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222 ltm

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the modal model of memory (Atkinson & Shiffrin), long-term memory is characterized by:

a)

High acoustic similarity

b)

Unlimited duration and capacity

c)

Serial position deficits

d)

Strict reliance on rehearsal

2.

Which of the following provides evidence for distinct STM and LTM systems?

a)

Semantic similarity affecting STM performance

b)

Amnesic patients with poor STM but intact LTM

c)

Better recognition than recall for encoded items

d)

Acoustic similarity affecting LTM recall

3.

A patient shows normal short-term memory but impaired long-term memory after medial temporal lobe damage. This supports the:

a)

Levels-of-processing theory

b)

Unified memory model

c)

Distinction between memory stores

d)

Depth-based memory approach

4.

In Baddeley’s (1966) study, LTM performance was worst for which condition?

a)

Acoustically similar

b)

Acoustically dissimilar

c)

Semantically similar

d)

Semantically dissimilar

5.

What does the term "semantic coding" in LTM refer to?

a)

Relying on phonological cues to retrieve words

b)

Using acoustic similarity for memorization

c)

Storing meaning-based information

d)

Storing location-based visual cues

6.

Which theory is challenged by levels-of-processing findings?

a)

Encoding specificity theory

b)

Modal model

c)

Working memory model

d)

Spreading activation theory

7.

Semantic memory differs from episodic memory because it:

a)

Has no temporal context

b)

Contains vivid visual cues

c)

Requires the hippocampus exclusively

d)

Is always autobiographical

8.

Declarative memory includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Episodic memory

b)

Semantic memory

c)

Procedural memory

d)

Knowledge of facts

9.

Which memory task best taps procedural memory?

a)

Recalling words in a list

b)

Naming the capital of France

c)

Reciting childhood experiences

d)

Tracing a star in a mirror

10.

Anterograde amnesia is best described as:

a)

Inability to recall childhood events

b)

Inability to form new long-term memories

c)

Difficulty with motor skills

d)

Short-term memory impairment

11.

Retrograde amnesia is typically worse for:

a)

Remote childhood memories

b)

Recently acquired memories

c)

Implicit memories

d)

Procedural tasks

12.

Which patient showed preserved procedural learning despite severe anterograde amnesia?

a)

H.M.

b)

K.C.

c)

Phineas Gage

d)

Ebbinghaus

13.

The hippocampus is most directly involved in:

a)

Motor learning

b)

Language acquisition

c)

Declarative memory consolidation

d)

Visual short-term memory

14.

Which of the following statements about amnesia is TRUE?

a)

Retrograde amnesia affects procedural memory

b)

Anterograde amnesia impairs STM but not LTM

c)

Retrograde amnesia usually affects older memories more than recent ones

d)

Anterograde amnesia does not affect working memory

15.

Clive Wearing's preserved ability to conduct music suggests:

a)

Autobiographical memory is spared

b)

Declarative memory is intact

c)

Procedural memory can be independent of episodic recall

d)

Working memory is impaired

16.

Which of the following supports the existence of multiple memory systems?

a)

Depth of processing effects

b)

Flashbulb memory accuracy

c)

Dissociation between STM and LTM in brain-damaged patients

d)

Category clustering during free recall

17.

The "serial position curve" demonstrates:

a)

Elaborative rehearsal improves middle items

b)

Poor recall of all items equally

c)

Primacy and recency effects

d)

Reconstructive memory errors

18.

Which of the following best illustrates semantic memory?

a)

The memory of your last birthday

b)

Remembering your best friend's face

c)

Knowing that Paris is the capital of France

d)

Recalling a conversation word-for-word

19.

"Knowing how" to ride a bike refers to which memory system?

a)

Semantic

b)

Procedural

c)

Episodic

d)

Prospective

20.

Working memory is most intact in patients with:

a)

Retrograde amnesia

b)

Procedural deficits

c)

Korsakoff’s syndrome

d)

Anterograde amnesia

21.

According to Ebbinghaus, the forgetting curve shows that:

a)

Forgetting happens gradually and steadily over time

b)

Memory decays only after consolidation

c)

Most forgetting occurs shortly after learning

d)

Forgetting is unaffected by time

22.

