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FOH Ch 1: Introduction

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which belief best characterizes the theory of animism in early health practices?

a)

Disease spread through miasma or bad air

b)

Pathogens invisible to the eye caused disease

c)

Good spirits caused health; evil spirits caused sickness

d)

Illness arose from bodily humors imbalance

2.

In early civilizations under animism, how were the roles of healer and caregiver distinguished?

a)

Physician as scholar; nurse as public health worker

b)

Physician as surgeon; nurse as herbal specialist

c)

Physician as priest; nurse as military attendant

d)

Physician as medicine man; nurse as caring mother

3.

In ancient Greek civilization, what became the central site for medical care?

a)

Temples and sanctuaries

b)

Private households

c)

Military barracks

d)

Town marketplaces

4.

Which statement best describes nursing practice in ancient Greece?

a)

Nurses cared in home and community, as nurse‑midwives

b)

Nurses primarily performed surgical procedures

c)

Nurses worked only in royal courts

d)

Nurses focused solely on battlefield care

5.

During the Early Christian period, how did the nursing role change?

a)

It became more formal with deaconesses visiting the sick

b)

It was restricted to male clergy only

c)

It shifted entirely to monastic isolation

d)

It became informal and less defined

6.

What development occurred during the Crusades regarding nursing?

a)

Secular hospitals replaced all monasteries

b)

Male and female nursing orders were founded

c)

Nursing training became university‑based

d)

Surgery was prohibited by religious law

7.

Which trend best characterizes the 16th century shift affecting healthcare priorities?

a)

From scientific inquiry to spiritual healing

b)

From warfare to religious service

c)

From exploration to agrarian focus

d)

From religious orientation to warfare and knowledge expansion

8.

What consequence did the 16th‑century nurse shortage have on workforce composition and conditions?

a)

Recruitment of clergy; stable hours and respect

b)

Recruitment of skilled artisans; moderate pay and safety

c)

Recruitment of female criminals; low pay and harsh work

d)

Recruitment of male nobles; high pay and prestige

9.

Which statement best describes early civilization healthcare roles?

a)

Nurses provided surgical skull opening to release spirits

b)

Physicians were herbalists while nurses performed surgery

c)

Nurses led rituals to expel spirits from the sick

d)

Physicians were medicine men using chants and trephination

10.

In early societies, what was a common nursing role within families?

a)

Providing physical care and herbal remedies to relatives

b)

Performing fear-inducing rituals on the ill

c)

Conducting community trephination procedures

d)

Diagnosing diseases with written records

11.

Which action best represents Florence Nightingale’s early contribution to modern nursing?

a)

Organizing hospital schools for cheaper staff

b)

Establishing the first training school for nurses

c)

Placing female nurses under male administrators

d)

Developing evidence‑based practice frameworks

12.

During World War II, which change most influenced the role expansion of nurses?

a)

Decrease in hospital funding and staffing

b)

Explosion in medicine and technology

c)

Elimination of nursing research programs

d)

Return of most women to domestic roles

13.

Social reforms in the 19th century primarily affected nursing by:

a)

Limiting nurses to home care only

b)

Changing the roles of nurses and women

c)

Removing physicians from hospital leadership

d)

Reducing the number of training schools

14.

Which statement best describes the status of female nurses in early hospital systems?

a)

Led hospital financing and policy decisions

b)

Autonomous practice without oversight

c)

Controlled by male administrators and physicians

d)

Independent governance within nursing boards

15.

What outcome is directly linked to Nightingale’s challenge to prejudices against women?

a)

Development of intensive care units

b)

Mandatory licensure examinations

c)

Creation of nurse practitioner roles

d)

Elevated status of all nurses

16.

Why were hospital schools organized in the late 19th to early 20th centuries?

a)

To decentralize physician authority over nurses

b)

To establish national nursing certification

c)

To provide more easily controlled, inexpensive staff

d)

To strengthen academic nursing research

17.

