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Phys Dys Midterm Review (A2)

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 2hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Intervention using augmented maturation techniques includes activities that:

a)

Occur in a familiar environment

b)

Improve basic strength

c)

Teach basic living skills

d)

Elicit developmental patterns of movement

2.

A person is said to be in occupational balance when:

a)

She sleeps 8 hours, works 8 hours, plays 4 hours, and takes care of herself, family and home for 4 hours.

b)

All her occupations are easily accomplished

c)

She feels stress-free and satisfied with her life activities

d)

Her occupations accomplish all career goals

3.

Self-efficacy means the person:

a)

Believes he is capable of doing an activity he wants to do

b)

Accomplishes occupations perfectly

c)

Accomplishes an occupation better than someone else

d)

Believes he is a well-developed person

4.

Can the OFM and the OTPF be used interchangeably to guide practice?

a)

Yes, because both are models of practice.

b)

No, because one is a model and one is a taxonomy

c)

Yes, because both use similar wording

d)

No, because no one has tried doing that

5.

One of the following is a premise of the OFM. Which one?

a)

A person who has recovered most of his basic abilities will automatically be competent in his life roles.

b)

If a person hires an aide to help with BADL, he cannot be considered to be competent in his self-maintenance role.

c)

Before a person can regain the tasks and abilities of her life roles, all basic abilities must be corrected.

d)

Occupational functioning can be said to be achieved when tasks and activities can be accomplished within enabling environments particular to the person.

6.

Activities and tasks are relearned using which of the following interventions?

a)

Environmental modification

b)

Occupational balancing

c)

Occupation-as-means to strengthen muscles

d)

Occupation-as-end using “task-specific training”

7.

Using the OFM as your model of practice, what would you evaluate first in a patient with stroke?

a)

Determine previous and expected roles

b)

Determine which tasks comprise his most valued role

c)

Measure strength and movement control of affected upper extremity

d)

Assess ability to feed and dress himself

8.

Select which of the following is a developed capacity, according to the OFM.

a)

Reflexive grasp and release

b)

Ability to use a spoon

c)

Controlled pinch and release

d)

Habitual tooth brushing routine

9.

Which of the terms listed below is peculiar to the Occupational Functioning Model?

a)

Occupational balance

b)

Habits and routines

c)

Self-enhancement roles

d)

Environment and context

10.

Which of the following statements pertains to habits?

a)

Habits are ingrained and cannot be changed

b)

Habits are no longer helpful to patients with brain damage

c)

Habits are unaffected by the environment

d)

Habits promote occupational performance

11.

Which of the following is descriptive of ideal occupational balance?

a)

The therapist prescribes a patient’s day be divided into 8 hours sleep, 8 hours work, and 8 hours of care of self & others and recreation

b)

A teenage girl spends 6 hours in school, 2 hours on homework, 2 hours on Facebook, and 4 hours reading before bedtime

c)

A computer programmer alternates between computing, studying printed code, and volleyball in the company’s gym during his 10-hour workday

d)

An accountant works 18 hours per day during tax time but “veges out” at his vacation home in the mountains in August

12.

What is the just-right challenge applied to occupation?

a)

The demands of the occupation are the same as the person’s skills

b)

The person likes the occupation chosen as therapy

c)

The person’s skills are not quite what the occupation demands

d)

The challenge prevents the person’s performance of the occupation

13.

Which statement regarding the evidence for effectiveness of occupation as therapy is true?

a)

Evidence is strong that occupation restores self-esteem and self-efficacy.

b)

Evidence is strong that occupation-as-end restores BADL.

c)

Evidence is strong that occupation-as-means remediates impairments.

d)

Evidence is strong for occupation-as-end to improve IADLs and leisure activities

14.

Which of the following is true? Meaningfulness as a therapeutic mechanism

a)

Promotes participation

b)

Has no effect on the central nervous system

c)

Organizes patient responses

d)

Depends on therapist’s instruction or context

15.

