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Foundry Technology Quiz

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a pattern material?

a)

Wood

b)

Plastic

c)

Clay

d)

Metal

2.

The most commonly used material for patterns is:

a)

Metal

b)

Plastic

c)

Wax

d)

Wood

3.

A single piece pattern is also known as:

a)

Split pattern

b)

Solid pattern

c)

Match plate pattern

d)

Loose pattern

4.

A pattern split along the parting line is called:

a)

Match plate

b)

Split pattern

c)

Gated pattern

d)

Skeleton pattern

5.

Which pattern is easiest to manufacture?

a)

Split pattern

b)

Gated pattern

c)

Solid pattern

d)

Sweep pattern

6.

Shrinkage allowance is given to:

a)

Compensate for contraction

b)

Provide draft

c)

Improve surface finish

d)

Facilitate machining

7.

Machining allowance is provided to:

a)

Account for metal shrinkage

b)

Avoid defects

c)

Allow for later machining

d)

Reduce weight

8.

A draft allowance is used to:

a)

Increase strength

b)

Aid pattern removal

c)

Prevent leakage

d)

Improve finish

9.

Which of the following is not a type of pattern allowance?

a)

Shrinkage

b)

Draft

c)

Machining

d)

Ejection

10.

The most accurate pattern type is:

a)

Solid

b)

Split

c)

Match plate

d)

Sweep

11.

A core is used to:

a)

Strengthen the mould

b)

Produce hollow sections

c)

Increase melting temperature

d)

Improve surface finish

12.

The material commonly used for core making is:

a)

Clay

b)

Green sand

c)

Core sand

d)

Plaster

13.

The binder used in CO₂ core making is:

a)

Clay

b)

Sodium silicate

c)

Molasses

d)

Bentonite

14.

In CO₂ core making, what gas is passed through the core?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Nitrogen

15.

The main advantage of CO₂ core making is:

a)

Low strength

b)

Faster production

c)

Poor collapsibility

d)

Less accuracy

16.

Which of the following is not a property of good core?

a)

High strength

b)

Refractoriness

c)

Collapsibility

d)

High plasticity

17.

Core prints are used to:

a)

Provide smooth finish

b)

Position the core

c)

Act as gating system

d)

Create sprue

18.

Vents in a core are provided for:

a)

Shrinkage

b)

Gas escape

c)

Rigidity

d)

Core removal

19.

Core sand should be:

a)

Moist

b)

Coarse and dry

c)

Finely ground

d)

Mixed with water

20.

CO₂ core making results in:

a)

No hardening

b)

Quick hardening

c)

Core burning

d)

Delayed solidification

21.

The furnace used to melt cast iron in foundries is:

a)

Crucible

b)

Cupola

c)

Induction

d)

Electric arc

22.

The cupola furnace is:

a)

Batch type

b)

Continuous type

c)

Electric powered

d)

Gas fired

23.

The topmost layer in cupola is:

a)

Slag

b)

Metal

c)

Coke

d)

Flux

24.

The fuel used in a cupola furnace is:

a)

Gas

b)

Oil

c)

Coke

d)

Coal

25.

The main function of flux in cupola is to:

a)

Act as fuel

b)

Remove impurities

c)

Increase melting temperature

d)

Harden the metal

26.

Crucible furnace is mainly used for:

a)

Cast iron

b)

Steel

c)

Non-ferrous metals

d)

Pig iron

27.

Which of the following is a non-ferrous metal?

a)

Steel

b)

Cast iron

c)

Copper

d)

Wrought iron

28.

Crucible furnaces are usually:

a)

Electric

b)

Fuel-fired

c)

Both A and B

d)

Water-cooled

29.

Electric arc furnaces are commonly used for melting:

a)

Aluminium

b)

Brass

c)

Steel

d)

Zinc

30.

In electric arc furnace, heat is generated by:

a)

Gas combustion

b)

Chemical reaction

c)

Electric arc

d)

Induction

31.

Electric arc furnace is:

a)

Cheap to operate

b)

Environmentally friendly

c)

Used only for copper

d)

Unable to melt steel

32.

Which furnace uses high-frequency currents?

a)

Crucible

b)

Cupola

c)

Electric arc

d)

Induction

33.

Which of the following is not used in cupola furnace?

a)

Coke

b)

Limestone

c)

Oil

d)

Air blast

34.