Which post‑1950s initiative most directly advanced nursing as a professional discipline?

a)

Limiting practice to acute care hospitals

b)

Increased emphasis on nursing knowledge for EBP

c)

Replacing research with tradition‑based care

d)

Prioritizing bedside apprenticeship models

18.

After the 1950s, nursing broadened in which key area of work?

a)

Removal from health promotion efforts

b)

Conduct and publication of nursing research

c)

Exclusive focus on military nursing

d)

Restriction to physician‑ordered tasks

19.

Which change during World War II affected women’s participation in nursing and other fields?

a)

Women left workplaces en masse

b)

All hospitals closed training schools

c)

More women worked outside the home

d)

Female nurses gained immediate autonomy

20.

What was a notable educational focus in nursing from the 1950s onward?

a)

Replacing theory with on‑the‑job learning

b)

Limiting curriculum to basic procedures

c)

Eliminating advanced degrees in nursing

d)

Upgrading nursing education programs

21.

Which development signifies nursing’s growth independent of other disciplines?

a)

Adoption of physician‑written protocols only

b)

Foundation of practice on nursing knowledge

c)

Exclusive reliance on hospital administrators

d)

Return to vocational training models

22.

Which statement best captures the broadening of nursing practice settings after the 1950s?

a)

Practice restricted to inpatient wards

b)

Practice in a wide variety of health care settings

c)

Practice limited to home health services

d)

Practice confined to maternal‑child units

23.

Which factor most directly promoted recognition of nursing’s role in promoting health?

a)

Decline in public health initiatives

b)

Shift away from patient education efforts

c)

Elimination of preventive care programs

d)

Expansion of nursing research dissemination

24.

Which historical misconception is corrected by Nightingale’s contributions?

a)

Hospitals were managed by nursing boards

b)

Nurses lacked need for formal training

c)

Technology alone defined nursing practice

d)

Women could not elevate professional status

25.

What combined effect did medicine and technology advancements have on nursing during WWII?

a)

Narrowed nursing tasks to routine care

b)

Eliminated need for clinical judgment

c)

Broadened the role of nurses substantially

d)

Removed nursing from battlefield hospitals

26.

Which Latin root best captures the historical origin of the term nursing?

a)

Nutrix meaning to nourish

b)

Medicus meaning to heal

c)

Curare meaning to care

d)

Salutem meaning good health

27.

Which element is explicitly included in the ICN definition of nursing?

a)

Limitation of advocacy roles

b)

Promotion of a safe environment

c)

Exclusive focus on disease cure

d)

Administrative billing activities

28.

A nurse designs a care plan that integrates physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs. What principle is being applied?

a)

Patient as central focus

b)

Technology-centered practice

c)

Diagnosis-only approach

d)

Policy-first framework

29.

Which statement best characterizes the ANA definition of nursing in relation to policy?

a)

Focused only on research protocols

b)

Framed as a social policy statement

c)

Defined solely by clinical procedures

d)

Centered on environmental safety alone

30.

A hospital nurse works collaboratively with a primary care provider, social worker, physical therapist, and home health care nurse to provide nursing care for a patient following an MVA. What should be the central focus of this care?

a)

The physical therapist

b)

The patient

c)

The nursing care plan

d)

The physician

e)

The nurses

31.

Which QSEN competency most directly emphasizes integrating best current evidence with clinical expertise for decision-making?

a)

Teamwork and collaboration across disciplines

b)

Patient-centered care grounded in preferences

c)

Quality improvement using process measures

d)

Evidence-based practice guiding interventions

32.

A nurse updates fall-prevention protocols after reviewing unit incident data. Which QSEN competency is being applied?

a)

Interpersonal competency for rapport

b)

Safety focusing on hazard reduction

c)

Informatics for electronic charting

d)

Quality improvement through system change

33.