Which of the following pertains to occupation-as-end?

a)

Involves activities to change impaired abilities

b)

Promotes balance of life occupations

c)

Teaches activities of daily living

d)

Task-specific training

16.

The definition of occupation in this textbook is limited to which of the following?

a)

Work

b)

ADL

c)

Purposeful activity

d)

All activities a person does

17.

Purposefulness as a therapeutic mechanism is generated by all of the following EXCEPT which one?

a)

Patient’s goal

b)

Weather conditions impacting occupational participation

c)

Objects or implements available to do the activity

d)

Therapist’s instructions

18.

Purposeful activity is defined as which of the following?

a)

The same as occupation

b)

Meaningful to the person’s definition of self

c)

Used to remediate impairments

d)

Used to restore role performance

19.

Which of the following statements is true? In a person’s life, occupational engagement:

a)

is always therapeutic

b)

Can improve abilities and capacities

c)

Constitutes busywork

d)

is unrelated to self-esteem

20.

Occupation-as-means involves which of the following?

a)

Adaptation of method

b)

Task-specific training

c)

Appropriate feedback and practice schedules

d)

Teaching activities of daily living

21.

Every occupational therapist has the skill to do all of the following EXCEPT for which one?

a)

Perform any task a patient may need to relearn

b)

Interpret radiological images in the patient’s chart

c)

Address the acute psychiatric needs of a patient

d)

Analyze the person, the activity, and/or the environment

22.

An occupational therapist is evaluating a client’s ability to perform light meal preparation in the client’s own kitchen. What type of analysis is this?

a)

Activity focused analysis

b)

Client-focused analysis

c)

Environment focused analysis

d)

None of the above

23.

An occupational therapist is collaborating with a client to develop a bank of meaningful activities to use for therapeutic interventions. Task demands are analyzed thoroughly.

a)

Activity focused analysis

b)

Client-focused analysis

c)

Environment focused analysis

d)

None of the above

24.

An OT is using vacuuming as a way to evaluate a client’s performance capacities such as weight shift, visual tracking, and crossing midline. What type of analysis is this?

a)

Client-focused analysis

b)

Activity focused analysis

c)

Environment focused analysis

d)

None of the above

25.

A client who had recent hip replacement surgery has difficulty with weight shifting during ADL tasks. The therapist is using the Activity Card Sort evaluation to identify goals and activities that could be used for therapy interventions. What aspect of the therapeutic process is the therapist utilizing?

a)

Gradation

b)

Adaptation

c)

Analysis

d)

Selection

26.

A 40-year-old female homemaker with multiple sclerosis is having difficulty manipulating objects while preparing meals for her husband, who is gone most of the day farming. Which of the following occupational goals is the most appropriate?

a)

Client will demonstrate normal (5/5) upper extremity strength while preparing meals independently, within 2 weeks.

b)

Client will demonstrate ability to prepare meals with minimal assistance, with appropriate environmental modifications, within 2 weeks.

c)

Client will demonstrate ability to use community resources, such as home meal delivery services within 2 weeks.

d)

Client will demonstrate modified independence in meal preparation, with use of adaptive devices, within 2 weeks.

27.

An OT is working with a person who has had a C6 spinal cord injury and has no active grasp ability but can extend his wrist. The occupation they are addressing is donning pants. What adaptation in grasp technique will they focus on first with this activity?

a)

Use of adaptive equipment

b)

Utilization of the tenodesis grasp

c)

Caregiver training

d)

Standing to be able to pull up pants

28.

An occupational therapist is having a client hang dry towels on a clothesline strung across the clinic room at shoulder height in order to strengthen the client’s shoulders. As the client gains strength, which of the following gradation strategies would be best to provide next?

a)

Add a 5-pound wrist weight to each wrist

b)

Lower the height of the clothesline

c)

Have the client hang up washcloths

d)

Moisten the towels to hang on the clothesline

29.

A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has difficulty opening containers due to weakness in his hands. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate to promote independence with opening containers?

a)

Providing the client with PROM activities

b)

Providing the client with a gripper to open containers

c)

Providing the client with instruction on energy conservation

d)

Providing the client with hand strengthening activities

30.

