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NET01 - FINALS P2

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?

a)
  • Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.

b)
  • Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter .

c)
  • Exit global configuration mode.

2.

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

a)
  • CSMA/CA

b)
  • CSMA/CD

3.

What is a function of the data link layer?

a)
  • provides the formatting of data

b)
  • provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts

c)
  • provides delivery of data between two applications

d)
  • provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media

4.

What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?

a)
  • to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination

b)
  • to end communication when data transmission is complete

c)
  • to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward

d)
  • to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data

5.

What characteristic describes spyware?

a)
  • software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user

b)
  • an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

c)
  • the use of stolen credentials to access private data

6.

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

a)
  • store-and-forward switching

b)
  • cut-through switching

7.

Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

a)
  • FEC0::/10

b)
  • FDEE::/7

c)
  • FE80::/10

d)
  • FF00::/8

8.

A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

a)
  • DNS server

b)
  • source port number

c)
  • HTTP server

d)
  • source MAC address

e)
  • default gateway

9.

Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

a)
  • NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.

b)
  • NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.

c)
  • NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.

d)
  • NAT improves packet handling.

10.

What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?

a)
  • 0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

b)
  • 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

c)
  • C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

d)
  • 106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

11.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?

a)
  • PC2 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.

b)
  • SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.​

c)
  • RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.​

12.

What service is provided by BOOTP?

a)
  • Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

b)
  • Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.

c)
  • Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.

d)
  • A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

13.

What characteristic describes adware?

a)
  • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

b)
  • software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user

c)
  • the use of stolen credentials to access private data

d)
  • an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

14.

When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?

a)
  • cut-through

b)
  • store-and-forward

c)
  • fast-forward

d)
  • fragment-free

15.

Match a statement to the related network model: peer-to-peer network

a)

no dedicated server is required

b)

client and server roles are set on a per request basis

c)

requires a specific user interface

d)

a background service is required

16.

Match a statement to the related network model: peer-to-peer application

a)

no dedicated server is required

b)

client and server roles are set on a per request basis

c)

requires a specific user interface

d)

a background service is required

17.

What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)

a)
  • error detection

b)
  • frame delimiting

c)
  • accessing the media

d)
  • data encapsulation

e)
  • logical addressing

18.

Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

a)
  • The switch can be remotely managed.

b)
  • One device is attached to a physical interface.

c)
  • The default SVI has been configured.

d)
  • Two devices are attached to the switch.

e)
  • Two physical interfaces have been configured.

19.

This field helps to direct the frame toward its destination.

a)

addressing

b)

error detection

c)

type

d)

frame start

20.

This field checks if the frame has been damaged during the transfer.

a)

addressing

b)

error detection

c)

type

d)

frame start

21.

This field is used by the LLC to identify the Layer 3 protocol.

a)

addressing

b)

error detection

c)

type

d)

frame start

22.

This field identifies the beginning of a frame.

a)

addressing

b)

error detection

c)

type

d)

frame start

23.

What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

a)
  • 2001:DA48::/64​

b)
  • 2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64​

c)
  • 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64​

d)
  • 2001::/64

24.

Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

a)
  • syslog records and messages

b)
  • the network performance baseline

c)
  • debug output and packet captures

d)
  • network configuration files

25.

How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

a)
  • It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.

b)
  • It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.

c)
  • It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

26.

Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers?

a)
  • The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

b)
  • The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.

c)
  • The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.

d)
  • The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

e)
  • The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

27.

A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed

The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

a)
  • 255.255.255.192

b)
  • 255.255.255.252

c)
  • 255.255.255.240

d)
  • 255.255.255.224

28.

What characteristic describes identity theft?

a)
  • the use of stolen credentials to access private data

b)
  • software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

c)
  • software that identifies fast-spreading threats

d)
  • a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

29.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)
  • 255.255.255.240

b)
  • 255.255.255.0

c)
  • 255.255.255.248

d)
  • 255.255.255.224

30.

What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)

a)
  • connector color

b)
  • tensile strength of plastic insulator

c)

cable lengths

d)
  • pinouts

e)
  • connector types

31.

Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

a)
  • The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

b)
  • The wrong type of connector is being used.

c)
  • The untwisted length of each wire is too long.

d)
  • The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

32.