Which item is NOT one of the six QSEN competencies?

a)

Quality improvement processes

b)

Cultural humility and bias training

c)

Teamwork and collaboration skills

d)

Patient-centered care as core focus

34.

Documenting vital signs accurately in the EHR primarily reflects which QSEN area?

a)

Informatics for data management

b)

Safety via risk mitigation

c)

Evidence-based practice integration

d)

Teamwork and collaboration

35.

Providing bedside shift reports that include patient input best demonstrates which QSEN competency?

a)

Evidence-based practice with guidelines

b)

Safety via equipment checks

c)

Quality improvement through audits

d)

Patient-centered care emphasizing partnership

36.

Nursing aims include promote health, prevent illness, restore health, and which additional aim?

a)

Improve documentation accuracy

b)

Advance research through trials

c)

Facilitate coping with disability or death

d)

Optimize staffing and scheduling

37.

Which action most directly aligns with the nursing aim to prevent illness?

a)

Mediating family conflict resolution

b)

Coordinating post-op rehabilitation

c)

Teaching smoking cessation strategies

d)

Entering lab results into records

38.

Supporting a family as they make end-of-life decisions primarily fulfills which nursing aim?

a)

Prevent illness by immunizations

b)

Restore health using curative therapy

c)

Facilitate coping with disability or death

d)

Promote health through wellness coaching

39.

Selecting evidence-supported wound care protocols to speed recovery aligns with which nursing aim?

a)

Restore health using targeted treatments

b)

Promote health via lifestyle change

c)

Prevent illness through screenings

d)

Facilitate coping during bereavement

40.

Which of the four blended competencies focuses on reasoning, clinical judgment, and critical thinking?

a)

Technical skills for procedures

b)

Interpersonal skills for communication

c)

Ethical/legal competencies for standards

d)

Cognitive competencies for thinking

41.

Performing a sterile catheter insertion most directly reflects which blended competency?

a)

Technical competency for psychomotor skill

b)

Interpersonal competency for empathy

c)

Ethical/legal competency for policy

d)

Cognitive competency for analysis

42.

Advocating for informed consent and respecting autonomy demonstrate which blended competency?

a)

Ethical/legal adherence to principles

b)

Cognitive application of algorithms

c)

Technical mastery of equipment

d)

Interpersonal use of small talk

43.

Building trust through therapeutic communication primarily demonstrates which blended competency?

a)

Cognitive skills for diagnosis

b)

Technical skills for procedures

c)

Ethical/legal skills for statutes

d)

Interpersonal skills for relationships

44.

A nurse plans a fall-reduction project using unit data, staff input, and evidence. Which combination of QSEN areas is most central?

a)

Informatics and documentation only

b)

Patient-centered care and empathy

c)

Teamwork and shift handoffs only

d)

Safety and quality improvement together

45.

A nurse who uses critical thinking skills to develop a nursing care plan for an expectant mother of triplets is said to be using which skill?

a)

Cognitive

b)

Technical

c)

Interpersonal

d)

Ethical/legal

46.

Which competency primarily involves thinking sufficiently about the nature of situations to make decisions regarding care?

a)

Ethical/legal skills

b)

Interpersonal skills

c)

Technical skills

d)

Cognitive skills

47.

Which nurse role primarily focuses on conveying clear information among patients, families, and the care team?

a)

Researcher generating clinical evidence

b)

Collaborator aligning interprofessional plans

c)

Communicator ensuring shared understanding

d)

Leader coordinating unit priorities

48.

A nurse explains insulin self-administration and checks teach-back. Which role is most evident?

a)

Researcher collecting study data

b)

Counselor addressing emotional needs

c)

Advocate protecting patient rights

d)

Teacher facilitating skill learning

49.

Which scenario best represents the counselor role?

a)

Debriefing grief reactions after a loss

b)

Coordinating discharge transportation

c)

Reviewing evidence to update protocols

d)

Leading a huddle to assign tasks

50.