The OT is working with a client who had a stroke to facilitate attention to the left side of his body. The client identified yard work as a meaningful activity. Which of the following activities is most appropriate for enhancing the client’s left side awareness?

a)

Bilateral hand use while raking leaves on the left side of his body

b)

Weight-bearing on extended left arm while working on an indoor hobby

c)

Using a cart while grocery shopping in a store

d)

Cutting flowers and putting them in a vase for his wife

31.

A client who had rotator cuff surgical repair is now able to begin therapeutic interventions for strengthening. The occupational therapist uses the task of stirring cake batter to activate shoulder muscles but places the bowl on a lower surface to avoid excessive fatigue. What aspect of the therapeutic process is the therapist using?

a)

Selection

b)

Occupation-as-end

c)

Gradation

d)

Adaptation

32.

An occupational therapist is working with a client to increase fine motor coordination for the occupation of paying bills. Which of the following activities is the best for task specific therapeutic value?

a)

Finger painting

b)

Drawing large cursive E’s on paper

c)

Identifying objects placed in a bowl of beans

d)

Balloon toss

33.

A 30-year-old single mother of a toddler is recovering from a femur fracture. She is having difficulty figuring out how to get her child out of the crib safely. Which of the following methods is the best way for the therapist to conduct an environment-focused analysis?

a)

Schedule a home visit for an analysis with the child present

b)

Simulate the task using a doll and mat table in the occupational therapy department

c)

Have the client show pictures of the child’s crib

d)

Practice the task with simulated movements

34.

Which of the following is a correct example of a metacognitive strategy when teaching a patient how to chop vegetables using a weak dominant hand?

a)

Telling the client to constantly watch the knife blade relative to the hand holding the vegetable.

b)

Asking the client what he thinks about the quality of his chopping movement.

c)

Asking the client to remember the steps they have discussed when chopping vegetables.

d)

Telling the client to develop a global strategy first when chopping vegetables.

35.

Which of the following is an important teaching-learning opportunity when beginning gathering information about the patient’s occupational profile?

a)

Using the opportunity to clarify the role of the occupational therapist in an intervention

b)

Teaching the client right away how to better participate in basic grooming tasks

c)

Using the opportunity to teach environmental modifications

d)

Teaching the client how to access health care information

36.

The occupational therapist and the patient have decided that the best way to learn to use a new powered wheelchair is to learn and practice 1–2 device functions each therapy session until all functions have been mastered. What type of practice method are they using?

a)

Massed practice

b)

Distributed practice

c)

Part training

d)

Blocked training

37.

During therapy session, the occupational therapist has learned that the patient has started thinking about going back to work as a driver in the next 4–6 months. The patient stated that he might consider doing driving rehabilitation sometime in the future. What stage in the Transtheoretical Model of Change is exemplified in this scenario?

a)

Precontemplation

b)

Contemplation

c)

Planning

d)

Action

38.

An occupational therapist working in an inpatient facility is teaching the client how to shower in his hospital room. Which of the following is best practice when considering natural contexts and environments in the teaching-learning process?

a)

Defer showering training until the patient has access to the home shower.

b)

Orient the patient on the use of built-in bathroom modifications available in the hospital bathroom.

c)

Begin the session by demonstrating to the patient how she can safely shampoo her hair.

d)

Ask the patient to bring actual toiletries and tools that she uses when showering at home.

39.

All of the following assessment methods can be beneficial to understand the learning capability of an occupational therapy patient EXCEPT for which one?

a)

Functional observation

b)

Patient/caregiver interview

c)

Standardized assessments

d)

Performance on standardized exams such as the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) and Graduate Record Exam (GRE)

40.

In this stage, people do not intend to take action in the foreseeable future (defined as within the next 6 months). People are often unaware that their behavior is problematic or produces negative consequences. People in this stage often underestimate the pros of changing behavior and place too much emphasis on the cons of changing behavior.

a)

Goal-Plan-Do-Check

b)

Self-advocacy

c)

Precontemplation

41.