An IP Address is...(Choose three)

a)

contained in the Layer 3 header

b)

separated into a network portion and a unique identifier

c)

32 or 128 bits

d)

separated into OUI and a unique identifier

e)

48 bits

33.

A MAC Address is...(Choose three)

a)

contained in the Layer 2 header

b)

separated into a network portion and a unique identifier

c)

32 or 128 bits

d)

separated into OUI and a unique identifier

e)

48 bits

34.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • IMAP

b)
  • FTP

c)
  • SSH

d)
  • Telnet

35.

What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

a)
  • default window size

b)
  • port numbering

c)
  • use of checksum

d)
  • 3-way handshake

e)
  • connectionless communication

36.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses can be assigned to the network containing 10 hosts? Your answers should waste the fewest addresses, not reuse addresses that are already assigned, and stay within the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose two.)

a)
  • 10.18.10.200/28

b)
  • 10.18.10.208/28

c)
  • 10.18.10.224/28

d)
  • 10.18.10.200/27

e)
  • 10.18.10.224/27

37.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • FTP

b)

SSH

c)

Telnet

38.

What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?

a)
  • attached Ethernet cable

b)
  • IP address

c)
  • MAC address

d)
  • RJ-45 port

e)
  • TCP/IP protocol stack

39.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 10 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)
  • 255.255.255.192

b)
  • 255.255.255.248

c)
  • 255.255.255.224

d)
  • 255.255.255.240

40.

What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

a)
  • wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs

b)
  • twisting the wires together into pairs

c)
  • terminating the cable with special grounded connectors

d)
  • encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath

41.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

a)
  • only router R1

b)
  • only hosts A, B, C, and D

c)
  • only hosts B and C

d)
  • only hosts B, C, and router R1

42.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused across all four subnets?

a)

88

b)

200

c)

72

d)

224

43.

Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in an Ethernet LAN?

a)

RJ11

b)

SC Connector

c)

RJ 45

44.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • SSH

b)

Telnet

c)

FTP

45.

What characteristic describes an IPS?

a)
  • a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

b)
  • software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

c)
  • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

46.

What service is provided by DHCP?

a)
  • An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

b)
  • Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

c)
  • Dynamically assigns IP addresses to end and intermediary devices.

47.

Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model: LAYER 2

a)

802.2 header

b)

FCS (frame check sequence)

c)

destination MAC address

d)

TTL

e)

Acknowledgement number

48.

Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model: LAYER 3

a)

802.2 header

b)

source IP address

c)

destination MAC address

d)

TTL

e)

Acknowledgement number

49.

Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model: LAYER 4

a)

802.2 header

b)

source IP address

c)

destination port number

d)

TTL

e)

Acknowledgement number

50.

Which wireless technology has low-power and low-data rate requirements making it popular in IoT environments?

a)
  • Bluetooth

b)
  • Zigbee

c)
  • WiMAX

d)
  • Wi-Fi

51.

What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

a)
  • neighbor solicitations

b)
  • neighbor advertisements

c)
  • router solicitations

d)
  • router advertisements

e)
  • echo requests

52.

A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

a)
  • It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.

b)
  • It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.

c)
  • It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.

d)
  • It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.

53.

Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?

a)
  • The default gateway is not operational.

b)
  • The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address.

c)
  • Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.

d)

  • The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly.

54.

An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?

a)

256

b)
  • 512

c)
  • 1024

d)
  • 4096

55.

What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?

a)
  • 255.255.255.240

b)
  • 255.255.255.128

c)
  • 255.255.255.192

d)
  • 255.255.255.224

56.

Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

a)
  • DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD

b)
  • BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB

c)
  • 172.168.11.88

d)
  • 172.168.10.65

57.

What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

a)
  • Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.

b)
  • Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.

c)
  • End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.

58.

Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved?

a)
  • Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.

b)
  • Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.

c)
  • Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.

d)
  • Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.

59.

What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

a)
  • It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.

b)
  • It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward the packet to a remote network.

c)
  • It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media.

60.

What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)

a)
  • A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

b)
  • After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

c)
  • All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

d)
  • A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.

e)
  • The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.

61.

Which information does the show startup-config command display?

a)
  • the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM

b)
  • the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

62.

Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

a)
  • netstat -s

b)
  • route print

c)
  • show ip route

d)
  • netstat -r

e)
  • tracert

63.

What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)

a)
  • directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks

b)
  • placing data on the network medium

c)
  • carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination hosts

d)
  • providing dedicated end-to-end connections

e)
  • providing end devices with a unique network identifier

64.

Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router? (Choose two.)​

a)
  • Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing table: C and S .

b)
  • The netstat -r command can be used to display the routing table of a router.​

c)
  • It stores information about routes derived from the active router interfaces.

d)
  • If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code S .

65.

What characteristic describes a VPN?

a)
  • software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

b)
  • software that identifies fast-spreading threats

c)
  • a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

d)
  • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

66.

Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

a)
  • to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs

b)
  • to enable the switch to function as a default gateway

c)
  • to enable the switch to be managed remotely

d)
  • to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

67.

the process of placing one message format inside another message format

a)

message encapsulation

b)

message sizing

c)

message encoding

68.

the process of breaking up a long message into individual pieces before being sent over the network

a)

message encapsulation

b)

message sizing

c)

message encoding

69.

the process of converting information from one format into another acceptable for transmission

a)

message encapsulation

b)

message sizing

c)

message encoding

70.

A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?

a)
  • the network domain of the destination host

b)
  • the IP address of the default gateway

c)
  • the MAC address of the destination host

d)
  • the MAC address of the default gateway

71.

What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

a)
  • A company can monopolize the market.

b)
  • The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.

c)
  • An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.

d)
  • It encourages competition and promotes choices.

72.

Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

a)
  • The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.

b)
  • UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.

c)
  • The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.

d)
  • TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.

e)
  • The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.

73.

number of bytes a destination device can accept and process at one time

a)

window size

b)


sequence numbers

c)

retransmission

d)

acknowledgment

74.

used to identify missing segments of data

a)

window size

b)


sequence numbers

c)

retransmission

d)

acknowledgment

75.

method of managing segments of data loss

a)

window size

b)


sequence numbers

c)

retransmission

d)

acknowledgment

76.

received by a sender before transmitting more segments in a session

a)

window size

b)


sequence numbers

c)

retransmission

d)

acknowledgment

77.

Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

a)
  • 255.255.255.192

b)
  • 255.255.255.0

c)
  • 255.255.255.128

d)
  • 255.255.255.240

e)
  • 255.255.255.224

78.

A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:

Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses

Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses

Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses

What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

a)
  • 255.255.255.0

b)
  • 255.255.255.240

c)
  • 255.255.255.248

d)
  • 255.255.255.252

79.

Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified: Physical Topology

a)

location of a desktop PC in a classroom

b)

path of cables that connect rooms to wiring closets

c)

IP address of a server

d)

USB port on a desktop PC in a classroom

80.

Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified: Logical Topology

a)

location of a desktop PC in a classroom

b)

path of cables that connect rooms to wiring closets

c)

IP address of a server

d)

USB port on a desktop PC in a classroom

81.

What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

a)
  • IP addresses

b)
  • interface descriptions

c)
  • MAC addresses

d)
  • speed and duplex settings

e)
  • Layer 1 statuses

82.

A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?

a)

ping

b)

nslookup

c)

tracert

d)
  • ipconfig /displaydns

83.

Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a packet?

a)
  • Time-to-Live

b)
  • Fragment Offset

c)
  • Differentiated Services

d)
  • Header Length

84.

A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.

b)
  • Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than copper cabling.

c)
  • Fiber optic cabling is susceptible to loss of signal due to RFI.

d)
  • Fiber optic cable is able to withstand rough handling.

e)
  • Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be immune to EMI.

85.

Match each description with an appropriate IP address: an experimental address

a)

240.2.6.255

b)

169.254.1.5

c)

198.133.219.2

d)

127.0.0.1

86.

Match each description with an appropriate IP address: a link-local address

a)

240.2.6.255

b)

169.254.1.5

c)

198.133.219.2

d)

127.0.0.1

87.

Match each description with an appropriate IP address: a public address

a)

240.2.6.255

b)

169.254.1.5

c)

198.133.219.2

d)

127.0.0.1

88.

Match each description with an appropriate IP address: a loopback address

a)

240.2.6.255

b)

169.254.1.5

c)

198.133.219.2

d)

127.0.0.1

89.

A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

a)
  • when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message

b)
  • when the RTT value reaches zero

c)
  • when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message

d)
  • when the value in the TTL field reaches zero

e)
  • when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

90.

Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?

a)

virus

b)

worm

c)

phishing

d)

spam