wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Communications Block BLET

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

LEO should make victims aware of which of the following when a misdemeanor crime has been commited

a)

The victim may swear out for a warrant for a crime committed against them, at the magistrate's office

b)

In the misdemeanor cases investigated by law enforcement officers, the officer takes out a warrant for arrest for the subject

c)

Victims must be encouraged to cooperate throughout the process

d)

All of the above

2.

Which of the following is NOT one of the North Carolina courts discussed in the victims outline?

a)

Superior

b)

Magistrates Chamber

c)

District

d)

Court of Appeals

3.

Those eligible to receive aid through the North Carolina Crime Victims Compensation Act are:

a)

The victim

b)

Dependent of deceased victim

c)

A person who is authorized to act on behalf of a victim, a dependent, or a third person who is not a collateral source

d)

All of the above

4.

The following are the categories included in the federal definition of hate crime/bias crime

a)

Race, religion, ethnicity/national origin, gender, political affiliation

b)

Race, religion, ethnicity/national origin, gender, political affiliation, disability

c)

Race, religion, ethnicity/national origin, disability, sexual orientation

d)

Race, religion, disability, sexual orientation, gender

5.

The district attorney is:

a)

The person responsible for helping the victims file for compensation

b)

Usually the first person the victim encounters after a crime has been committed

c)

The person who represents the state in all criminals actions brought to the superior and district courts in the district

d)

The attorney appointed to eh defendant if he/she cannot afford to hire one

6.

Compensation from the NC Crime Victims Compensation Act may be paid for:

a)

Loss of property paid for by insurance

b)

An economic loss of less than $100

c)

Medical expenses, lost wages

d)

Reimbursement for pain and suffering

7.

A victim may be defined as an individual who suffers ___ as the result of the commission of a crime

a)

Physical hard

b)

Financial harm

c)

Emotional harm

d)

All of the above

8.

Depending upon the type of crime, the victim may have to visit the local magistrate to swear out a warrant for __ crimes that he/she witnessed

a)

Midemeanor

b)

Felony

c)

Civil situations

d)

None of the above

9.

__ Cases are usually investigated by law enforcement before warrants are issued, unless the __ occurred in the officers presence.

a)

Misdemeanor

b)

Felony

c)

Civil

d)

None of the above

10.

The __ has no jury, and it makes no determinations of fact; Rather, is considers error in legal procedures or in judicial interpretation of the law and hears oral arguements on the written record of cases previously tried by the superior courts, district courts, court of appeals, and certain administrative agencies and commisions

a)

Superior Court

b)

Court of appeals

c)

County or district court

d)

Supreme Court

11.

The NC Court of appeals sits in panels of __

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

9

12.

The superior court is the proper court for trial of civil cases where the amount in controversy exceeds ___ , and it has jurisdiction over appeals from certain administrative agencies

a)

$1000

b)

$10000

c)

$5000

d)

$25000

13.

NC has __ counties which are grouped into superior court districts

a)

99

b)

100

c)

105

d)

95

14.

The district court has exclusive jurisdiction of civil cases where the amount is __ or less

a)

$1000

b)

$5000

c)

$10000

d)

$25000

15.

NC is divided into prosecutorial districts, each have a district attorney who is elected for __ year term

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

16.

The main duties of a bailiff are:

a)

Court crier and security

b)

Prisoners

c)

Jurors

d)

Witnesses

e)

All of the above

17.

An Officer may arrest without a warrant any person who the officer has PC to believe: has committed a felony or misdemeanor and: will not be apprehended unless immediately arrested, or may cause physical injury to himself or others, or damage to property unless immediately arrested; or has committed a misdemeanor under GS 14-72.1

a)

warrant in possession of officer

b)

warrant not in possession of officer

c)

offense out of presence of officer

d)

offense in presence of officer

18.

An officer having a warrant for arrest in his possession may arrest the person named or described therein at any time and at any place within the officer's territorial jurisdiction

a)

Warrant in possession of offcier

b)

warrant not in possession of officer

c)

offense out of presence of officer

d)

offense is presence of officer

19.