According to the Dreyfus Model, which of the 5 types of skills acquisition utilizes

Learned concepts and intuition in similar situations?

a)

Master

b)

Advanced beginner learner

c)

Novice learner

d)

Proficient learner

42.

Which of the 4 stages of learning involves the utilization of skills learned and shifting that learning to a new task or activity?

a)

Transfer of skill

b)

Retention

c)

Generalization

d)

Acquisition

43.

Which of the following is the best example of assessing a patient’s health and functional literacy within the teaching and learning context?

a)

Providing a standardized health literacy assessment tool

b)

Asking the social worker if the patient has history of missing therapy sessions

c)

Exploring whether health and functional literacy abilities impact access and use of community resources

d)

Health and functional literacy assessment are not aspects of occupational therapy evaluation.

44.

The Occupational Therapy Practice Framework defines the profession’s clinical reasoning to include the processes occupational therapists use to:

a)

Identify, evaluate, prescribe, and perform care.

b)

Assess, perform, and reassess care

c)

Plan, direct, perform, and evaluate care

d)

Plan, direct, perform, and reflect on care

45.

Professional reasoning is different from clinical reasoning in what way?

a)

Professional reasoning includes those contexts outside the clinical environment such as community-based practice

b)

Professional reasoning takes specifically into consideration the interprofessional team needs

c)

Professional reasoning is only achieved by a therapist after a direct experience with making professional decisions on client cases

d)

Professional reasoning specifically incorporates evidence from the occupational therapy literature to support therapist decision making

46.

The original profession-based cognitive reasoning processes identified in the Clinical Reasoning Study are:

a)

Cognitive, intuitive, pragmatic reasoning

b)

Procedural, interactive, conditional reasoning

c)

Procedural, intuitive, cognitive reasoning

d)

Procedural, narrative, conditional reasoning

47.

Narrative reasoning is a process of thinking that includes:

a)

Narrating in detail the dialog between the client and therapist

b)

Narrating the intervention plan in a manner that attends to the health literacy needs of a client

c)

providing an opportunity for the client to narrate their home exercise program in a manner using their own words

d)

A process of story-making that contextualizes the client’s lived experience

48.

Pragmatic considerations therapists may attend to while processing clinical decisions that inform pragmatic reasoning can include:

a)

Reimbursement constraints that narrow the possibilities of DME recommendations.

b)

The ability of the client to participate in collaborative goal setting

c)

The client’s diagnosis

d)

The client’s age

49.

The higher-order sociocultural influences and knowledge of a therapist that can shape professional decisions, influence how they think, and influence clinical reasoning is labeled a therapist’s:

a)

persona

b)

personal narrative

c)

visual lens

d)

worldview

50.

Ethical decision-making that influences ethical reasoning is grounded in the profession’s commitment to client-centeredness, autonomy, ________ and _______?

a)

social justice, occupational justice

b)

beneficence, nonmaleficence

c)

self-determination, empowerment

d)

occupational engagement, occupational participation

51.

The development of clinical reasoning in occupational therapy moves through different stages, these are:

a)

Beginner, intermediate, advanced, expert

b)

Ignorant, understanding, believing, performing, proficient

c)

Novice, advanced beginner, competent, proficient, expert

d)

Beginner, intermediate beginner, advanced beginner, expert, master.

52.

The process where therapists allow themselves to experience surprise and puzzlement and perform research in the context of practice is called:

a)

Reflection-in-practice

b)

Procedural and ethical

c)

Scientific and interactive

d)

Conditional and interactive

53.

Which of the following interventions is the best example of the use of a compensatory or adaptive approach?

a)

Theraband exercises to increase the client’s strength

b)

Weight shift activities to improve client’s trunk stability

c)

Training on the use of a tub bench to improve client’s bathing safety

d)

Leisure occupations to increase client’s range of motion

54.

