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CPE12 - Midterm Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary goal of digital communications?

a)

To reduce the bandwidth of the signal

b)

To transmit analog signals over long distances

c)

To convert information into a digital signal for transmission

d)

To modulate signals for noise reduction

2.

In digital communication, the data to be transmitted is typically represented by:

a)

Analog waveforms

b)

Discrete signals

c)

Continuous signals

d)

None of the above

3.

Which of the following is an example of a baseband signal?

a)

A high-frequency sine wave

b)

A pulse code modulated signal

c)

A frequency-modulated signal

d)

A continuous sinusoidal wave

4.

In the context of digital communications, what is a codec used for?

a)

Amplifying the signal

b)

Encoding and decoding digital data

c)

Modulating signals for transmission

d)

Filtering the signal for noise removal

5.

What does the term 'bitrate' refer to in digital communications?

a)

The frequency of the transmitted signal

b)

The amount of information transmitted per second

c)

The number of bits required for error correction

d)

The modulation type used in transmission

6.

The sampling theorem in digital communication is important for:

a)

Analog signal generation

b)

Decoding digital data

c)

Converting analog signals to digital form

d)

Modulating a digital signal

7.

Which of the following is true for digital communication systems?

a)

They require higher power than analog systems

b)

They are immune to noise

c)

They offer higher efficiency in transmission over long distances

d)

They only support voice signals

8.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of digital transmission?

a)

Discrete signals

b)

High susceptibility to noise

c)

Error correction techniques

d)

Reduced distortion in the transmitted signal

9.

The process of converting digital data into signals suitable for transmission is called:

a)

Sampling

b)

Modulation

c)

Quantization

d)

Encoding

10.

In digital modulation, what does the term 'modulation' refer to?

a)

Changing the carrier frequency

b)

Changing the amplitude, frequency, or phase of the carrier signal

c)

Converting analog signals to digital

d)

Encoding the message in binary format

11.

In Frequency Shift Keying (FSK), the carrier signal:

a)

Changes its frequency based on the input data

b)

Changes its amplitude

c)

Changes its phase

d)

Remains constant

12.

What does the term 'baud rate' refer to in digital communication systems?

a)

The number of bits transmitted per second

b)

The number of symbols transmitted per second

c)

The rate of error correction

d)

The bandwidth of the channel

13.

Which of the following protocols is commonly used for error detection and correction in digital communication systems?

a)

TCP/IP

b)

HTTP

c)

UDP

d)

Hamming Code

14.

Which communication protocol provides connection-oriented communication in digital communication systems?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

HTTP

d)

IP

15.

The function of the 'handshake' in communication protocols is to:

a)

Ensure secure transmission of data

b)

Establish a connection between the sender and receiver

c)

Modulate the signal for transmission

d)

Encrypt the data before sending

16.

The primary role of the TCP/IP protocol in digital communication is:

a)

Data encryption and security

b)

Ensuring data is transmitted in packets

c)

Establishing physical connections

d)

Error detection and correction

17.

Which of the following is a common protocol used for data transmission in wireless networks?

a)

Bluetooth

b)

Ethernet

c)

FDDI

d)

Fibre Channel

18.

What is the purpose of the ARQ (Automatic Repeat Request) protocol in digital communication?

a)

To request retransmission of corrupted packets

b)

To prioritize data packets based on their importance

c)

To adjust the transmission rate according to the noise level

d)

To increase the bandwidth of the communication channel

19.

Which of the following is a key feature of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model?

a)

It defines the physical hardware for data transmission

b)

It specifies a seven-layer approach to communication

c)

It eliminates the need for error detection

d)

It provides a single protocol for all types of communication

20.

In a communication protocol, which layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of messages?

a)

Physical layer

b)

Data link layer

c)

Transport layer

d)

Network layer

21.

Which protocol is used for secure communication over a network?

a)

HTTP

b)

SSH

c)

FTP

d)

SMTP

22.

The purpose of error detection is to:

a)

Prevent all errors during transmission

b)

Identify and correct errors during transmission

c)

Prevent the need for retransmission of data

d)

Detect errors and ensure data integrity

23.

Which of the following error detection methods involves appending a parity bit to each data unit?

a)

CRC

b)

Hamming code

c)

Parity check

d)

Checksum

24.

In the context of error correction, which of the following is used to detect and correct multiple bit errors in CDs, DVDs?

a)

Hamming code

b)

Reed-Solomon code

c)

Parity check

d)

Checksum

25.