An officer, who has knowledge that a warrant for arrest has been issued and has not been executed, but who does not have the warrant in his possession, may arrest the person named therein at anytime, the officer must inform the person arrested that the warrant has been issued and serve the warrant that has been issued and serve the warrant upon him as soon as possible. This subdivision applies even though the arrest process has been returned to the clerk.

a)

warrant in possession of officer

b)

warrant not is possession of officer

c)

offense out of presence of officer

d)

offense in presence of officer

20.

An officer may arrest without a warrant any person who the officer has PC to believe has commited criminal offense in the officers presence

a)

warrant in possession of officer

b)

warrant not in possession of officer

c)

offense out of presence of officer

d)

offense in presense of officer

21.

The actual process of bringing a defendant before the judge in open court, informing that of charges pending against them and directing them to pleas; at which time the defendant usually pleads guilty, not guilty, or nolo contendre, is know as

a)

the arraignement

b)

the pre-trial hearing

c)

the plea bargain

d)

discovery

22.

at the __, the judge reads the charge and appoints an attorney if the defendant cannot afford one. If the charge is a felony, the judge sets the date for a PC hearing

a)

PC hearing

b)

The arraignement

c)

First appearance before a district court judge

d)

Grand jury

23.

__ is the process by which attorneys for both prosecution and defense obtain certain info pertinent to the trial from each other

a)

pre-trial hearing

b)

The arraignment

c)

discovery

d)

the trial

24.

Half of the hate crimes in the nation are commited by people between the ages of __ to __

a)

12-15

b)

16-18

c)

13-18

d)

15-24

25.

If the complainant on a DV call is a neighbor, the officer can reasonably think that they will be able ot suprise the disputants upon their arrival at the residence

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The best door to approach on a DV call is the front door

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The contact officer on a DV call is the one responsible for securing the area

a)

True

b)

False

28.

An officer may utilize DISCRETIONARY arrest power on a DV call if the female complainant has already obtained a 50-B protective order prohibiting the identified male disputant from trespassing at the residence

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Many of the statutes and laws directly related to DV are found in chapter 20 of the general statutes

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The following are pertinent pieces of info that an officer should receive from a tele-communicator before responding to a DV call EXCEPT

a)

Is the dispute still in progress?

b)

A brief description of what individuals are arguing about

c)

Address and phone number

d)

Degree of parental involvement in argument

31.

When making the initial contact with the respondents during a DV call, the officer should

a)

Speak only with the person answering the door

b)

Ask the complainant about any injuries, or weapons, and if the other party is still violent

c)

Enter the residence when someone inside yells "come in"

d)

Force the door open in someone inside yells "go away'

32.

Which of the following are body language tactics that officers should NOT utilize on a DV call?

a)

Not looking directly at the individuals when they are telling you their account of the story

b)

Standing arms crossed in front of your chest

c)

Keeping your hand on you gun while addressing the individuals

d)

All of the above

33.

An officer is authorized to make a warrantless arrest during a DV situation when

a)

The misdemeanor is assault on a female

b)

The misdemeanor is assault inflicting serious injury

c)

The misdemeanor is assault with a deadly weapon

d)

All of the above

34.

When completing a DV investigation, it is sometimes effective to have disputants separate for a "cool off". It is appropiate for the officer to assist individuals in following manner EXCEPT

a)

Transporting the victim to a battered womens shelter

b)

Transporting the victim to a magistrate officer

c)

Letting the party drive away while inebriated

d)

Transporting either party to a hotel room or to a family/friends home

35.

A DV follow-up investigation should include which of the following:

a)

Obtaining the victims medical records

b)

Re-contacting the victim and witness to inform them of the case status

c)

Obtaining photos of injuries of the involved party

d)

All of the above

36.