An occupational therapist is working with a client in the late stages of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which of the following frames of reference would be the most appropriate to guide intervention?

a)

Biomechanical frame of reference

b)

Motor learning frame of reference

c)

Sensory integration frame of reference

d)

Rehabilitation frame of reference

55.

The rehabilitation frame of reference best aligns with which of the following OTPF-3 approaches to intervention?

a)

Modify

b)

Establish/restore

c)

Create/promote

d)

Remediate

56.

Which is the best example of the use of the rehabilitation frame of reference to guide services for a population?

a)

An occupational therapist instructs a group of clients taking part in ROM exercises following hip replacement surgery.

b)

An occupational therapist recommends a gym membership to a client in a cardiac rehabilitation outpatient program.

c)

An occupational therapist fabricates a custom orthosis for a client with limited upper extremity function.

d)

An occupational therapist recommends environmental modification at an assistive living facility to meet the needs of residents with low vision.

57.

Which is the best example of a chronic or progressive condition for which the rehabilitation frame of reference would be an appropriate choice to guide occupational therapy intervention?

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Total hip arthroplasty

c)

Rotator cuff tear

d)

Clavicular fracture

58.

An occupational therapist is working with a client in a home health setting. The client experienced a stroke two weeks previously and has deficits in right motor function, upper extremity strength, and cognition that severely limit his ability to complete desired activities of daily living. Which approach to intervention should the therapist take?

a)

Use only a remedial approach.

b)

Use only an adaptive approach.

c)

Use both a remedial and an adaptive approach

d)

Use neither a remedial nor an adaptive approach.

59.

An occupational therapist using the rehabilitation frame of reference teaches a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder (COPD) to pace his daily tasks to reduce fatigue. This is an example of the use of which type of intervention?

a)

Assistive technology

b)

Compensatory techniques

c)

Environmental modifications

d)

Orthotics and prosthetics

60.

An occupational therapist using the rehabilitation frame of reference trains a caregiver in the use of a mechanical lift for a client with diagnoses of dementia and obesity. This is an example of the use of which type of intervention?

a)

Assistive technology

b)

Compensatory techniques

c)

Environmental modifications

d)

Orthotics and prosthetics

61.

Which of the following is a problem that can occur in neurological rehabilitation if a compensatory approach is used too early, or to the exclusion of remedial approaches?

a)

Increased client motivation

b)

Learned non-use

c)

Denial of reimbursement

d)

Occupation as ends

62.

Which of the following is the best example of a modification to the social environment that would be consistent with the rehabilitation frame of reference?

a)

Limiting clutter to compensate for a client’s decreased attention to task following traumatic brain injury

b)

Installation of a wheelchair ramp to allow independent access to the home for a client with spinal cord injury

c)

Limiting visitors for an individual with Alzheimer's disease who experiences agitation.

d)

Increasing home lighting levels to compensate for an older adult’s decreased visual acuity

63.

Which of the following statements is true about a frame of reference?

a)

It is an intervention protocol.

b)

It is a set of criteria in relation to which measurements or judgments can be made

c)

It is more general in scope than a model

d)

It is a system of ideas intended to explain something

64.

Which of the following is NOT a frame of reference commonly used in the management of physical dysfunction?

a)

Biomechanical

b)

Sensorimotor

c)

Cognitive-behavioral

d)

Rehabilitation

65.

For which condition would an occupational therapist most likely use the biomechanical frame of reference?

a)

Cerebral vascular accident

b)

Traumatic brain injury

c)

Cerebral palsy

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

66.

Which of the following is NOT a component that represents the capacity for motion?

a)

Muscle tone

b)

Joint range of motion

c)

Muscle strength

d)

Endurance

67.

Which of the following client factors from the OT Practice Framework is the focus of the biomechanical frame of reference?

a)

Body structures

b)

Values

c)

Beliefs

d)

Spirituality

68.

In which stage of the treatment continuum does the use of physical agent modalities fit?

a)

Performance of occupational roles

b)

Purposeful activities

c)

Enabling activities

d)

Adjunctive methods

69.