What is the purpose of a cyclic redundancy check (CRC)?

a)

To correct errors in received data

b)

To ensure data is transmitted without any error

c)

To detect errors in data transmission

d)

To encrypt data for secure transmission

26.

Forward error correction (FEC) is used to:

a)

Detect errors and request retransmission

b)

Detect errors and automatically correct them without retransmission

c)

Remove noise from the transmission channel

d)

Increase the bandwidth of the communication system

27.

The 'sliding window' technique in error control is used in which protocol?

a)

TCP

b)

ARQ

c)

Ethernet

d)

HTTP

28.

In digital communication, what happens when a receiver detects an error using an error detection code?

a)

The receiver automatically corrects the error

b)

The receiver requests the sender to retransmit the data

c)

The receiver discards the data

d)

The receiver adjusts the signal strength to compensate for errors

29.

Which type of error detection involves using a checksum algorithm?

a)

Parity check

b)

Hamming code

c)

Cyclic redundancy check

d)

Two-dimensional parity

30.

In a communications system, what is the result of a bit error?

a)

The entire message is lost

b)

The received message is corrupted but can be corrected

c)

The message is delayed by several milliseconds

d)

No impact, as error correction ensures the message remains intact

31.

Which of the following is a characteristic of digital transmission?

a)

Higher power consumption

b)

Higher susceptibility to noise

c)

Transmission of discrete signals

d)

Continuous transmission of analog signals

32.

What is the primary function of a modulator in digital transmission systems?

a)

To convert digital data into analog signals

b)

To filter noise from the transmission medium

c)

To increase the power of the transmitted signal

d)

To decode the received signal

33.

Which transmission medium is most commonly used for high-speed digital transmission?

a)

Coaxial cables

b)

Optical fiber

c)

Twisted pair cables

d)

Wireless signals

34.

What is the primary advantage of using Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) in digital transmission?

a)

It increases the transmission speed

b)

It reduces the signal-to-noise ratio

c)

It allows multiple signals to share the same transmission medium

d)

It eliminates the need for error correction

35.

Which of the following describes a characteristic of pulse code modulation (PCM)?

a)

It requires high bandwidth

b)

It uses continuous signals for transmission

c)

It quantizes and encodes the amplitude of the analog signal into digital form

d)

It is used primarily for analog voice transmission

36.

Which of the following is the key advantage of using optical fiber over copper cables for digital transmission?

a)

Lower cost

b)

Higher bandwidth and lower signal loss

c)

Easier to install

d)

Less susceptibility to noise

37.

In digital transmission, what does the term 'bitrate' refer to?

a)

The number of bits transmitted per second

b)

The time it takes to transmit one bit

c)

The maximum transmission distance

d)

The speed at which data is encoded

38.

What is the term used to describe the rate at which bits are transmitted in a digital communication system?

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Bitrate

c)

Baud rate

d)

Signal-to-noise ratio

39.

The concept of 'signal attenuation' in digital transmission refers to:

a)

The increase in signal strength over time

b)

The loss of signal strength as the signal travels through a medium

c)

The increase in bandwidth during transmission

d)

The filtering of noise from the signal

40.

Which factor contributes the most to signal degradation in a digital transmission system?

a)

Bandwidth expansion

b)

Signal noise and interference

c)

Higher bitrate

d)

Reduced signal strength

41.

In a digital transmission system, what is the primary purpose of error correction?

a)

To remove all noise from the signal

b)

To ensure the data is transmitted accurately even with errors

c)

To increase the speed of transmission

d)

To improve the signal strength during transmission

42.

Which of the following is an example of asynchronous digital transmission technique?

a)

Asynchronous transmission

b)

Time-division multiplexing (TDM)

c)

Frequency modulation (FM)

d)

Amplitude modulation (AM)

43.

In digital communications, what does the term 'baud rate' refer to?

a)

The number of bits transmitted per second

b)

The number of symbols transmitted per second

c)

The maximum bitrate supported by the system

d)

The time taken to transmit a bit

44.

In digital transmission, what is the effect of noise on the received signal?

a)

It increases the bandwidth of the signal

b)

It distorts the signal, making it harder to decode accurately

c)

It decreases the signal strength

d)

It makes the signal clearer

45.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wireless communication for digital transmission?

a)

Limited bandwidth

b)

High power consumption

c)

Higher susceptibility to interference and noise

d)

Increased signal attenuation over distance

46.

In digital communication systems, what is the role of a channel?

a)

To decode the received signal

b)

To transmit the data signal from sender to receiver

c)

To add error detection and correction codes

d)

To modulate the signal for transmission

47.