Which action most aligns with the advocate role in nursing?

a)

Submitting a request for translation services

b)

Designing a quality-improvement study

c)

Teaching inhaler technique steps

d)

Negotiating shift assignments fairly

51.

Promoting health is best defined as what primary approach?

a)

Minimizing risks through standardized protocols

b)

Identifying and maximizing individual strengths

c)

Prioritizing disease treatment over prevention

d)

Focusing exclusively on symptom reduction

52.

A patient with COPD has strong family support and high motivation. Using health promotion, what should the nurse do first?

a)

Schedule daily respiratory therapy visits

b)

Leverage motivation to set quit goals

c)

Increase oxygen flow without reassessment

d)

Refer immediately for surgical evaluation

53.

Which nurse action demonstrates the collaborator role during discharge planning?

a)

Independently write all follow-up orders

b)

Avoid negotiating community resources

c)

Align goals with patient and social work

d)

Focus only on physician instructions

54.

A unit implements fall prevention by analyzing patient strengths like mobility aid use and family presence. This illustrates which concept?

a)

Research limited to data collection

b)

Leadership to enforce rules

c)

Health promotion maximizing strengths

d)

Counseling to reduce anxiety

55.

Which factor directly relates to inherited traits influencing disease risk?

a)

Genetic inheritance from parents

b)

Cognitive abilities and memory

c)

Educational level achieved

d)

Socioeconomic status and income

56.

Which item best describes health literacy in the context of determinants of health?

a)

Ability to access rural clinics

b)

Ability to exercise regularly

c)

Ability to understand health information

d)

Ability to pay for services

57.

Which determinant encompasses customs that shape health behaviors?

a)

Age and biologic sex

b)

Race, ethnicity, and culture

c)

Lifestyle and environment

d)

Developmental level milestones

58.

A determinant that includes habits such as diet, activity, and smoking is best labeled as:

a)

Cognitive abilities factor

b)

Socioeconomic status

c)

Lifestyle and environment

d)

Educational level factor

59.

Which Healthy People 2030 goal focuses on removing preventable disease and injury?

a)

Engage leadership across sectors

b)

Create supportive environments

c)

Promote healthy development

d)

Attain healthy, thriving lives

60.

Which aim explicitly targets achieving health equity and improving health literacy?

a)

Eliminate health disparities

b)

Engage leadership and public

c)

Promote healthy behaviors

d)

Create supportive environments

61.

Creating social, physical, and economic environments is intended to:

a)

Promote full potential for well-being

b)

Reduce only hospital readmissions

c)

Increase pharmaceutical adherence

d)

Fund private clinical services

62.

Promoting healthy development across life stages primarily seeks to:

a)

Support well-being in childhood only

b)

Support well-being at all ages

c)

Support well-being in older adults

d)

Support well-being during pregnancy

63.

Engaging leadership, key constituents, and the public across sectors is designed to:

a)

Expand hospital bed capacity

b)

Create individual care plans

c)

Design policies that improve well-being

d)

Train only clinical specialists

64.

Which statement best captures nursing’s primary method for illness prevention?

a)

Teaching and modeling healthy behaviors

b)

Administering advanced diagnostics

c)

Performing invasive procedures

d)

Prescribing medications independently

65.

Which educational program directly targets tobacco-related illness prevention?

a)

Prenatal care classes

b)

Stress-reduction seminars

c)

Smoking-cessation programs

d)

Healthy cooking workshops

66.

Community programs and resources are intended to:

a)

Encourage healthy lifestyles

b)

Replace primary care entirely

c)

Mandate exercise by law

d)

Provide only emergency services

67.

Which media source is listed for disseminating health information on diet and exercise?

a)

Literature, TV, radio, Internet

b)

Textbooks and journals

c)

Phone hotlines only

d)

Billboards and posters

68.

Health assessments in clinics and community settings primarily identify:

a)

Strict screening protocols

b)

Areas of strength and risks

c)

Provider performance metrics

d)

Insurance eligibility criteria

69.