The focus of OT intervention when employing the biomechanical frame of reference could include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

prevention

b)

remediation

c)

inhibition

d)

compensation

70.

An OT is using a tool on the BTE™ to increase a client’s shoulder range of motion and strength. The focus of this intervention is:

a)

prevention

b)

remediation

c)

adaptation

d)

compensation

71.

An OT fabricates a universal cuff for a client who has no functional grasp, to allow him to feed himself. The focus of this interventions is:

a)

prevention

b)

remediation

c)

adaptation

d)

compensation

72.

The biomechanical frame of reference can be applied to problems with all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

musculoskeletal system

b)

central nervous system

c)

peripheral nervous system

d)

cardiopulmonary system

73.

Under which aspect of the Occupational Therapy Practice Framework: Domain and Process are visual functions (e.g., visual acuity and visual fields) categorized?

a)

Client factors

b)

Performance skills

c)

Performance patterns

d)

Contextual and environmental barriers

74.

Warren’s (2011) model of visual functioning, visual processing is the product of a visual perceptual hierarchy. Which higher level skill(s) depends on the integration of lower level skills for development?

a)

Visual attention and visual memory

b)

Visual acuity

c)

Visual fields

d)

Oculomotor control

75.

What is the most common cause of visual impairment in adults living in the United States?

a)

Neurologic illness (i.e. stroke)

b)

Trauma

c)

Infection

d)

Age

76.

Eye movements are controlled by six extraocular muscles and the cranial nerves that innervate them. Which cranial nerves supply innervation to the extraocular muscles?

a)

Cranial nerve II, III, and IV

b)

Cranial nerve III, IV, and VI

c)

Cranial nerve II, IV, and VI

d)

Cranial nerve III, V, and VI

77.

Glaucoma, cataract, and age-related macular degeneration are examples of non-correctable eye diseases that fall under this condition.

a)

Refractive error

b)

Accommodative disorder

c)

Low vision

d)

Visual field loss

78.

Binocular vision allows the eyes to blend two images together into a single image. The ability of the eyes to work together as a coordinated team is dependent upon this.

a)

Visual acuity

b)

Contrast sensitivity

c)

Alignment of the eyes

d)

Visual fields

79.

When assessing convergence and divergence, the OTR observes the client’s left eye drift outward when fixating on a target at near point, then pull back in with fusion. What causes this to happen?

a)

Accommodation disorder

b)

Oculomotor dysfunction

c)

Visual field loss

d)

Suppression of vision in one eye

80.

Visual acuity, oculomotor control, and the visual fields form the foundation for visual function. Why is it important for the OTR to screen the foundational skills in every client, including those that deny having visual deficits?

a)

As a member of an interdisciplinary team, vision screening is always the responsibility of the OTR.

b)

Performing a vision screening on every client will boost the OTR’s productivity

c)

A client may not fully understand how visual deficits impact performance

d)

Performing a vision screening on every client is necessary to protect the OTR against malpractice

81.

An occupational therapist should screen for visual deficits with every client. Which of the following is NOT part of the role of an OTR performing a vision screening?

a)

Assess basic visual function

b)

Identify neurological pathologies that cause visual deficits

c)

Provide remediation, compensation or adaptations to support function

d)

Make referrals as needed.

82.

Why should an OTR begin a vision screening by assessing both eyes at once?

a)

Assessing both eyes at the same time is necessary to allow the client to wear his or her prescription glasses.

b)

Occlusion is not a reliable means for identifying a visual problem.

c)

Occluding one eye may trigger the client to attempt to compensate for visual loss

d)

Functional vision and occupational performance are performed with both eyes

83.

When screening visual skills, how does the role of an OTR differ from an optometrist or ophthalmologist?

a)

The OTR evaluates vision as a means to explain functional limitations.

b)

The OTR primarily specializes in low vision disorders

c)

The OTR prescribes vision-enhancing devices (e.g., magnifiers and screen readers).

d)

The OTR relies on standardized assessments to diagnose visual impairment.