When a 50-B has been issued, the officer may ONLY arrest in which of the following circumstances

a)

(A) When the perpetrator has trespassed at the victims residence

b)

(B) When the perpetrator has threatened or harassed the victim

c)

(C) When the perpetrator has failed to make child support payments

d)

A and B only

37.

when entering a residence during a DV call, the officers should do all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Ensure both hands of the person who opens the door are clearly seen before entering

b)

Ask the person at the door what the reason for calling the police is

c)

direct the residents to sit down and be quiet during your investigation

d)

Ensure that the back up officer delays three or four seconds before following the primary officer into the residence

38.

When attempting to diffuse a potentially explosive DV situation the officers should do which of the following:

a)

Inform the male disputant he was wrong for arguing/assaulting the female

b)

Separate the involved parties during the initial interview

c)

interview only the victim with injuries

d)

verbally yell louder than the complainants so that they will hear your command

39.

Officers should refer individuals involved in a DV situations to all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Victim-assistance services

b)

Support Groups

c)

Court agencies

d)

Specific Attorneys

40.

When departing from a DV situation, the officers should tactfully:

a)

Walk closely outside together, discussing the situation

b)

Let the officer most inside the residence depart first, while the other officer covers from the door

c)

Inform the individuals inside that you will arrest them if you come back

d)

Drive directly infront of the home to make sure that the fight didn't flare back up

41.

A follow-up investigation of a DV situation is:

a)

Necessary to prosecute the case even without the victims participation

b)

Necessary for social services to get involved

c)

Unnecessary because the victim will drop the charges anyway

d)

Unnecessary if the responding officer does an adequate job during the preliminary investigation

42.

The following lists the safest tactical method of approaching a residence during a DV call EXCEPT

a)

Never stand infront of the door

b)

Never stand infront of a window

c)

Use available cover and concealment when approaching

d)

Walk side-by-side with the other responding officer

43.

To ensure maximum safety for officers making initial contact with individuals while responding to a DV call, the officers should

a)

Knock immediately when the officers arrive at the front door

b)

Rap on the door very loudly identifying yourself

c)

Go to back or side door for element of suprise

d)

Move the initial respondent out of the way upon entry

44.

To effectively diffuse a DV situation the officers should eliminate distractions by taking the following actions EXCEPT

a)

Turn off TV or stereo

b)

Immediately contact social services to help with the children

c)

Ensure the room is illuminated

d)

Ask the people who are not witnesses to initially leave

45.

Which of the following alternatives are available to officers in DV situations

a)

Arrrest

b)

Mediation

c)

Referall

d)

All of the above

46.

Before making an arrest for a DVPO violation, the officer shoud

a)

Verify the existance and status of the order

b)

Ask the victim if she invited the perpetrator to the residence

c)

Call your supervisor

d)

Ask the suspect if he's willing to leave to avoid being arrested

47.

When departing a DV call, the officer should

a)

Turn and walk away from the scene exposing their backs to the individuals

b)

Advice the involved parties not to call the police again that night

c)

Not make inappropriate comments that might provoke the involved parties

d)

Threaten to arrest someone if the police return

48.

A DV follow-up investigation should include the following activities;

a)

Completing a records check for any DV history

b)

A fingerprint card on all the children

c)

Informing the perpetrator of the victims whereabouts

d)

Knowing where the victim and perpetrator will be in two years

49.

The safest procedure for two officers to utilize when making an approach on a DV call is

a)

One officer should go to the front door, and the other to the back door

b)

Both officers should stay relatively apart and approach either side of the front door

c)

One officer approaches the front door and the other officer stays continuously at the patrol car

d)

Both officers should remain at the car and wait for the victim to approach them

50.

To effectively utilize contact/cover principles while responding on a DV call, the officer should do all of the following EXCEPT

a)

The contact officer handles all radio communications and reporting procedure

b)

The cover officer maintains surveillance over the people and surroudning area

c)

the contact officer collects and weapons and/or evidence

d)

The cover officer should effect any and all arrests

51.

If an individual is violating a DVPO by trespassing the officer must

a)

Ask the violating party to leave

b)

Find out if he has custody of the children he is visiting

c)

Arrest the victim for violating the order by inviting him to the residence

d)

None of these

52.