What did Ebbinghaus use as stimuli to control for prior knowledge?

a)

Real words

b)

Numbers

c)

Pseudowords

d)

Nonsense syllables

23.

In Ebbinghaus' experiment, a “savings score” of 60% implies:

a)

60% of the original list was remembered

b)

Relearning required 60% fewer trials than the original learning

c)

Memory was consolidated after 60 minutes

d)

60% of the items were recalled immediately

24.

Which phenomenon is best illustrated by forgetting a new phone number due to remembering your old one?

a)

Retroactive interference

b)

Proactive interference

c)

Context-dependent memory

d)

Encoding variability

25.

Which scenario illustrates retroactive interference?

a)

A teacher forgets her new students' names but remembers those from last year

b)

A person confuses new facts with ones learned earlier

c)

Learning a new password makes it harder to recall an old one

d)

Studying too fast and forgetting everything

26.

In paired-associates learning, the “cue” is:

a)

The second word in the pair

b)

The first word used to retrieve the second

c)

A distractor item

d)

The semantic link

27.

In Barnes & Underwood's 1959 study, which outcome supported retroactive interference?

a)

Stronger recall for A-B over A-C pairs

b)

Weak cue associations at retrieval

c)

A-C associations becoming stronger than A-B

d)

Weakness of semantic encoding

28.

Proactive interference involves:

a)

Weak rehearsal at encoding

b)

Later learning disrupting earlier learning

c)

Early memories interfering with new learning

d)

Failure to elaborate on semantic content

29.

Retroactive interference results in:

a)

Enhanced learning of A-B lists

b)

Replacement of old associations by new ones

c)

Greater STM decay

d)

Chunking breakdown

30.

A student studies psychology, then philosophy. During the philosophy exam, she keeps writing psychology concepts. This is an example of:

a)

Source misattribution

b)

Retroactive interference

c)

Proactive interference

d)

Misinformation effect

31.

Which theory explains forgetting due to competition between retrieval cues?

a)

Encoding specificity

b)

Interference theory

c)

Decay theory

d)

Schema theory

32.

In Thomson & Tulving's (1970) study, recall was best when:

a)

No cues were provided

b)

A strong cue was used during testing

c)

Weak cue from encoding was used during retrieval

d)

Cues matched participant preferences

33.

Why did strong cues in Thomson & Tulving's study sometimes impair performance?

a)

They were irrelevant

b)

They caused overlearning

c)

They mismatched the context of encoding

d)

They were too semantic

34.

According to encoding specificity, forgetting can occur when:

a)

Emotional arousal is too high

b)

Encoding context differs from retrieval context

c)

STM is overwhelmed

d)

Maintenance rehearsal is used

35.

The finding that scuba divers remembered words better when tested in the same environment as they learned them supports:

a)

Retrieval-induced forgetting

b)

Spacing effect

c)

Encoding specificity

d)

Flashbulb memory theory

36.

Which of the following is TRUE of encoding specificity?

a)

It applies equally to recognition and recall

b)

It improves both recall and recognition equally

c)

It primarily enhances recognition tasks

d)

It improves recall more than recognition

37.

Which of the following is most influenced by state-dependent learning?

a)

Answering multiple-choice questions

b)

Recalling a conversation while intoxicated

c)

Solving math problems

d)

Reading comprehension

38.

State-dependent effects are strongest when:

a)

Recognition tests are used

b)

Emotional states vary

c)

Retrieval and encoding states match

d)

Multiple cues are provided

39.

Which is NOT a benefit of the spacing effect?

a)

Memory traces are consolidated more often

b)

Retrieval cues become more variable

c)

Forgetting is increased between sessions

d)

Contextual variety supports retrieval

40.

According to Rundus (1971), primacy effect in the serial position curve is likely due to:

a)

Distraction

b)

Maintenance rehearsal

c)

Elaborative rehearsal of later items

d)

Greater rehearsal of early items

41.

The levels-of-processing theory suggests memory performance depends most on:

a)

Time spent rehearsing

b)

Type of memory system used

c)

Depth of processing at encoding

d)

Duration of STM

42.