Melting point of cast iron is around:

a)

800°C

b)

1000°C

c)

1200°C

d)

1500°C

35.

Cupola lining is made from:

a)

Graphite

b)

Refractory bricks

c)

Steel

d)

Limestone

36.

Sand casting is commonly used due to its:

a)

Low cost

b)

High speed

c)

Precision

d)

Shiny surface

37.

Green sand is called so because:

a)

It is green in color

b)

It contains moisture

c)

It is made from plants

d)

It is eco-friendly

38.

Dry sand casting is different from green sand casting because:

a)

It uses wax

b)

Sand is heated and dried

c)

No pattern is used

d)

Metal is cold

39.

In gravity die casting, molten metal is poured:

a)

With vacuum

b)

Under pressure

c)

Using gravity

d)

With centrifugal force

40.

In pressure die casting, metal is forced into the die:

a)

By vacuum

b)

By gravity

c)

Under high pressure

d)

By hammering

41.

The hot chamber process is suitable for:

a)

High melting point metals

b)

Ferrous metals

c)

Low melting point alloys

d)

Steel

42.

Cold chamber die casting is used for:

a)

Aluminium

b)

Zinc

c)

Lead

d)

Tin

43.

Centrifugal casting is used for:

a)

Flat components

b)

Solid castings

c)

Hollow symmetrical parts

d)

Thin sheets

44.

The force used in centrifugal casting is:

a)

Gravitational

b)

Centrifugal

c)

Vacuum

d)

Magnetic

45.

Continuous casting is commonly used for:

a)

Pistons

b)

Bearings

c)

Billets and blooms

d)

Jewellery

46.

Pressure die casting provides:

a)

High porosity

b)

Poor accuracy

c)

Fine surface finish

d)

Low strength

47.

Gravity die casting is:

a)

Very slow

b)

Expensive

c)

Less accurate than pressure die

d)

Used only in labs

48.

Permanent mould casting refers to:

a)

Sand moulds

b)

Wax patterns

c)

Metal moulds

d)

Ceramic moulds

49.

Which process is most suitable for mass production?

a)

Sand casting

b)

Die casting

c)

Lost wax casting

d)

Shell moulding

50.

Which method is least expensive for low-volume production?

a)

Die casting

b)

Gravity die casting

c)

Sand casting

51.

Which method is least expensive for low-volume production?

a)

Die casting

b)

Gravity die casting

c)

Sand casting

d)

Investment casting

52.

A blow hole in casting is caused by:

a)

Cold metal

b)

Gases trapped

c)

High temperature

d)

Core shifting

53.

Shrinkage defect can be prevented by:

a)

High pouring rate

b)

Proper riser design

c)

Using wet sand

d)

Adding flux

54.

Cold shut occurs due to:

a)

Low melting temperature

b)

Low pouring temperature

c)

High pouring speed

d)

Excessive gating

55.

Misrun is caused by:

a)

Slag

b)

Low fluidity

c)

Cold metal

d)

B and C

56.

A scab defect is:

a)

Crack

b)

Surface inclusion

c)

Gas pocket

d)

Metal penetration

57.

Inclusion defects are caused by:

a)

Pure metal

b)

Solidification delay

c)

Foreign particles

d)

High pressure

58.

Pinholes are tiny:

a)

Metal projections

b)

Gas holes

c)

Cracks

d)

Shrinkage cavities

59.

Cold shot appears due to:

a)

Entrapped metal

b)

Unfused metal globules

c)

High speed

d)

Overheating

60.

Mould erosion is caused by:

a)

Slow pouring

b)

Abrasive metal stream

c)

Cold metal

d)

Wet sand

61.

Remedy for blowholes includes:

a)

Using dry sand

b)

Proper venting

c)

Overheating metal

d)

Increasing sand hardness

62.

Scab defects are caused by:

a)

Excess ramming

b)

Inadequate permeability

c)

Moisture in sand

d)

All of the above

63.

Hot tears occur due to:

a)

Rapid cooling

b)

Weak mould

c)

Uneven solidification

d)

Core shifting

64.

To eliminate inclusions:

a)

Pour quickly

b)

Add slag

c)

Use filters

d)

Use wet cores

65.

Metal penetration can be minimized by:

a)

Coarse sand

b)

Fine sand and coatings

c)

Increasing temperature

d)

Wetting the mould

66.