DVPO can be verified by

a)

(A) The victim producing a copu

b)

(B) The victims statement under oath

c)

(C) The officer checking with their tele-communicator

d)

Only A and C

53.

Assault on a female is a __

a)

Misdemeanor

b)

Infraction

c)

Felony

d)

City Ordinance

54.

According to the outline materials, the term morality is defined as ..

a)

The study of morals

b)

The measure of conduct

c)

A set of societys beliefs

d)

None of these

55.

According to the outline materials, the term ethics s defined as

a)

the study of morals

b)

A set of society's belief

c)

The measure of conduct

d)

None of these

56.

As discussed in the outline materials, one of the distinguishing difference between humans and animals is

a)

The size of their brain

b)

Their ability to communicate

c)

The thought capacity of choice

d)

None of these

57.

We make decisions from the selections of choices based on our

a)

Traditions

b)

Individual decisions

c)

Social surroundings

d)

None of these

58.

In the area of ethics, what does society expect from law enforecment

a)

(A)Special privileges

b)

(B) Special treatment

c)

(C) Fair treatment

d)

Both A and C

59.

If an officer is _, then the officer is an example of one who stays within the rules of the law enforcement profession while at the same time enforces such laws

a)

Honest

b)

Professinal

c)

Hard working

d)

Devoted

60.

As stated in the law enforcement Code of Ethics, who is responsible for the officer's standard of professional performance

a)

Their Supervisor

b)

The FTO

c)

The officer

d)

All of the above

61.

Which of the following defines professionalism

a)

Knowledge through education and training

b)

Good communication skills

c)

A person who obeys the law they enforce

d)

All of the above

62.

What are some of the pressures that cause an officer to make a wrong or unethical decision

a)

Anger

b)

Lust

c)

Politics

d)

All of the above

63.

As LEO we have to abide bu the moral codes or rules of the society in which we work, this is classified as

a)

Laws

b)

Statutes

c)

Professional ethics

d)

Officer guidelines

64.

What question the officer consider when faced with an ethical dilemma

a)

What are some alternatives?

b)

What solution would do the most good?

c)

Is the solution legal

d)

All of the above

65.

From the outline materials, which of the following is one of the questions an officer should ask of himself prior to making an ethical decision

a)

Is my decision tough?

b)

What are the chances ill be caught?

c)

Is my decision morally right?

d)

Will my supervisor support me

66.

What is it that some citizens fail to realize when it comes to moral conduct and the LEO

a)

officers are underpaid

b)

Every officer goes through BLET

c)

Officers are humans too

d)

Officers are not value driven

67.

_ is a moral commitment an officer makes to his department and to the citizens the department serves

a)

Duty

b)

Pride

c)

Proactivity

d)

None of the above

68.

From the outline materials, the follwoing are examples of appropriate social parameters that influence our behavior EXCEPT

a)

Neighborhood

b)

An old army buddy

c)

Immediate family

d)

Work enviroment

69.

In accordance with the Canons of Police Ethics, what should the principle guide for the officers discharge of his duties

a)

Political party affiliations

b)

Propriety under the law

c)

Individual prejudices

d)

Religious beliefs

70.

What is the most important moral parameter for law enforcement

a)

Enforcing all laws

b)

Professionalism

c)

High arrest rate

d)

All of the above

71.

From the outline, LEO's react and and make ethical decisions based on their social surroundings, this includes

a)

Family

b)

Church/Religion

c)

Work enviroment

d)

All of the above

72.

What is it called when officers find an excuse to commit an unethical act

a)

Rationalization

b)

Creative

c)

Realistic

d)

None of these

73.

The canon of Police Ethics addresses gifts, what size gifts are you aloud to accept?

a)

Any gift other than money

b)

Any gift that develops rapport between you and the giver

c)

Any pieces of equipment that will help you do your job

d)

None of these

74.

