)

Class 1&2 

b)

Class 3 

c)

Class 4 

d)

Class 5 

49.

During the test of a vehicle which requires a decelerometer test you find a dangerous defect and consider the vehicle unfit to be driven. What actions should you take? 

a)

Inform the presenter in writing that the defect will result in a fail before you start the test 

b)

Test the vehicle as normal but not to carry out any brake test 

c)

Complete the test using the decelerometer 

d)

Abandon the test or fail the vehicle because the test could not be satisfactory be completed 

50.

When a testing station experiences problems accessing the MTS, the first thing they should do is? 

a)

Contact the DVSA customer service desk 

b)

Check the service status page 

c)

Continue to test and use CT procedures 

d)

Cease all testing until the system resumes 

51.

On a class 4 vehicle a wheel bearing has excessive play, what are the correct decisions? 

a)

Categorise as a 'minor' defect 

b)

Categorise as a 'major' defect 

c)

Categorise as a 'dangerous' defect 

d)

Pass the item and advise 

52.

On a minibus with 10 passenger seats there is no visible date code on the front steered nearside tyre. What is the correct decision? 

a)

Categorise as a 'minor' defect 

b)

Categorise as a 'major' defect 

c)

Categorise as a 'dangerous' defect 

d)

Pass & advise 

53.

On a class 4 vehicle there is a continuous transmission oil leak, you consider the leak to be a serious safety risk to other road users. What is the correct decision? 

a)

Categorise as a 'minor' defect 

b)

Categorise as a 'major' defect 

c)

Categorise as a 'dangerous' defect 

d)

Advise 

54.

An L7 category quadricycle first used on 1 September 2001 which has two service brake systems each having a separate means of operation, should achieve which of the following brake performance requirements? 

a)

25% from the first, 50% from the 2nd 

b)

30% from the 1st, 25% from the 2nd 

c)

40% from the 1st, 25% from the 2nd 

d)

50% from the first, 40% from the 2nd