Which factor primarily determines the maximum bitrate in a digital transmission system?

a)

The bandwidth of the channel

b)

The power of the signal

c)

The type of modulation used

d)

The distance between the sender and receiver

48.

In which situation is 'frequency division multiplexing' (FDM) typically used?

a)

To send multiple signals over a single transmission medium by assigning different frequencies to each signal

b)

To send multiple signals over the same frequency range by dividing them into time slots

c)

To transmit digital signals using multiple carriers

d)

To avoid inter-symbol interference

49.

What is the significance of the Nyquist rate in digital transmission?

a)

It determines the maximum signal-to-noise ratio achievable

b)

It is the minimum sampling rate required to avoid aliasing

c)

It refers to the maximum bitrate for a given bandwidth

d)

It defines the maximum number of symbols that can be transmitted per second

50.

What is the key disadvantage of using analog modulation for digital data transmission?

a)

It requires too much bandwidth

b)

It is not as power-efficient as digital modulation

c)

It is susceptible to noise and interference

d)

It cannot be used for high-speed communication

51.

Which of the following is a primary advantage of using pulse code modulation (PCM) in digital communication?

a)

It reduces the transmission bandwidth requirements

b)

It allows the transmission of analog signals in digital form

c)

It is less sensitive to noise and interference than analog systems

d)

It is more power-efficient than other modulation techniques

52.

PCM is a technique used to:

a)

Amplify an analog signal

b)

Convert digital data into analog form

c)

Convert an analog signal into a digital signal

d)

Compress digital data

53.

Which process is not part of PCM?

a)

Sampling

b)

Quantization

c)

Demodulation

d)

Encoding

54.

In PCM, the sampling frequency must be:

a)

Equal to the signal's highest frequency

b)

At least twice the signal's highest frequency

c)

Half the signal's bandwidth

d)

Any arbitrary value

55.

Quantization in PCM involves:

a)

Dividing the signal into frequency components

b)

Approximating the signal to the nearest predefined level

c)

Transmitting a continuous signal

d)

Modulating the signal directly

56.

Which is a disadvantage of PCM?

a)

It requires a higher bandwidth

b)

It introduces phase distortion

c)

It lacks accuracy in signal representation

d)

It cannot be amplified

57.

In PWM, the signal is modulated by changing:

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Width or duration

d)

Phase

58.

PWM is commonly used in:

a)

Audio compression

b)

Voltage regulation

c)

Error detection

d)

Analog-to-digital conversion

59.

In a PWM signal, if the duty cycle increases:

a)

The signal’s frequency decreases

b)

The signal’s average power increases

c)

The amplitude remains constant

d)

The bandwidth becomes narrower

60.

One advantage of PWM is:

a)

It reduces signal distortion

b)

It eliminates the need for amplifiers

c)

It is less complex than analog modulation

d)

It requires lower power for transmission

61.

The duty cycle in PWM is defined as:

a)

The total duration of the waveform

b)

The ratio of pulse width to the period

c)

The signal's frequency

d)

The time between two pulses

62.

In PPM, the position of the pulse is varied according to:

a)

Amplitude

b)

Width

c)

Phase

d)

Modulating signal amplitude

63.

PPM signals are less sensitive to:

a)

Noise interference

b)

Bandwidth limitations

c)

Time synchronization issues

d)

Frequency distortions

64.

The main disadvantage of PPM is:

a)

High power consumption

b)

Requires precise synchronization

c)

Low efficiency at low frequencies

d)

High noise susceptibility

65.

In PPM, what remains constant?

a)

Pulse width

b)

Pulse amplitude

c)

Pulse position

d)

Both pulse width and amplitude

66.

PPM is derived from:

a)

Amplitude modulation

b)

PWM

c)

PCM

d)

Frequency modulation

67.

What is common among PCM, PWM, and PPM?

a)

They are all analog modulation techniques

b)

They all convert analog signals into binary form

c)

They are digital modulation techniques

d)

They are only used in telecommunication

68.

In a digital communication system, which modulation method is most bandwidth efficient?

a)

PCM

b)

PWM

c)

PPM

d)

PCM, with proper compression

69.

Which modulation type is least affected by noise?

a)

PCM

b)

PWM

c)

PPM

d)

None of these

70.

Which technique is used to eliminate aliasing in PCM?

a)

Demodulation

b)

Quantization

c)

Anti-aliasing filter

d)

Coding

71.

The main goal of modulation in digital communication is to:

a)

Increase the signal strength

b)

Make the signals suitable for transmission

c)

Reduce signal distortion

d)

Increase signal complexity

72.