Ethical Dilemma: You are havinglunch with your FTO. The owner of the restaurant refuses to provide a bill and your FTO agrees with the owner. What should you do

a)

Leave the fair amount for you share on the table

b)

Argue publicly with the owner about the price

c)

Make sure to revisit the same restauraunt again

d)

All of the above

75.

Ethical Dilemma: You witness another officer receive cash from a citizen and then observe the officer void a speeding ticket. What should you do?

a)

Talk to the officer privately about the matter

b)

Report the officer to the departments IA division or supervisor

c)

Find the speeding motorists and reissue the deserved ticket

d)

Pretend you didnt see it

76.

Ethical Dilemma: Along with several of your fellow officers, you arrest someone who initially resists arrest but then complies. All of the officers present continue to "rough up" the individual, and when it comes time to turn in the investigation report, everyone else omits this fact. What should you report?

a)

Your report should be consistent with everyone else

b)

Your report should state the subject contenues to RDO the arrest procedure until he was overwhelmed and subdued

c)

Your report should state the individual asked for it

d)

None of these

77.

According to the lesson plan, psychosis means

a)

Loss of contact with reality

b)

Inability to cope

c)

Persistant irrational fear

d)

Rapidly changing ideas

78.

A commitment specifically designed to meet exigent circumstances

a)

Voluntary

b)

Involuntary

c)

Outpatient

d)

Emergency

79.

_ Rarely commit suicide

a)

Adult males

b)

Adult females

c)

Teenagers

d)

Young children

80.

Suicide by cop is

a)

(B) Shooting at an arriving officer by an armed robbery suspect

b)

(A) When an officer commits suicide

c)

Both A and B

d)

Isolating self from others

e)

A method used by individuals to force officers to use deadly force against them

81.

Women who attempt suicide outnumber men:

a)

5:1

b)

3:1

c)

2:1

d)

6:1

82.

A responded committed to a 24 hour facility for substance abuse can be held for up to

a)

80 days

b)

90 days

c)

190 days

d)

180 days

83.

A 24 hr facility can be

a)

A state facility

b)

A private medical facillity

c)

A state or private facility

d)

A private facility

84.

If a person is mentally ill or a substance abuser is a danger to themselves or to others, a third party or officer may file papers with he magistrate or clerk of superior court, to take that person into custody and transported to an appropriate facility for the first evaluation by a physician. or licensed psychologists. What two completed papers us an officer has to take the person into custody

a)

Affidavit and petition of involuntary commitment and custody order

b)

Involuntary commitment order mentally ill, petition and custody order for special emergency substance abuse involuntary commitment

c)

Form DMH - 5 - 72- A, AOC SP-909M

d)

None of these

85.

If an affidavit and custody order is issued, an officer has to take the respondent into custody within __, or the papers have to be returned to the clerk of superior court with documented reasons why the subject was not located

a)

24 hrs

b)

48 hrs

c)

12 hrs

d)

36 hrs

86.

There must be a driver or attendant who is the same sex as the respondent, unless the law enforcement officer allows _ to accompany the respondent

a)

Another officer

b)

2 or more officers

c)

A family member

d)

A doctor

87.

_ is a loss of contact with reality due to mental illness

a)

Autism

b)

Psychosis

c)

PAranoid

d)

None of these

88.

_ Is a loss of hope due to mental illness

a)

Depression

b)

Psychosis

c)

Paranoid

d)

Autistic

89.

People with intellectual disabilities may _

a)

Have resources to see help

b)

Have increased vulnerability, sometimes due to reliance on caregiver who may be abusive

c)

Are victimized and arrested at a lower rate then the general population

d)

may not have impaired judgement

90.

_ is a brain disorder that affects communication, social interaction, and behavior

a)

Psychosis

b)

Paranoid

c)

Depression

d)

Autism

91.

_ is a condition affecting the body movement and muscle coordination

a)

Paranoid

b)

Cerebral Palsy

c)

Mental illness

d)

Autism

92.

Verbal indicators of depression are:

a)

Acting lethargic

b)

Tearful, confused, mute

c)

May have rapid speech

d)

Speech is often slowed down with long paused or silences

93.

