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Cloud Computing Unit 1 Quiz PE-4

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a core benefit of cloud computing?

a)

Manual provisioning

b)

Heavy infrastructure

c)

Scalability

d)

Local-only access

2.

Which model delivers ready-to-use applications via the internet?

a)

IaaS

b)

SaaS

c)

PaaS

d)

DaaS

3.

Peer-to-peer systems are characterized by what?

a)

Centralized control

b)

Hardware isolation

c)

Decentralization

d)

Uniform latency

4.

Which cloud model allows users to control the OS and software?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

FaaS

5.

What entity provides connectivity in the NIST cloud model?

a)

Consumer

b)

Carrier

c)

Broker

d)

Auditor

6.

What is the role of a broker in cloud computing?

a)

Audit resources

b)

Intermediates services

c)

Builds virtual machines

d)

Encrypts data

7.

Which audit checks data collection and usage practices?

a)

Performance Audit

b)

Security Audit

c)

Privacy Impact Audit

d)

Financial Audit

8.

Which deployment model is ideal for sensitive data?

a)

Public Cloud

b)

Hybrid Cloud

c)

Private Cloud

d)

Edge Cloud

9.

What does the service management layer handle?

a)

Cooling systems

b)

Billing & provisioning

c)

Hardware setup

d)

Firewall routing

10.

Which term refers to moving between cloud providers easily?

a)

Interoperability

b)

Abstraction

c)

Virtualization

d)

Portability

11.

What ethical issue arises due to unclear boundaries in cloud systems?

a)

Transparency

b)

Deperimeterization

c)

Integrity

d)

Deduplication

12.

A drawback of vendor lock-in is?

a)

Performance boost

b)

Increased flexibility

c)

Reduced switching

d)

Cost reduction

13.

What challenge occurs when too many systems manage the cloud?

a)

Concurrency

b)

Redundancy

c)

Problem of Many Hands

d)

Broadcast Storm

14.

Which cloud vulnerability involves external threats?

a)

Software bugs

b)

Cyberattacks

c)

Cooling failure

d)

Resource throttling

15.

A software bug in a load balancer may cause?

a)

Quicker failover

b)

Cascading failure

c)

Streamlined routing

d)

Enhanced redundancy

16.

What model is used for delivering apps like Gmail?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

DaaS

17.

What kind of cloud shares infrastructure with multiple tenants?

a)

Private

b)

Public

c)

Hybrid

d)

Community

18.

What is a thin client?

a)

A high-performance server

b)

Minimal device accessing cloud

c)

Gateway hardware

d)

Standalone database

19.

Which historical P2P project helped analyze space signals?

a)

Napster

b)

SETI@home

c)

SMTP

d)

ICMP

20.

Which system allows decentralization and peer acting as both client and server?

a)

Client-server

b)

Cloud

c)

P2P

d)

ISP

21.

Which cloud layer hides hardware complexity?

a)

Service Layer

b)

Control Plane

c)

Physical Layer

d)

Resource Abstraction & Control Layer

22.

Which virtualization feature supports running multiple OS?

a)

Dedicated routing

b)

Multithreading

c)

Hypervisors

d)

API chaining

23.

Which physical component ensures online reliability?

a)

Bandwidth shaper

b)

Uninterruptible power supply

c)

Modem

d)

Switch emulator

24.

What is a challenge specific to SaaS?

a)

Resource pooling

b)

On-demand access

c)

Denial-of-service attacks

d)

Manual updates

25.

What architecture executes one instruction per data item?

a)

MIMD

b)

SISD

c)

SIMD

d)

MISD

26.

SIMD architecture excels at?

a)

Email processing

b)

Vector manipulation

c)

Packet routing

d)

OS booting

27.

Which parallel architecture supports redundancy and fault tolerance?

a)

SISD

b)

MIMD

c)

MISD

d)

SIMD

28.

Which parallel model processes large independent chunks?

a)

Fine-grained

b)

Coarse-grained

c)

Multithreaded

d)

Hybrid-grained

29.

What is an example of SPMD?

a)

Multiple cores running different programs

b)

All processors executing same code on different data

c)

Switching threads dynamically

d)

Manual task scheduling

30.

A group of independent computers appearing as one system is called?

a)

Parallel CPU

b)

Distributed System

c)

Load Balancer

d)

GPU Cluster

31.

Middleware feature ensuring consistent access to remote resources is?

a)

Failure transparency

b)

Access transparency

c)

Scaling transparency

d)

Interrupt transparency

32.

What does replication transparency hide?

a)

Memory access speed

b)

Communication protocol

c)

Data redundancy

d)

Processor load

33.

What protocol feature avoids data loss due to buffer overflow?

a)

Error control

b)

Flow control

c)

Congestion control

d)

Bit masking

34.

What clock type assigns event timestamps without global time?

a)

Atomic clock

b)

Wall-clock

c)

Logical clock

d)

UTC clock

35.

What is the rule for logical clock on a receive event?

a)

LC + 2

b)

max(LC, TS+1)

c)

TS + 3

d)

LC = TS

36.

What does FIFO delivery guarantee?

a)

Security audit logs

b)

Ordered message reception

c)

Bandwidth efficiency

d)

Multi-path routing

37.

Which delivery rule ensures message order between multiple senders?

a)

Causal Delivery

b)

Sequential Delivery

c)

Randomized Routing

d)

Synchronous Transfer

38.

A message is stable when?

a)

It's sent securely

b)

No earlier-timestamp message will arrive

c)

It reaches all receivers

d)

It is logged correctly

39.

Concurrency is best described as?

a)

Running same program multiple times

b)

Multiple processes happening at once

c)

Reducing workload

d)

Pausing all threads

40.

What OS feature manages switching between threads?

a)

Kernel Trap

b)

Multithreading controller

c)

Context Switching

d)

Memory Stack Reset

41.

Which is a challenge in concurrency?

a)

Synchronized logging

b)

Race conditions

c)

Stack overflow

d)

Memory fragmentation

42.

What occurs when two processes wait on each other indefinitely?

a)

Deadlock

b)

Timeout

c)

Livelock

d)

Starvation

43.

Which concurrency issue causes constant reaction without progress?

a)

Race condition

b)

Deadlock

c)

Livelock

d)

Pipeline stall

44.

What problem blocks high-priority task by lower-priority resource?

a)

Packet loss

b)

Core saturation

c)

Priority inversion

d)

Interrupt masking

45.

What communication model uses shared memory?

a)

Distributed messaging

b)

Shared memory model

c)

Multicast queue

d)

GPU buffer system

46.

What type of parallelism enables detailed thread interaction?

a)

SPMD

b)

Coarse-grained

c)

Instruction-level

d)

Fine-grained

47.

What does the performance audit validate?

a)

Hardware failure logs

b)

Compliance paperwork

c)

SLA metrics like uptime & latency

d)

User satisfaction survey

48.

Which system supports scaling via transparency?

a)

Static Systems

b)

Legacy Systems

c)

Middleware in distributed systems

d)

Standalone OS

49.

Which parallel model processes different tasks on multiple cores?

a)

Task Parallelism

b)

Data Parallelism

c)

Instruction Parallelism

d)

Thread Caching

50.

What does the resource control layer enforce in cloud?

a)

Social media policies

b)

Usage quotas & QoS rules

c)

VM power limits

d)

Encryption strategy