A nurse plans an intervention for a teen with low health literacy. The most appropriate first step is to:

a)

Use complex medical terminology

b)

Assess understanding of instructions

c)

Provide only written pamphlets

d)

Refer immediately to specialist

70.

Which determinant most closely explains differences in disease risk by age?

a)

Educational level attained

b)

Developmental level stages

c)

Cognitive abilities

d)

Age and biologic sex

71.

A public health team wants to reduce premature death from preventable causes. The most aligned Healthy People 2030 action is to:

a)

Attain healthy, thriving lives

b)

Engage leadership for policy change

c)

Create supportive environments

d)

Promote healthy development

72.

Designing policies across multiple sectors to improve population well-being requires:

a)

Engaging leadership and public

b)

Creating supportive environments

c)

Eliminating health disparities

d)

Promoting healthy behaviors

73.

Which nursing-led strategy best combines teaching with community support to prevent illness?

a)

Hospital readmission audits

b)

Pharmacogenomic testing only

c)

Surgical referral pathways

d)

Smoking-cessation with peer groups

74.

A clinic screens for social needs affecting health outcomes. Which determinant is being addressed primarily?

a)

Biologic sex

b)

Genetic inheritance

c)

Socioeconomic status

d)

Developmental level

75.

Which activity best represents a nurse’s role in restoring health for a newly diagnosed patient?

a)

Conduct focused assessments to detect illness early

b)

Arrange hospital billing and insurance authorizations

c)

Select medications independently without prescriber input

d)

Provide facility maintenance and room sanitation

76.

A patient’s assessment reveals an abnormal cardiac rhythm. What is the most appropriate nursing action next?

a)

Discharge the patient with home self-monitoring

b)

Ignore the rhythm because the patient is asymptomatic

c)

Document and wait for routine rounding hours

d)

Refer findings to appropriate health care providers

77.

Which nursing intervention reflects collaboration to restore health?

a)

Decide diet changes based solely on preference

b)

Order diagnostic imaging without consultation

c)

Schedule visitor hours for family members

d)

Co-create a rehab plan with physical therapy

78.

Which task aligns with providing direct care to an ill person?

a)

Negotiate insurance contracts for the hospital

b)

Administer prescribed treatments and evaluate responses

c)

Design hospital marketing outreach campaigns

d)

Complete facility equipment purchasing decisions

79.

A client begins rehabilitation after stroke. Which nursing action demonstrates planning and teaching in rehab?

a)

Develop goals and teach safe transfer techniques

b)

Choose surgical interventions for limb function

c)

Determine discharge location without input

d)

Write prescriptions for antispasmodic medications

80.

In mental health and chemical-dependency programs, the nurse’s role most directly includes which responsibility?

a)

Provide therapeutic care within interdisciplinary teams

b)

Authorize new controlled substances for patients

c)

Lead criminal justice sentencing decisions

d)

Set program budgets and financial strategies

81.

Which nursing approach best facilitates coping with disability?

a)

Withhold information to prevent emotional distress

b)

Limit activity to avoid any exertion or effort

c)

Discourage use of community support resources

d)

Maximize strengths through targeted patient teaching

82.

A patient with progressive illness asks about end-of-life services. Which option the nurse should discuss?

a)

Mandatory long-term intensive care admissions

b)

Routine elective cosmetic surgery packages

c)

Comprehensive hospice programs for comfort care

d)

Fitness boot camps for rapid conditioning

83.

A nurse plans referrals to community support systems. What outcome most appropriately indicates success?

a)

Patient avoids all external support contacts

b)

Patient uses support only when family insists

c)

Patient engages resources that complement care

d)

Patient replaces medical follow-up with groups

84.