Which task represents shallow processing?

a)

Judging a word’s font color

b)

Categorizing animals vs tools

c)

Fitting a word into a sentence

d)

Thinking of a personal memory involving the word

43.

According to Craik & Tulving (1975), which question would lead to the BEST recall of the word “salt”

4 lines
44.

According to Craik & Tulving (1975), which question would lead to the BEST recall of the word “salt”?

a)

Is it written in uppercase?

b)

Does it rhyme with “halt”?

c)

Does it fit into this sentence: “The ___ was on the table”?

d)

How many letters does it have?

45.

Deep processing is associated with:

a)

Phonological encoding

b)

Acoustic rehearsal

c)

Semantic analysis

d)

Chunking

46.

Which of the following best illustrates elaborative rehearsal?

a)

Repeating a number over and over until you type it

b)

Memorizing a list by creating a story using all the items

c)

Rehearsing a phone number in your head before dialing

d)

Looking at each word on a list twice

47.

According to Craik & Lockhart’s levels-of-processing view, memory improvement is most associated with:

a)

Maintenance rehearsal

b)

Passive repetition

c)

Deeper semantic analysis

d)

Visual imagery

48.

A key criticism of the levels-of-processing framework is that:

a)

It fails to distinguish STM from LTM

b)

Depth of processing is hard to define or measure

c)

Semantic processing is less effective than structural

d)

It ignores any role of rehearsal

49.

Which of the following supports the idea that rehearsal alone is not sufficient for LTM storage?

a)

Primacy effect

b)

Shallow encoding tasks yielding poor recall

c)

The use of semantic clustering in recall

d)

Spaced repetition

50.

Which study challenged the idea that semantic encoding always leads to better memory?

a)

Craik & Tulving (1975)

b)

Baddeley (1966)

c)

Rundus (1971)

d)

Baddeley (1978)

51.

Which mnemonic method requires visualizing a route and placing items at specific locations along the path?

a)

Pegword method

b)

Chunking

c)

Method of loci

d)

Spaced repetition

52.

Which is a core feature of the pegword method?

a)

Repeating the words out loud

b)

Creating a mental story

c)

Associating items with a rhyming, ordered list

d)

Categorizing based on semantic meaning

53.

“One is a bun, two is a shoe, three is a tree...” is an example of:

a)

Encoding specificity

b)

Pegword system

c)

Method of loci

d)

Memory consolidation

54.

According to Bower (1970), interacting images help memory because:

a)

They eliminate semantic interference

b)

They engage only procedural memory

c)

They create vivid, interactive mental representations

d)

They prevent proactive interference

55.

Mnemonics work best when:

a)

Items are unrelated and semantically meaningless

b)

Information is randomly organized

c)

The learner constructs personalized or vivid images

d)

Cues are kept verbal and abstract

56.

The method of loci is most effective for:

a)

Remembering abstract concepts

b)

Learning procedural skills

c)

Memorizing ordered lists of concrete items

d)

Solving logic puzzles

57.

The tip-of-the-tongue (TOT) phenomenon reflects a failure in:

a)

Semantic encoding

b)

Phonological retrieval

c)

Memory consolidation

d)

Emotional memory encoding

58.

Which of the following is typically known during a TOT experience?

a)

The word’s spelling

b)

The word’s phonemes

c)

The number of syllables and initial sound

d)

The exact definition and translation

59.

TOT states are more likely to occur with:

a)

Common words

b)

Unfamiliar phonological structures

c)

Semantic encoding failure

d)

Visual stimuli

60.

The TOT phenomenon provides evidence that:

a)

Semantic and phonological systems operate independently

b)

Phonological memory is always superior

c)

Rehearsal guarantees retrieval

d)

Emotional memory inhibits recall

61.

A key characteristic of the TOT state is:

a)

Inability to recall any part of the word

b)

Lack of semantic knowledge

c)

Feeling of imminent retrieval

d)

Complete memory failure

62.

Which of the following best describes autobiographical memory?

a)

Memory for procedural skills

b)

General facts and concepts

c)

Personal life events involving the self

d)

Flashbulb recollections of shocking events

63.