84.

When assessing visual processing skills, all testing should be conducted with the client wearing his or her most current prescription eyewear, EXCEPT when administering this subtest of a visual screening.

a)

Visual acuity

b)

Accommodation

c)

Confrontation testing

d)

Smooth pursuits

85.

This quick visual screen can be used to determine whether it is possible to improve visual acuity with prescription glasses or contact lenses.

a)

Snellen eye chart

b)

Pinhole method

c)

Useful Field of View (UFOV) Test

d)

Developmental Eye Movement Test (DEM)

86.

Which of the following is a compensatory strategy for use with clients with low vision?

a)

Use of objects with little to no contrast

b)

Sensory substitution

c)

The written direction in standard-sized print

d)

NDT

87.

You have a client with double vision. What would be the first step in your treatment of this individual?

a)

Orthoptist

b)

Referral to a neuro-ophthalmologist

c)

A pirate patch

d)

Implement a task light

88.

Based on an optometrist’s report, your client’s best-corrected acuity is 20/160. He has macular degeneration in both eyes, for which he is receiving injections. What functional activity would not be affected?

a)

Driving

b)

Sleep patterns

c)

Medication management

d)

Meal preparation

89.

You have a client with glaucoma and moderate cognitive decline whose goal is to be able to read. What would be a potential strategy would you use?

a)

Eccentric viewing strategies

b)

Sensory substitution

c)

Relative size magnification

d)

Large print book

90.

An effective scanning pattern includes:

a)

Using magnification.

b)

A) Always starting at the bottom left-hand corner.

c)

A) Using a bright task light.

d)

Using a search pattern that begins on the blindside.

91.

Your client with a left visual field deficit is struggling with reading. What compensatory strategy would you implement as the occupational therapist?

a)

A visual anchor on the left side of the page

b)

Eccentric viewing training

c)

Fresnel prisms

d)

Turn the book upside down

92.

What is an example of a vision therapy technique you would most likely use with your client with a convergence deficit?

a)

Dynavision

b)

Brock string

c)

Rotator instrument

d)

Glare filters

93.

Why are occupational therapists often the first professionals to identify functional vision dysfunction?

a)

Occupational therapists are the first to evaluate the client

b)

Because occupational therapists see clients in acute care.

c)

Occupational therapists can observe the impact of vision deficits during functional tasks

d)

Occupational therapists are the only professionals who communicate with the optometrist

94.

Your client with double vision has been prescribed partial occlusion by the optometrist. What does your role include as an occupational therapist?

a)

Alternate partial occlusion with full occlusion

b)

Ensure the client is following the appropriate wearing schedule.

c)

Alter the wearing schedule

d)

Discourage client from using occlusion

95.

Why is it important for occupational therapists to become involved in research for visual rehabilitation?

a)

To achieve fame and notoriety

b)

To ensure the use of evidence-based practice for vision rehabilitation.

c)

To identify medications to treat macular degeneration

d)

To assist optometrists in accurately diagnosing cases

96.

During an ADL session, the client is frequently bumping into objects on the left side. What visual perceptual dysfunction could this be?

a)

Form constancy

b)

Unilateral spatial inattention

c)

Visual memory

d)

Visual grouping

97.

What are the foundational visual skill(s) outlined in Warren’s hierarchy?

a)

Figure-ground perception and depth perception

b)

Visual memory

c)

Visual closure, form constancy, and spatial orientation

d)

Oculomotor skills, visual fields, and visual acuity

98.

What is an example of a functional screening task for depth perception?

a)

Bell’s test

b)

Balancing a checkbook

c)

Pouring cereal and milk into a bowl

d)

Manual muscle testing

99.

Which best describes a remediation approach for therapy?

a)

Reacquisition of skills through practice

b)

Using compensatory strategies for deficits.

c)

Adapting the environment for task success.

d)

A top-down approach.

100.