A patient with new disability feels overwhelmed. Which evidence-based plan shows strategic nursing thinking to support coping?

a)

Provide generic pamphlets without assessment

b)

Assess strengths, teach skills, connect supports

c)

Delay all teaching until full recovery occurs

d)

Focus solely on deficits during all encounters

85.

A nurse explains a surgical procedure to support a patient's decision-making for informed consent. Which role is being fulfilled?

a)

Educator in perioperative techniques

b)

Counselor for emotional adjustment

c)

Supervisor of surgical personnel

d)

Advocate for patient autonomy

86.

Which characteristic best supports nursing’s status as a professional discipline?

a)

Dependence on physician directives for all actions

b)

Routine tasks delegated by other professions

c)

Well-defined body of specific and unique knowledge

d)

Casual peer approval within hospital units

87.

Which element demonstrates nursing’s commitment to public service?

a)

Strong service orientation toward patient well-being

b)

Private membership with limited community contact

c)

Exclusive focus on laboratory discovery

d)

Financial incentives as primary motivator

88.

What role do professional organizations play in nursing?

a)

Fund only individual research projects

b)

Assign clinical schedules for members

c)

Set standards and provide collective guidance

d)

Replace regulatory boards entirely

89.

Which statement best describes recognized authority in nursing?

a)

Authority granted by a professional group

b)

Authority based solely on seniority years

c)

Authority derived only from hospital ownership

d)

Authority determined by patient satisfaction surveys

90.

Why is a code of ethics essential in nursing practice?

a)

It guides moral decision-making and conduct

b)

It dictates billing procedures for clinics

c)

It ensures uniform uniforms across units

d)

It replaces clinical skills and competencies

91.

Which feature reflects autonomy and self-regulation in nursing?

a)

Administrative managers directing all care plans

b)

Patient families authorizing all actions

c)

Independent judgment within professional standards

d)

External supervision for every intervention

92.

Ongoing research contributes to nursing primarily by:

a)

Eliminating professional organizations entirely

b)

Reducing the need for ethical guidelines

c)

Generating evidence to improve patient care

d)

Maintaining static clinical routines

93.

Nursing educators’ central responsibility in professional formation is to:

a)

Train students strictly in technical tasks

b)

Teach administrative budgeting and marketing

c)

Shape students’ professional identities and values

d)

Prepare graduates only for certification exams

94.

Successful professional formation leads graduates to:

a)

Rely exclusively on protocols without judgment

b)

Avoid adherence to shared professional values

c)

Acquire a professional identity and belonging

d)

Prefer working alone without peer input

95.

Which outcome most clearly signals a nurse has developed a professional identity?

a)

Waits for others to define ethical obligations

b)

Rejects standards set by professional organizations

c)

Focuses primarily on personal career advancement

d)

Consistently adopts the values of the nursing community

96.

Which option lists the three primary pathways to become a registered nurse in the United States?

a)

Graduate doctorate, continuing units, in‑service rotation

b)

Vocational license, bridge externship, fellowship track

c)

Certificate, apprenticeship, residency program

d)

Diploma, associate degree, baccalaureate degree

97.

Which type of nursing education is designed for entry-level licensed practical or vocational nurses?

a)

Graduate nursing education

b)

In‑service hospital education

c)

Baccalaureate nursing education

d)

Practical or vocational nursing education

98.

Which educational category most commonly includes master’s and doctoral programs for nurses?

a)

Graduate education in nursing

b)

Continuing education courses

c)

In‑service unit training

d)

Associate degree programs

99.

Which option best describes the purpose of continuing education for nurses?

a)

Replaces in‑service orientation requirements

b)

Awards academic degrees at the undergraduate level

c)

Provides initial licensure preparation and state approval

d)

Maintains competence through lifelong learning activities

100.

A hospital hosts monthly sessions focused on unit-specific procedures and policy updates. Which education type is this?

a)

Associate degree

b)

Diploma education

c)

Graduate education

d)

In‑service education

101.