Bahrick et al. (1975) found that high school graduates could:

a)

Recall almost all names and faces after 50 years

b)

Recognize names and faces decades later, despite poor free recall

c)

Recall better with free recall than recognition tasks

d)

Repress memories from adolescence

64.

Linton’s study of her own memory showed that:

a)

Personal memories are indistinguishable from lab memories

b)

Semantic memory improves over time

c)

Memory for distinct and meaningful personal events can remain durable

d)

Recognition tasks are more difficult than recall

65.

Brewer’s (1988) use of beepers showed that:

a)

Memories from random moments are remembered more vividly

b)

Recall for mundane events is more accurate than emotional ones

c)

Distinct, personally meaningful events are remembered best

d)

Long-term recall is limited to 3 months

66.

Infantile amnesia refers to:

a)

Poor procedural memory in infancy

b)

Inability to form episodic memories after age 3

c)

General memory loss in adulthood

d)

Difficulty recalling events from before age 3

67.

According to Howe & Courage (1997), what is needed to form autobiographical memories?

a)

Procedural learning

b)

Sense of self

c)

Language fluency

d)

Semantic rehearsal

68.

Simcock & Hayne (2002) found that:

a)

Children can recall any event, regardless of age

b)

Early memories are encoded semantically

c)

Language limits the ability to express earlier experiences

d)

Encoding specificity has no impact before age 5

69.

The hippocampus plays a key role in:

a)

Semantic memory encoding

b)

Procedural learning

c)

Autobiographical memory formation

d)

Flashbulb memory decay

70.

Which of the following best illustrates a flashbulb memory?

a)

Remembering a friend’s birthday every year

b)

Recalling a traumatic accident in vivid detail

c)

Memorizing historical dates

d)

Recalling how to tie a shoelace

71.

Which memory characteristic is often assumed of flashbulb memories, but not supported by most research?

a)

Vividness

b)

Long-lasting retention

c)

Superior accuracy

d)

Emotional arousal

72.

According to Brown & Kulik (1977), flashbulb memories involve:

a)

Memories for common everyday routines

b)

Semantic encoding of famous events

c)

Vivid memories for the moment one learns of a shocking event

d)

Gradual loss of details over time

73.

What did Talarico & Rubin (2003) find about flashbulb memories?

a)

They are significantly more accurate than normal memories

b)

They fade at the same rate as everyday memories, despite feeling more vivid

c)

Emotional intensity prevents memory loss

d)

They involve a unique memory process

74.

Which study showed that 45% of people recalled a video that never existed (Princess Diana crash)?

a)

Conway et al. (1994)

b)

Loftus & Palmer (1974)

c)

Ost et al. (2002)

d)

Talarico & Rubin (2003)

75.

The Challenger explosion study by Neisser & Harsch (1992) demonstrated that:

a)

Flashbulb memories become more accurate over time

b)

People forget emotional details faster than neutral ones

c)

Flashbulb memories are often inaccurate, despite confidence

d)

Memory fades only when it lacks rehearsal

76.

Which brain structure is most associated with emotional enhancement of memory (e.g., in flashbulb events)?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Prefrontal cortex

c)

Amygdala

d)

Temporal lobe

77.

According to the weapon focus effect, eyewitnesses:

a)

Are more likely to notice the suspect’s facial features

b)

Can accurately recall context despite high stress

c)

Fixate on the weapon and recall fewer peripheral details

d)

Remember all details equally under threat

78.

The misinformation effect demonstrates that:

a)

Leading questions have no effect on eyewitness memory

b)

Memory retrieval is unaffected by new information

c)

Witnesses can incorporate false details into their memory

d)

Recall is stronger for emotional than neutral scenes

79.

Loftus et al. (1978) showed reduced memory accuracy when participants:

a)

Were given strong cues

b)

Were intoxicated during encoding

c)

Were asked misleading questions about a stop/yield sign

d)

Had high emotional arousal

80.

Source misattribution occurs when:

a)

People forget an event happened

b)

People confuse the origin of a memory

c)

People recall events from dreams as real

d)

People recognize details without understanding them

81.