Which of the following is not a defect?

a)

Misrun

b)

Shrinkage cavity

c)

Riser

d)

Blowhole

67.

Fettling is the process of:

a)

Moulding

b)

Cleaning casting

c)

Pouring

d)

Melting

68.

Flash removal is part of:

a)

Casting

b)

Fettling

c)

Core making

d)

Pattern making

69.

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in foundry includes:

a)

Safety goggles

b)

Gloves

c)

Apron

d)

All of the above

70.

Major hazard in foundry is:

a)

Dust

b)

Heat

c)

Metal splash

d)

All of the above

71.

To reduce metal splash risk:

a)

Use dry moulds

b)

Use wet sand

c)

Pour slowly

d)

Avoid risers

72.

Noise in foundry mainly comes from:

a)

Melting

b)

Fettling

c)

Core baking

d)

Sand mixing

73.

Foundry sand waste is managed by:

a)

Dumping

b)

Recycling

c)

Burning

d)

Mixing with metal

74.

Foundry floor should be:

a)

Wet

b)

Covered with oil

c)

Clean and dry

d)

Uneven

75.

Fire extinguishers in foundry should be:

a)

CO₂ type

b)

Water type

c)

Foam only

d)

Not required

76.

Foundry safety training is:

a)

Optional

b)

Only for supervisors

c)

Mandatory for all

d)

Not needed

77.

Which pattern type is used when the shape is simple and can be withdrawn directly?

a)

Split pattern

b)

Solid pattern

c)

Match plate pattern

d)

Skeleton pattern

78.

Which allowance is given to compensate for metal contraction upon cooling?

a)

Draft allowance

b)

Shake allowance

c)

Shrinkage allowance

d)

Machining allowance

79.

The upper part of a two-part moulding box is called:

a)

Drag

b)

Cope

c)

Flask

d)

Rammer

80.

Which of the following is used as a binder in CO₂ core making?

a)

Molasses

b)

Bentonite

c)

Sodium silicate

d)

Graphite

81.

In a cupola furnace, the main fuel used is:

a)

Charcoal

b)

Coal

c)

Coke

d)

Oil

82.

Which sand property allows gases to escape during pouring?

a)

Permeability

b)

Refractoriness

c)

Cohesiveness

d)

Collapsibility

83.

Core prints are provided in the pattern to:

a)

Form risers

b)

Align cores in mould

c)

Increase surface area

d)

Improve finish

84.

The furnace best suited for melting non-ferrous metals like aluminium is:

a)

Cupola

b)

Electric arc

c)

Crucible

d)

Induction

85.

The main advantage of CO₂ core making process is:

a)

Poor strength

b)

High accuracy

c)

Long drying time

d)

High cost

86.

Which process is used for making hollow cylindrical components like pipes?

a)

Pressure die casting

b)

Gravity die casting

c)

Centrifugal casting

d)

Sand casting

87.

A blowhole in casting is mainly caused by:

a)

Low metal temperature

b)

Moisture in sand

c)

Fast pouring

d)

Weak core

88.

The hot chamber die casting process is best suited for:

a)

Aluminium

b)

Zinc

c)

Steel

d)

Iron

89.

Which of the following is not a moulding tool?

a)

Rammer

b)

Sprue pin

c)

Riddle

d)

Spanner

90.

What type of sand is used in the making of cores?

a)

Green sand

b)

Parting sand

c)

Core sand

d)

Dry sand

91.

Shrinkage defects in casting are minimized by using:

a)

Gates

b)

Risers

c)

Sprue

d)

Cores

92.

A misrun defect occurs due to:

a)

High pouring temperature

b)

Excess metal

c)

Incomplete filling

d)

Overheating

93.

Which of these casting processes does not require a mould?

a)

Centrifugal casting

b)

Sand casting

c)

Continuous casting

d)

Die casting

94.

Parting sand is used to:

a)

Improve surface finish

b)

Prevent sticking of mould parts

c)

Strengthen cores

d)

Harden the mould

95.

In electric arc furnace, metal is melted by:

a)

Gas flame

b)

Electric resistance

c)

Arc between electrodes

d)

Oil combustion

96.

Which is the safest practice in a foundry?

a)

Using wet moulds

b)

Pouring quickly

c)

Wearing PPE

d)

Standing close to molten metal

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