The use of prisms can be integrated into functional tasks to compensate for which condition?

a)

Visual agnosia

b)

Pattern recognition

c)

Visual acuity

d)

Unilateral spatial inattention

101.

Which type of patching is considered a contraindication following brain injury for unilateral spatial neglect?

a)

Monocular patching

b)

Bansal occlusion

c)

Right hemifield patching

d)

Binocular patching

102.

Which of the following standardized assessments includes subtests for visual-motor integration and motor reduced visual perception?

a)

DTVP-A

b)

MVPT-3

c)

WRAT-4

d)

BADS

103.

What might be an indicator of visual-spatial deficits in the classroom?

a)

Talking out of turn

b)

Fidgeting

c)

Messy handwriting

d)

Low tone

104.

If a client is presenting with difficulties in visual closure, what difficulties might show up in a driving evaluation?

a)

Poor stopping distance

b)

Poor lane-keeping

c)

Forgetting to use the blinker

d)

Sign identification

105.

Which of the following is a monocular cue to compensate for depth perception dysfunction?

a)

Shadowing

b)

“look left”

c)

Relaxing the eyes

d)

Pointing and tapping

106.

Why do occupational therapists assess cognitive functions?

a)

Because they want to maximize reimbursement potential.

b)

Because the new coding system is more likely to support reimbursement through medical insurance.

c)

Because many people referred to OT services have some degree of cognitive impairment which interferes with their ability to perform daily activities

d)

Because Medicare outpatient therapy services allow billing beyond $3,000 for cognitive rehabilitation.

107.

The brain is limited in its capacity to process all sensory stimuli present in the physical world at any point in time and relies upon the cognitive process of attention to focus according to the contingencies of the moment. Which best describes bottom-up attention?

a)

The ability of mental flexibility that allows individuals to shift their focus of attention and move between tasks having different cognitive requirements.

b)

The ability to use attentional guidance purely by externally driven factors to stimuli that are salient because of their inherent properties relative to their background; it has learned biological relevance.

c)

The ability to maintain a consistent behavioral response during continuous and repetitive activity.

d)

Attention, referring to internal guidance of attention based on prior knowledge, willful plans, and current goals.

108.

Which of the following best describes top-down attention?

a)

The use of internal guidance of attention based on prior knowledge, willful plans, and current goals.

b)

Process of beginning the assessment of the cranial nerves and proceeding down the dermatome segments to determine the level of impairment.

c)

Using executive level questions to examine the integrity of the frontal lobes in answering abstract questions.

d)

Using continuous performance exams to determine how long the patient can retain attention.

109.

The therapist wants to conduct some pretesting to determine if the person has the ability to safely drive a motor vehicle on the road. Driving causes ones’ focus to be split between several different things at once such as being aware of their speed, their surroundings, and the condition of their car. What type of attention does the therapist want to assess?

a)

Divided attention to see if the patient can shift attention to monitor the environment.

b)

Focused attention such as watching a television program and nothing else.

c)

Selective attention to focus on one element in the environment.

d)

Alternating attention to elicit long-term and short-term memory.

110.

The type of attention that requires focusing on a particular object for a period of time while simultaneously ignoring irrelevant information that is also occurring is called:

a)

Provide tasks that promote divided attention

b)

Put the patient in an isolated room to complete a puzzle to promote selective attention

c)

Set up a number of tasks that require multitasking

d)

Set up changing light signals to direct the patient’s attention to exogenous stimuli

111.

In order to evaluate episodic memory, the therapist may construct an activity where the person must perform which of the following?

a)

Recall the contours, design, and shape of objects by touching them with vision occluded.

b)

Engage the patient in a conversation about food and ask them the name of a favorite restaurant where food is served.

c)

Ask the client to perform a procedure like tying shoes.

d)

Recall and describe an experience and specific events in time in a serial form, which we can reconstruct the actual events that took place at any given time and place in our lives.

112.

The ability to recall the contours, design, shape, or structure of a previously experienced environment is called:

a)

Declarative memory.

b)

intergrade memory

c)

topographical memory

d)

retrograde memory