Confirmation bias in eyewitnesses may cause:

a)

Overwriting of true memories

b)

Avoidance of line-up procedures

c)

Distortion of memory to fit stereotypes or expectations

d)

Enhanced semantic encoding

82.

Recovered memories typically involve:

a)

Recent events triggered by trauma

b)

Intentional rehearsal of semantic knowledge

c)

Sudden recall of traumatic events after long periods of forgetting

d)

Procedural learning errors

83.

According to Freudian theory, traumatic memories can be:

a)

Strengthened with repeated exposure

b)

Stored permanently in procedural memory

c)

Repressed into the unconscious and later recovered

d)

Easily retrieved through flashbulb encoding

84.

The shopping mall study by Loftus & Pickrell (1995) demonstrated that:

a)

Emotional arousal improves recall accuracy

b)

It’s impossible to plant false memories without photos

c)

People can form false memories for plausible events

d)

Recognition is less prone to errors than recall

85.

In Loftus & Pickrell’s experiment, what proportion of participants “recalled” the false shopping mall event?

a)

10%

b)

29%

c)

50%

d)

73%

86.

The Clancy et al. (2000) study found that women with recovered memories were:

a)

More likely to forget semantically related words

b)

More accurate than other groups

c)

More susceptible to false recognition of related lure words

d)

Unable to remember basic autobiographical facts

87.

What was a key finding in Geraerts et al. (2007) regarding corroborated abuse?

a)

All recovered memories were equally reliable

b)

Only those recovered during therapy had strong evidence

c)

Recovered memories outside therapy were more likely to be genuine

d)

Recovered memories during therapy were most accurate

88.

Which memory phenomenon best explains creating vivid but false childhood memories from suggestive questioning and imagery?

a)

Encoding specificity

b)

Schema-driven recall

c)

Source misattribution

d)

Misinformation effect

89.

False memories and eyewitness memory both involve:

a)

Long-term procedural errors

b)

Memory for skills instead of facts

c)

The role of suggestion and new information

d)

Immediate forgetting of traumatic material

90.

Which of the following would most likely result in a false memory?

a)

Deep semantic processing

b)

Free recall with no cues

c)

Imagining an event repeatedly as if it happened

d)

Elaborative rehearsal

91.

The War of the Ghosts study by Bartlett demonstrated that:

a)

Memory for nonsense syllables is most reliable

b)

Stories are recalled with consistent cultural accuracy

c)

Memory is reconstructed based on schemas and expectations

d)

Serial recall leads to better accuracy than free recall

92.

Which concept explains how people “fill in” missing memory details with expectations or world knowledge?

a)

Maintenance rehearsal

b)

Schema theory

c)

State-dependent learning

d)

Cue-overload principle

93.

Bartlett criticized Ebbinghaus’ approach because:

a)

He used real-life stimuli instead of nonsense syllables

b)

His stimuli were not culturally relevant

c)

Ebbinghaus’ nonsense syllables were not reflective of real memory usage

d)

He failed to use a control group

94.

Neisser criticized laboratory memory studies for:

a)

Lacking emotion

b)

Being unethical

c)

Having poor ecological validity

d)

Ignoring short-term memory

95.

Which of the following is true about anterograde amnesia?

a)

It results from damage to the cerebellum

b)

It involves forgetting events from before the trauma

c)

It impairs new memory formation after injury

d)

It causes loss of procedural memory

96.

Which memory is often preserved in anterograde amnesia?

a)

Episodic

b)

Semantic

c)

Procedural

d)

Flashbulb

97.

Patient H.M. displayed:

a)

Global retrograde amnesia

b)

Normal formation of new episodic memories

c)

Severe anterograde amnesia and spared procedural learning

d)

Inability to recall any childhood experiences

98.

What is a hallmark of retrograde amnesia?

a)

Loss of memory for events after a trauma

b)

Loss of previously acquired information

c)

Short-term memory impairment

d)

Loss of the ability to encode new information

99.

Which type of memory is typically spared in retrograde amnesia?

a)

Episodic memory

b)

Autobiographical memory

c)

Procedural memory and general knowledge

d)

Recent emotional events

100.

Which brain region is most associated with the type of learning preserved in amnesic patients (e.g., mirror-tracing)?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Basal ganglia

d)

Occipital lobe

101.

