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Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in detrusor contraction?

a)

GABA

b)

Serotonin

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Dopamine

e)

Histamine

2.

The most common histologic subtype of RCC is:

a)

Papillary

b)

Chromophobe

c)

Clear cell

d)

Collecting duct

e)

Oncocytoma

3.

What is the most common site for urethral stricture in men?

a)

Penile urethra

b)

Bulbar urethra

c)

Membranous urethra

d)

Prostatic urethra

e)

Navicular fossa

4.

Which of the following is a typical finding in testicular seminoma on ultrasound?

a)

Heterogeneous and cystic

b)

Homogeneous and hypoechoic

c)

Hyperechoic with calcifications

d)

Hypervascular mass

e)

Multiloculated

5.

Which zone of the prostate is the origin of BPH?

a)

Peripheral

b)

Transition

c)

Central

d)

Anterior fibromuscular

e)

Posterior

6.

The gold standard for evaluation of urethral stricture is:

a)

Flexible cystoscopy

b)

Retrograde urethrogram

c)

Uroflowmetry

d)

VCUG

e)

MRI pelvis

7.

The mechanism of stone fragmentation in SWL is primarily:

a)

Chemical lysis

b)

Cavitation and shear stress

c)

Direct ablation

d)

Thermocoagulation

e)

Sonographic disintegration

8.

The afferent limb of the micturition reflex is carried by:

a)

Hypogastric nerve

b)

Pelvic nerve

c)

Pudendal nerve

d)

Ilioinguinal nerve

e)

Genitofemoral nerve

9.

The most common type of pediatric kidney stone is:

a)

Uric acid

b)

Cystine

c)

Calcium-based

d)

Xanthine

e)

Matrix

10.

What is the classic imaging sign of xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis on CT?

a)

Cortical scarring

b)

Bear paw sign

c)

Nephrogram delay

d)

Calcified mass

e)

Honeycomb kidney

11.

In urethral cancer, HPV is most commonly associated with which histologic type?

a)

Adenocarcinoma

b)

Squamous cell carcinoma

c)

Urothelial carcinoma

d)

Sarcoma

e)

Melanoma

12.

Which class of medication provides the fastest symptomatic relief in male LUTS?

a)

5-alpha reductase inhibitors

b)

Alpha-blockers

c)

PDE-5 inhibitors

d)

Antimuscarinics

e)

Beta-3 agonists

13.

Which test best distinguishes stress from urge incontinence?

a)

Bladder diary

b)

Ultrasound

c)

Urodynamic study

d)

Cystoscopy

e)

VCUG

14.

In testicular cancer, i(12p) chromosomal marker suggests:

a)

Benign behavior

b)

Germ cell origin

c)

Poor prognosis

d)

Teratoma

e)

Sertoli tumor

15.

What is the mechanism of finasteride in BPH treatment?

a)

Blocks alpha-1 receptors

b)

Inhibits testosterone receptors

c)

Inhibits 5-alpha reductase type II

d)

Antagonizes M3 receptors

e)

Inhibits GnRH

16.

Which of the following is NOT part of the IPSS questionnaire?

a)

Nocturia

b)

Incomplete emptying

c)

Pain during urination

d)

Weak stream

e)

Straining

17.

In cystinuria, which urine crystal is characteristic?

a)

Envelope-shaped

b)

Hexagonal

c)

Coffin-lid

d)

Needle-shaped

e)

Diamond-shaped

18.

Which urinary tract tumor is most responsive to immunotherapy?

a)

Papillary RCC

b)

Chromophobe RCC

c)

Clear cell RCC

d)

Collecting duct RCC

e)

Urothelial carcinoma

19.

Which of the following is a primary paraneoplastic syndrome associated with RCC?

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Hypokalemia

e)

Hyperlipidemia

20.

What is the first-line pharmacologic agent for overactive bladder?

a)

Mirabegron

b)

Solifenacin

c)

Finasteride

d)

Tamsulosin

e)

Oxybutynin

21.

The most appropriate initial imaging for suspected ureteral stone is:

a)

KUB

b)

MRI

c)

IVU

d)

Non-contrast CT

e)

Renal ultrasound

22.

Which condition is strongly associated with brushite stones?

a)

Hyperoxaluria

b)

Gout

c)

Hypocitraturia

d)

Primary hyperparathyroidism

e)

Vitamin C overuse

23.

A Bosniak IV cyst contains:

a)

No septa

b)

Enhancing soft tissue components

c)

Simple fluid only

d)

Calcifications without enhancement

e)

Clear solid areas

24.

What is the initial treatment of T2 muscle-invasive bladder cancer?

a)

TURBT only

b)

Radiation alone

c)

Radical cystectomy with neoadjuvant chemotherapy

d)

BCG

e)

Chemotherapy alone

25.

Which Gleason pattern denotes the most poorly differentiated prostate cancer?

a)

Pattern 3

b)

Pattern 2

c)

Pattern 4

d)

Pattern 5

e)

Pattern 1

26.

Management of primary nocturnal enuresis: A 7 years old boy has been brought by parents with long history of nocturnal enuresis. He is perfectly ok during the day. Due to almost daily bedwetting, he is getting upset. The urinalysis and renal tract ultrasonography performed by general practitioner were unremarkable. Which of the following is correct about managing this child?

a)

No treatment is indicated as the condition is likely to resolve spontaneously

b)

Referral to the psychiatrist is necessary as the child suffers from anxiety disorder

c)

Urodynamics are indicated to exclude secondary causes of enuresis

d)

Pharmacotherapy with imipramine is the first step as it has good safety profile

e)

Combination of supportive measures along with desmopressin (DDAVP) is expected to be associated with high cure rates

27.

Correct statement about renal stones in children: Regarding renal stone disease in children, which of the following is correct?

a)

In children, the stones are mostly caused by genetic causes and inborn errors of metabolism

b)

The reported rates of recurrence of kidney stones are lower than rates reported for adults

c)

The highest incidence of renal stones is in children less than 5 years of age

d)

Most stones are composed of uric acid

e)

Children who develop kidney stones are at risk for development of chronic kidney disease and heart disease

28.

Correct statement about SWL in children: Regarding Shockwave Lithotripsy (SWL) in children, which of the following is correct?

a)

Bowel preparation is routinely used

b)

General anesthesia is mandatory in all children

c)

Overall, SWL success rates are inferior compared with adults

d)

Placement of ureteral stent is necessary before SWL to facilitate stone passage

e)

Stone composition is an important predictor of stone fragmentation

29.

Which of the following therapies/maneuvers used for improving penile plaque and curvature in Peyronie's disease have shown comparatively better clinical benefit in published studies?

a)

Shockwave treatment (SWT)

b)

Transdermal electromotive drug administration (EMDA)/iontophoresis

c)

Penile traction

d)

Vacuum devices

e)

Radiation therapy

30.

Process whereby a mature spermatid frees itself from the Sertoli cell and enters the tubular lumen is called:

a)

Spermatogoniogenesis

b)

Spermatogenesis

c)

Spermatocytogenesis

d)

Spermiogenesis

e)

Spermiation