Which level of education is most directly tied to obtaining an undergraduate academic degree in nursing?

a)

Continuing education workshops

b)

Baccalaureate in nursing programs

c)

Graduate nursing programs

d)

Practical or vocational programs

102.

Which international organization represents nurses worldwide and promotes global standards?

a)

International Council of Nurses (ICN)

b)

American Nurses Association (ANA)

c)

National League for Nurses (NLN)

d)

American Academy of Nursing (AAN)

103.

Which national organization primarily focuses on professional practice, policy, and advocacy for registered nurses in the United States?

a)

National Student Nurses Association (NSNA)

b)

American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)

c)

National League for Nurses (NLN)

d)

American Nurses Association (ANA)

104.

Which organization is most closely associated with nursing education quality and faculty development across programs?

a)

National League for Nurses (NLN)

b)

American Academy of Nursing (AAN)

c)

International Council of Nurses (ICN)

d)

National Student Nurses Association (NSNA)

105.

Which organization represents academic leaders and sets standards for baccalaureate and higher-degree nursing programs?

a)

American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)

b)

American Nurses Association (ANA)

c)

American Academy of Nursing (AAN)

d)

International Council of Nurses (ICN)

106.

Which organization is a membership body that advances nursing scholarship and recognizes fellows for leadership and research?

a)

National Student Nurses Association (NSNA)

b)

American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)

c)

National League for Nurses (NLN)

d)

American Academy of Nursing (AAN)

107.

Which organization primarily supports pre-licensure nursing students through leadership, networking, and career development?

a)

American Academy of Nursing (AAN)

b)

American Nurses Association (ANA)

c)

National Student Nurses Association (NSNA)

d)

International Council of Nurses (ICN)

108.

Which primary function is served by Nurse Practice Acts in the United States?

a)

Determine federal drug classification lists

b)

Set national reimbursement fee schedules

c)

Outline hospital staffing ratios statewide

d)

Define legal scope of nursing practice

109.

What entity is created to make and enforce nursing rules and regulations under state authority?

a)

State board of nursing

b)

Federal nursing commission

c)

Professional union council

d)

Hospital credentialing committee

110.

Which statement best describes the legal distinction recognized by Nurse Practice Acts between RN and LPN roles?

a)

They restrict both to administrative tasks

b)

They eliminate supervision requirements

c)

They mandate identical clinical privileges

d)

They define legal requirements and titles

111.

What do Nurse Practice Acts establish regarding education and licensure?

a)

Vendor procurement training standards

b)

Criteria for nurse education and licensure

c)

Hospital orientation scheduling policies

d)

Continuing education conference topics

112.

Which item is explicitly listed among the guidelines for nursing practice?

a)

Standards of Nursing Practice

b)

Biomedical device procurement rules

c)

Federal tax withholding tables

d)

Insurance actuarial risk formulas

113.

Which framework guides ethical decision making and professional conduct for nurses?

a)

Code of ethics and professional values

b)

Hospital marketing and branding guidelines

c)

Pharmacologic treatment algorithms manual

d)

State revenue and taxation handbook

114.

Which process organizes assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation in clinical care?

a)

Revenue cycle workflow

b)

Biomedical research grant cycle

c)

Supply chain replenishment loop

d)

Nursing process model

115.

A new graduate seeks authority to practice and use a protected title. Which requirement applies?

a)

Completion of unit orientation

b)

Employer-issued job description

c)

Membership in a professional union

d)

State licensure through the board

116.

Which body sets standards that describe competent nursing care across settings?

a)

Standards of Nursing Practice

b)

Hospital volunteer handbook

c)

Pharmaceutical sales policies

d)

Biomedical engineering protocols

117.

Which statement most accurately links Nurse Practice Acts to clinical judgment models?

a)

Acts define scope; models guide decision making

b)

Acts manage staffing; models write reimbursement

c)

Acts enforce ethics; models issue licensure cards

d)

Acts teach procedures; models set legal titles