What do findings from amnesic patients like H.M. and Clive Wearing suggest about memory systems?

a)

All memory systems are intertwined and rely on the hippocampus

b)

Procedural and declarative memories rely on the same system

c)

There are separate systems for procedural and declarative memory

d)

Working memory is often impaired with declarative memory loss

102.

What is memory consolidation?

a)

The process of rehearsing information in STM

b)

The transformation of sensory input into motor output

c)

Stabilizing a memory trace after initial acquisition

d)

The loss of memory over time due to decay

103.

Emotional arousal enhances memory consolidation primarily through the:

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Amygdala

d)

Prefrontal cortex

104.

According to LaBar & Phelps (1998), participants remembered which types of words better?

a)

Neutral

b)

Procedural

c)

Emotionally arousing

d)

Abstract

105.

Dolcos et al. (2005) found that emotional pictures:

a)

Were recalled poorly due to distraction

b)

Had no effect on memory after 1 year

c)

Were remembered better, even after a long delay

d)

Were less effective than neutral stimuli in retrieval tasks

106.

Which hormone is believed to enhance memory consolidation under emotional arousal?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Cortisol

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Melatonin

107.

In the spacing effect, which of the following explains why spaced practice improves recall?

a)

Massed learning increases rehearsal time

b)

Spaced learning allows for memory decay

c)

Spaced learning increases context variability and retrieval cues

d)

Cramming activates procedural memory

108.

Which of the following best explains the primacy effect?

a)

Items at the beginning are most recently rehearsed

b)

Earlier items receive more attention and rehearsal, aiding LTM storage

c)

Items are grouped semantically

d)

Emotional content enhances beginning items

109.

Rundus (1971) demonstrated that recall probability is positively correlated with:

a)

Surprise recognition

b)

Maintenance rehearsal

c)

Frequency of rehearsal during encoding

d)

Cue-dependent forgetting

110.

What kind of rehearsal is most effective for transferring information to long-term memory?

a)

Visual rehearsal

b)

Maintenance rehearsal

c)

Elaborative rehearsal

d)

Phonological rehearsal

111.

Which of the following best exemplifies maintenance rehearsal?

a)

Creating a story to remember grocery items

b)

Repeating a phone number silently until you dial it

c)

Using a mnemonic to encode item order

d)

Classifying items into categories

112.

When someone forgets a fact despite having encoded it deeply, the failure is likely due to:

a)

Lack of semantic processing

b)

Ineffective retrieval cues

c)

Shallow rehearsal

d)

Overlearning

113.

The context-dependent nature of memory is best explained by:

a)

Depth of processing theory

b)

Consolidation theory

c)

Encoding specificity principle

d)

Interference theory

114.

The reason why drunk individuals recall memories better when drunk again reflects:

a)

Mood-congruent memory

b)

Retrieval-induced forgetting

c)

State-dependent learning

d)

Procedural priming

115.

The serial position curve shows that:

a)

Recall is better for middle items

b)

All items are recalled equally

c)

First and last items are recalled better than middle ones

d)

Short-term memory only affects recency

116.

The TOT phenomenon indicates:

a)

Memory consolidation failure

b)

Complete semantic retrieval

c)

Partial access to phonological information

d)

Lack of prior rehearsal

117.

Which statement accurately reflects memory as a reconstructive process?

a)

Memories are exact copies of what was experienced

b)

Recollection involves rebuilding a plausible version of past events

c)

Memory is unaffected by current beliefs or expectations

d)

Repetition guarantees accurate recall

118.

A person remembers hearing about a robbery on TV, but the event never aired. This is an example of:

a)

Repression

b)

State-dependent recall

c)

False recognition

d)

Source misattribution

119.

Which of the following is the most reliable memory type across time?

a)

Flashbulb memory

b)

Procedural memory

c)

Episodic memory

d)

Reconstructed semantic memory

120.

What best explains why people confidently misremember details of a highly emotional event?

a)

Flashbulb memories are more accurate

b)

Emotion increases rehearsal time

c)

Flashbulb memories are vivid, but not always accurate

d)

Semantic memory replaces emotional memory