Assertive intervention van be used when:

a)

The person is uncooperative or unresponsive to directives

b)

The person is violating rules which serve to maintain security

c)

The three step assertive intervention of empathy statement, concern statement and action statement

d)

All of the above

94.

Whe interviewing someone who has developmental disability or brain injury you should NOT

a)

use simple language; keep sentences short, and speak slowly and clearly

b)

Be patient and take time giviing or asking for information

c)

Stand over the person and use your authority

d)

Both A and B

95.

De-escalation techniques are not a substitute for sound judgment and attention to safety

a)

True

b)

False

96.

If during the first assessment of an involuntary commitment process, the physician or licensed psychologists signs and documents the need for out-patient commitment, the respondent will be _

a)

Returned to their residence, or with the subjects consent, to the house of counseling individual located in the originating county

b)

Released at the site of the first assessment

c)

Transported to a 24 hr facility for a 2nd evaluation

d)

Transported to the clerk of superior court for a hearing

97.

A commitment where an individual meets the criteria set forth in the status and will be place in treatment center against their will

a)

Voluntary commitment

b)

Emergency Commitment

c)

Outpatient commitment

d)

Involuntary commitment

98.

The most important tool in crime prevention is your

a)

Vocab

b)

Mind

c)

Weight

d)

All of the above

99.

Crime prevention is defined as

a)

The anticipation of crime risk

b)

The anticipation of crime risk and initiation of some action to remove or reduce it

c)

Strategies and measures that seek to reduce the risk of crimes occurring, and their potential harmful effects on individuals and society, including fear of crime, by intervening to influence their multiple causes

d)

None of these

100.

Some reasons cited for officer's high risk of suicide include the following

a)

The stress of the job can lead to mental health problems

b)

Officers may have family or marital problem's created by job stress that leads to depression and suicide risk

c)

Officers are understandably reluctant to seek help for their problems

d)

All of the above

101.

_ Provide short term, face-to-face crisis response in the community 24/7

a)

Facility based crisis unites

b)

Mobile crisis teams

c)

Emergency rooms

d)

Walk-in crisis services

102.

An adult whose illness which so lessons the capacity of the person to use self-control, judgement, and discretion in the conduct of his affairs and social relations as to make it necessary or advisable for him to be under treatment, care, supervision, guidance, or control

a)

mental illness

b)

mental retardation

c)

hallucination

d)

none of these

103.

School violence is

a)

A subset of youth violence

b)

occurs on school property or during school sponsored events

c)

Occurs on the way to or from school or school sponsored events

d)

All of these

104.

The SARA problemt solving methods consists of

a)

Serving after reasonable assessment

b)

Searching, awareness, respect, alert

c)

Scanning, analysis, response, assessment

d)

Scoring, assessment, reporting, awareness

105.

The job of crime prevention belongs to

a)

LEO while on patrol

b)

The crime prevention officer, mainly

c)

Citizens in the community

d)

All citizens and LEO working together

106.

One safety precaution you can take at your home/residence is

a)

Photograph your neibors so you will be able to have a line up if a crime occurs

b)

Always lock all your valuables in the oven when you leave

c)

If someone you do not know ask to make an emergency phone call, don't open the door and make it for them

d)

hang a white flag above your door

107.

trust your instincts; If something does not feel right remove yourself from the situation immediately

a)

True

b)

False

108.

The goal, in regard to school violence is

a)

To stop the violence in the first place

b)

To keep parents and the public from finding out about violent incidents

c)

To realize fights happen

d)

none of these

109.

The main goal of community partnerships is to establish and maintain mutual _ between police, local government officals, and members of the community

a)

Respect

b)

Trust

c)

empathy

d)

fiscal understanding

110.

The three primary roles of SRO's are

a)

Respond, investigation and arrest persons who break the law on school grounds

b)

promote safety, problem solve, and act as a liaison to the community and educators

c)

Call for additional officers and let them hande all investigations while the SRO maintains relationships with the parents

d)

None of these