The OSI model layer responsible for end-to-end communication is:

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Transport

d)

Network

73.

At which OSI layer does encryption take place?

a)

Physical

b)

Session

c)

Presentation

d)

Network

74.

Which OSI layer manages the MAC address?

a)

Application

b)

Network

c)

Data Link

d)

Physical

75.

The OSI layer that handles routing is:

a)

Session

b)

Transport

c)

Network

d)

Application

76.

Which is the correct order of the OSI model from top to bottom?

a)

Physical, Data Link, Network, Session, Presentation, Transport, Application

b)

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

c)

Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical, Application, Presentation

d)

Network, Transport, Application, Session, Physical, Data Link, Presentation

77.

In data encapsulation, what is added at the transport layer?

a)

Headers only

b)

Trailers only

c)

Both headers and trailers

d)

Framing bits

78.

Encapsulation involves:

a)

Breaking data into smaller chunks for transmission

b)

Decrypting transmitted data

c)

Routing data packets

d)

Assigning logical addresses

79.

When data reaches the data link layer, it is referred to as:

a)

Segments

b)

Packets

c)

Frames

d)

Bits

80.

The primary purpose of encapsulation is to:

a)

Compress data

b)

Enable protocol-specific communication

c)

Increase transmission speed

d)

Prevent data corruption

81.

What happens at the receiving end of encapsulation?

a)

Data is encrypted

b)

Data is encapsulated again

c)

Data is decapsulated

d)

Data is forwarded without changes

82.

An IPv4 address is how many bits long?

a)

16 bits

b)

32 bits

c)

64 bits

d)

128 bits

83.

The reserved IPv4 address 127.0.0.1 is used for:

a)

Broadcasting

b)

Loopback testing

c)

Default gateway

d)

Network address translation

84.

In CIDR notation, the subnet mask 255.255.255.0 is represented as:

a)

/8

b)

/16

c)

/24

d)

/32

85.

What is the main purpose of DHCP in IP addressing?

a)

Assign static IP addresses

b)

Automatically assign dynamic IP addresses

c)

Manage subnet masks

d)

Route data between networks

86.

Which class of IP addresses is reserved for multicast?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class D

d)

Class E

87.

Block codes operate on:

a)

Continuous streams of data

b)

Fixed-size blocks of data

c)

Entire messages only

d)

Variable-length streams of data

88.

Convolutional codes differ from block codes because they:

a)

Require error correction

b)

Use fixed-length blocks

c)

Encode data as a continuous stream

d)

Rely on encryption

89.

Which is an advantage of convolutional codes over block codes?

a)

They are simpler to implement

b)

They require less bandwidth

c)

They perform better with soft decision decoding

d)

They operate on fixed-sized data

90.

Trellis coding is primarily used in:

a)

Analog communication systems

b)

Error detection only

c)

Bandwidth-efficient modulation schemes

d)

Secure data encryption

91.

In a digital communication system, what does "multiplexing" allow?

a)

The transmission of multiple signals over the same channel

b)

The correction of errors in transmission

c)

The detection of noise in the transmission medium

d)

The conversion of analog signals to digital signals

92.

In digital communication systems, what is the function of a decoder?

a)

To convert analog signals into digital form

b)

To add error detection and correction codes to the data

c)

To recover the transmitted data from the modulated signal

d)

To enhance the bandwidth of the transmission channel

93.

A trellis diagram is used to:

a)

Visualize encoding and decoding processes

b)

Compute error rates

c)

 Display block code structures

d)

Identify cyclic redundancy

94.

Turbo codes are known for their:

a)

High encoding speed

b)

Exceptional error correction performance

c)

Simplicity in hardware implementation

d)

Use of linear parity checks

95.

Turbo codes use which type of decoders?

a)

Hard decision decoders

b)

Iterative decoders

c)

Linear block decoders

d)

Sequential decoders

96.

Reed-Solomon codes are widely used in:

a)

Secure encryption

b)

Digital storage and communication systems

c)

High-speed streaming

d)

Wireless sensor networks

97.

RS codes are effective because they can

a)

Correct burst errors

b)

Increase bandwidth

c)

Replace data compression

d)

Improve modulation efficiency

98.

The main property of cyclic codes is that

a)

They are always linear

b)

A cyclic shift of a codeword results in another valid codeword

c)

They require no parity bits

d)

They can only detect errors, not correct them

99.

BCH codes are advantageous because they:

a)

Detect errors only

b)

Correct multiple random errors

c)

Operate without redundancy

d)

Are non-linear

100.

The minimum Hamming distance for single-error correction is:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4